Endocrine, Skin, Bones, Joints & Soft Tissues Flashcards

1
Q

Infarction or hemorrhage of the
pituitary gland producing
sudden neurologic impairment

A

Pituitary apoplexy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common cause of
hyperpituitarism

A

Functioning anterior
pituitary neuroendocrine
tumor
(PitNET)/adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most common
hyperfunctioning pituitary
tumor

A

Prolactinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hyperfunctioning of this cell
type produces gigantism in
children and acromegaly in
adults

A

Somatotroph (produces
GH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Development of large,
destructive pituitary adenomas
post-adrenalectomy for
Cushing syndrome

A

Nelson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pituitary macrotumors
measure

A

≥ 1 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

New term for pituitary
adenoma based on WHO 5th
edition

A

Pituitary neuroendocrine
tumor (PitNET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

New term for pituitary
carcinoma based on WHO 5th
edition

A

Metastatic pituitary
neuroendocrine tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most common hormone
produced by functional
metastatic PitNET

A

ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Evidence of hypopituitarism
appear at this percentage of
parenchymal loss

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Arachnoid and CSF herniate
through a sellar diaphragm
defect and compress the
pituitary

A

Primary sella syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Postpartum hypopituitarism
caused by significant blood loss
after delivery

A

Sheehan syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type of lung cancer that
produces syndrome of
inappropriate ADH excess

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pathology in central diabetes
insipidus (DI)

A

ADH deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ADH level, serum and urine
osmolality in central DI

A

ADH - Low; Serum Osm -
Normal to high; Urine
Osm - Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pathology in nephrogenic DI

A

Unresponsiveness of
renal tubules to ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ADH level, serum and urine
osmolality in central DI

A

ADH - Low; Serum Osm -
Normal to high; Urine
Osm - Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Histologic subtype of
craniopharyngioma
characterized by squamous
epithelium with peripheral
palisading, stellate reticulum “wet” keratin or “machine oil”
fluid, dystrophic calcification

A

Adamanatinomatous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

↑ T3/T4 → ↓ TSH

A

Primary
hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

↑ TSH → ↑ T3/T4

A

Secondary
hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

One of the earliest and most
consistent features of
hyperthyroidism

A

Cardiac manifestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common arrhythmia
encountered in
hyperthyroidism other than
sinus tachycardia

A

Atrial fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Autoantibodies present in
Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

Anti-thyroglobulin, antithyroid
peroxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hashimoto thyroiditis
microscopic findings

A

Lymphoplasmacytic
infiltrates with germinal
centers, Oncocytic
change in thyrocytes,
Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Hashimoto thyroiditis patients
have increased risk to develop
these neoplasms

A

Marginal zone
lymphoma, Papillary
thyroid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Painless thyroid enlargement
in a postpartum patient; (+)
Anti-TPO; Thyroid biopsy -
lymphoplasmacytic infiltrates
with germinal centers only

A

Subacute lymphocytic
(painless) thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Painful thyroid enlargement
following a history of URTI;
Thyroid biopsy - lymphocytic
infiltration, granulomas with
multinucleated giant cells

A

Granulomatous (De
Quervain) thyroiditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Most common cause of
endogenous hyperthyroidism

A

Graves Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Disease-causing autoantibody
in Graves disease

A

Thyroid-stimulating
immunoglobulin (TSI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Graves disease patients are at
risk to develop these
conditions

A

SLE, pernicious anemia,
Type 1 DM, Addison
disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Accumulating substance that
causes exophthalmos in Graves
ophthalmopathy

A

Glycosaminoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Scaly thickening and induration
of the skin overlying the shins
in Graves disease

A

Pretibial myxedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common cause of goiter

A

Iodine deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Features favoring thyroid
malignancy

A

Solitary nodule, Young,
Male patient, History of
radiation, Nonfunctioning
“cold”
nodules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Distinguishing feature of
follicular carcinoma from
follicular adenoma

A

Capsular and/or vascular
invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most common thyroid
malignancy

A

Papillary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A specific feature of papillary
thyroid carcinoma wherein the
nucleus is optically clear and
devoid of chromatin

A

Orphan Annie nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fast-growing thyroid
malignancy that has 100%
mortality within 6 months

A

Anaplastic carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Thyroid malignancy associated
with amyloid deposition and
IHC positive with calcitonin

A

Medullary carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Most common cause of primary
hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common cause of
secondary
hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Skeletal disorder associated
with late-stage primary
hyperparathyroidism

A

Von Recklinghausen
disease of bone or
osteitis fibrosa cystica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Reliable criteria differentiating
parathyroid carcinoma from
adenoma

A

Metastasis and Local
invasion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Renal manifestations of
hyperparathyroidism

A

Nephrolithiasis,
nephrocalcinosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Most common cause of
hypoparathyroidism

A

Surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The presence of Chvostek and
Trousseau signs is suggestive
of this electrolyte abnormality

A

Hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Autoantibodies against
pancreatic islet cells in T1DM

A

Anti-insulin, GAD, and
ICA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Most important susceptibility
genes for T1DM

A

HLA DR3/DR4 (Ch6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most important environmental
factor causing T2DM

A

Central/Visceral obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most common cause of death in
T2DM patients

A

Myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

T2DM macrovascular
complications

A

Coronary, cerebrovascular,
and peripheral arterial
disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T2DM microvascular
complications

A

Retinopathy,
Nephropathy,
Neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Nodules of pink hyaline
material in the glomerulus of
patients with diabetic
nephropathy

A

Kimmelstiel-Wilson
lesion/Nodular
glomerulosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Unequivocal criteria for
pancreatic neuroendocrine
tumor malignancy

A

Metastasis, Vascular
invasion, Local
infiltration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Whipple triad of insulinoma

A

Hypoglycemia <50
mg/dL, Neuroglycopenic
symptoms, Relief upon
parenteral glucose
administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A patient presents with severe
GERD and peptic ulceration
despite intensive PPI
treatment. H. pylori is not
detected. Which pancreatic
tumor is most likely present?

A

Gastrinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pancreatic tumor with features of
diabetes, necrolytic migratory
erythema, and anemia

A

Glucagonoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

WDHA syndrome of VIPoma

A

Watery diarrhea,
Hypokalemia,
Achlorhydria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Abdominal striae, obesity,
dorsocervical fullness (buffalo
hump), moon facies, ↑ 24-hour
urine free cortisol

A

Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

ACTH-secreting pituitary
adenoma

A

Cushing disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Most common cause of Cushing
syndrome overall

A

Exogenous steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Most common endogenous
cause of Cushing syndrome

A

Cushing disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Hypertension, hypokalemia, ↑
Aldosterone ↓ Renin

A

Primary
hyperaldosteronism or
Conn syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

↑ Renin ↑ Aldosterone

A

Secondary
hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Causes of secondary
hyperaldosteronism

A

Renal hypoperfusion -
Nephrosclerosis, Renal
artery stenosis, Arterial
hypovolemia; Pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most common cause enzyme
deficient in congenital adrenal
hyperplasia

A

21-hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Bilateral adrenal hemorrhage
as a complication of
meningococcemia causing
primary acute adrenocortical
insufficiency

A

Waterhouse-
Friderichsen syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Eponym of primary chronic
adrenocortical insufficiency

A

Addison disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hormone elevated in Addison
disease that causes skin
hyperpigmentation

A

MSH or melanocyte-stimulating
hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Features differentiating
secondary from primary
adrenal insufficiency

A

Hyperpigmentation (↓
MSH); ACTH stimulation
test: (+) – ↑ in cortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Most common adrenocortical
tumor

A

Adrenocortical adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Medullary chromaffin cell
tumor that produces
catecholamine

A

Pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Only reliable criterion of
malignancy for
pheochromocytoma

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pheochromocytoma rule of 10

A

10% are extra-adrenal,
bilateral, biologically
malignant, and not
associated with
hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

MEN 1 Syndrome eponym

A

Wermer syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Features of MEN 1 syndrome

A

3 Ps: Primary
hyperparathyroidism,
pancreatic tumor,
pituitary tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

MEN 2A Syndrome eponym

A

Sipple syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Clinical features of MEN2A
syndrome

A

Pheochromocytoma,
Medullary thyroid
carcinoma, Parathyroid
hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

MEN 2B Syndrome eponyms

A

Wagemann-Froboese
syndrome, MEN 3,
Mucosal neuroma
syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Clinical features of MEN2B
syndrome

A

Pheochromocytoma,
Medullary thyroid
carcinoma, Neuromas,
Ganglioneuromas,
Marfanoid habitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Gene mutation in MEN1

A

Pheochromocytoma,
Medullary thyroid
carcinoma, Neuromas,
Ganglioneuromas,
Marfanoid habitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Gene mutation in MEN1

A

MEN1 loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Gene mutation in MEN2A, 2B

A

RET gain-of-function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Nested melanocytic
proliferation without
architectural/cytologic atypia

A

Melanocytic nevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Linear melanocytic
proliferation along basal
epidermis

A

Simple lentigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Most deadly skin cancer

A

Malignant melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Most important risk factor for
malignant melanoma

A

Sun exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Growth phase of melanoma
that has metastatic potential

A

Vertical growth phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Type of melanoma located in
any cutaneous site except
palms and soles; Intermittently
sun-exposed skin

A

Superficial spreading
melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Type of melanoma located in
on-hair bearing acral skin;
Unrelated to sun exposure

A

Acral melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Measures the depth of invasion
of melanoma from the top of
the granular layer to the
deepest point of invasion

A

Breslow thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Thickened, hyperpigmented
skin with a “velvet-like” texture
in flexural areas seen in obese
and DM patients

A

Acanthosis nigricans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Acanthosis nigricans is a
cutaneous marker of these
malignancies

A

Gastrointestinal
malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Soft pedunculated mass on the
skin; fibrovascular cores lined
by benign squamous
epithelium

A

Fibroepithelial polyp
(Acrochordon, Skin Tag)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Tan/dark brown plaque with
keratin-impacted pores on
dermoscopy

A

Seborrheic keratosis (SK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

The abrupt appearance of of
multiple seborrheic keratoses
caused by an associated
malignancy

A

Leser-Trélat sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Blue-gray elastic fibers in the
dermis that serve as a marker
of sun damage; seen in actinic
keratosis

A

Solar elastosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Most important risk factor for
squamous cell carcinoma of the
skin

A

UV radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Other risk factors for SCCA of
the skin

A

Ionizing radiation,
Immunosuppression,
HPV infection (5 and 8),
Coal tar, Arsenic, Old
burn scars, chronic
ulcers, draining
osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Most common type of skin
cancer

A

Basal cell carcinoma
(BCC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Clinical features of BCC

A

Pearly, telangiectatic
papules→Ulceration
(Rodent ulcer), extensive
local invasion

102
Q

Syndrome associated with
multiple BCCs,
medulloblastoma, odontogenic
keratocysts, etc.

A

Nevoid BCC (Gorlin)
syndrome

103
Q

Type of hypersensitivity
observed in acute eczematous
dermatitis (contact with
external antigen e.g. poison ivy)

A

Type IV Hypersensitivity

104
Q

Infections associated with
erythema multiforme

A

HSV, Mycoplasma,
Histoplasma,
Coccidioides, S. typhi, M.
leprae

105
Q

Drugs associated with
erythema multiforme

A

Sulfonamides, Penicillin,
Barbiturates, Salicylates,
Hydantoins,
antimalarials

106
Q

A patient presents with
multiple plaques with scaling
on the elbow, knee, and scalp
regions. Nail pitting and
onycholysis are present. What
is the most likely diagnosis?

107
Q

Pinpoint bleeding on lifting of
psoriasis scales

A

Auspitz sign

108
Q

Appearance of new skin lesions
on previously unaffected skin
secondary to trauma

A

Koebner phenomenon

109
Q

Collection of neutrophils in the
stratum corneum; a cardinal
sign of psoriasis

A

Munro microabscesses

110
Q

Biochemical etiology of
seborrheic dermatitis

A

↑ Androgens, ↓ Dopamine
(Parkinson)

111
Q

Infectious etiology of
seborrheic dermatitis

A

Malassezia furfur, HIV

112
Q

Civatte bodies or necrotic basal
keratinocytes, interface dermatitis, and DEJ saw toothing are present in

A

Lichen planus

113
Q

6Ps of lichen planus

A

Pruritic, purple,
polygonal, planar,
papules, and plaques

114
Q

Most common type of
pemphigus

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

115
Q

Pathology in pemphigus
vulgaris

A

IgG against desmoglein
(Desmosomes)

116
Q

Immunofluorescence finding in
pemphigus vulgaris

A

Epidermis, intercellular
→ Lace-like pattern

117
Q

Pathology in bullous
pemphigoid

A

IgG against BPAGs
(Hemidesmosomes)

118
Q

Immunofluorescence finding in
bullous pemphigoid

A

Basement membrane →
Linear pattern

119
Q

Clinical sign that differentiates
pemphigus vulgaris from
bullous pemphigoid

A

Pemphigus: (+) Nikolsky
sign

120
Q

Disease associated with
dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Celiac disease

121
Q

Pathology in dermatitis
herpetiformis

A

IgA against gliadins cross
reacts against reticulin

122
Q

Acne-causing bacteria that
converts lipids into
proinflammatory fatty acids

A

Cutibacterium acnes

123
Q

Papules with central black plug
(due to oxidized melanin

A

Open comedones

124
Q

Causative agent of verruca
vulgaris

A

Low-risk HPVs

125
Q

vPink, pearly papule with
umbilical center; curd-like
material can be expressed from
umbilication

A

Molluscum contagiosum

126
Q

Etiology of impetigo

A

S. aureus (bullosa), S.
pyogenes (contagiosa)

127
Q

Focal suppurative
inflammation of skin and
subcutaneous tissue

128
Q

Deeper suppurative infections
that spreads laterally and
superficially

129
Q

Chronic suppurative infection
of the apocrine glands

A

Hidradenitis

130
Q

Infection of the palmar side of
fingertips

131
Q

Nail bed infection

A

Paronychia

132
Q

Other term for Staphylococcal
Scalded Skin Syndrome

A

Ritter disease

133
Q

Disruption of the migration
and condensation of
mesenchyme

A

Dysostosis

134
Q

Global disorganization of
bone and or cartilage

135
Q

Most common skeletal
dysplasia

A

Achondroplasia

136
Q

Most common cause of lethal
dwarfism

A

Thanatophoric dysplasia

137
Q

Usual cause of death in
thanatophoric dysplasia

A

Respiratory insufficiency

138
Q

Gene mutation in
achondroplasia and
thanatophoric dysplasia

A

FGFR3 gain of function

139
Q

Most common cause of
inherited disorder of
connective tissue

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta
(Brittle bone disease)

140
Q

Genes mutated in
osteogenesis imperfecta

A

COL1A1, COL1A2

141
Q

Pathology in osteogenesis
imperfecta

A

Deficient Type I collagen
synthesis

142
Q

Decreased bone mass (T
score = -1 – -2.5 SD)

A

Osteopenia

143
Q

Severe osteopenia that
significantly increases the
risk of fracture (T score < -
2.5 SD)

A

Osteoporosis

144
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Advanced age, physical
inactivity, calcium and
vitamin D deficiency,
estrogen deficiency

145
Q

Faulty bone mineralization
caused by vitamin D
deficiency; results in bone
softening and weakening

A

Rickets (Pediatric),
Osteomalacia (Adults)

146
Q

Clinical features of rickets

A

Craniotabes (Softened skull
bones), Frontal bossing,
Squared head, Rachitic
rosary, Pigeon breast
deformity, Lumbar
lordosis, Bowing of legs

147
Q

Skeletal disorder in CKD and
dialysis patients resulting
from secondary
hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal osteodystrophy

148
Q

Mosaic pattern of lamellar
bone with cement lines
→Jigsaw-puzzle appearance

A

Paget’s Disease of Bone

149
Q

Most dreaded complication
of Paget’s Disease of Bone

A

Secondary sarcoma
(Osteosarcoma >
Fibrosarcoma)

150
Q

Stage of fracture healing on
Day 0-1

A

Organizing hematoma

151
Q

Stage of fracture healing on
Week 0-1

A

Soft callus/bone callus

152
Q

Type of bone deposited in
week 2-3 of fracture healing

A

Woven bone

153
Q

Type of bone formed in week
3-months of fracture healing

A

Lamellar bone

154
Q

Most common etiologies of
avascular necrosis

A

Fractures, corticosteroid
use

155
Q

Site commonly involved in
avascular necrosis due to the
absence of collateral
circulation

A

Medullary cavity

156
Q

Most common bacterial
cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

157
Q

Bacteria associated with
osteomyelitis in sickle cell
anemia patients

A

Salmonella

158
Q

Region of the bone where
osteomyelitis in children is
commonly located

A

Metaphysis

159
Q

Region of the bone where
osteomyelitis in adults is
commonly located

A

Epiphysis, Subchondral

160
Q

In acute osteomyelitis,
destruction of the bone produces
draining sinuses called as

A

Sequestrum

161
Q

Living shell around a
devitalized infected bone

A

Involucrum

162
Q

Osteoid osteoma tumor size
and pain response to NSAIDs

A

<2 cm, pain relieved by
NSAIDs

163
Q

Osteoblastoma tumor size
and pain response to NSAIDs

A

> 2 cm, pain not relieved by
NSAIDs

164
Q

Most common primary bone
sarcoma

A

Osteosarcoma

165
Q

Secondary osteosarcoma risk
factors

A

Paget disease of bone, bone
infarcts, previous radiation

166
Q

Most common site of
osteosarcoma

A

Metaphysis - Knee

167
Q

Radiologic findings
suggestive of osteosarcoma

A

Sunburst periosteal
reaction, Codman triangle
(Periosteal lifting)

168
Q

Most common metastatic site
of osteosarcoma

169
Q

Most common benign bone
tumor

A

Osteochondroma

170
Q

Common site involved in
osteochondroma

A

Metaphysis - Knee, Pelvis,
Scapula, Ribs

171
Q

Osteochondroma can
transform into which
sarcoma

A

Chondrosarcoma

172
Q

Syndrome of multiple
enchondromas, Spindle cell
hemangiomas, Risk for brain
gliomas

A

Maffucci syndrome

173
Q

Genetic mutation in Ewing
sarcoma

A

t(11;22) ESWR1::FLI1

174
Q

Common site involved in
Ewing sarcoma

A

Diaphysis - Long bones,
Pelvis, Ribs

175
Q

Rounded cell clusters around
a central fibrillary core seen
in Ewing sarcoma

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

176
Q

Radiologic findings
suggestive of Ewing sarcoma

A

Lytic, infiltrative,
multilayered periosteal
reaction (Onion-skin
lesion)

177
Q

Skeletal disorder associated
with McCune-Albright
syndrome

A

Fibrous dysplasia (+ Caféau-
lait spots + Precocious
puberty)

178
Q

Most common skeletal
malignancy

A

Metastasis

179
Q

Blastic bone lesions

180
Q

Lytic bone lesions

A

Kidney, Lung, GIT,
Melanoma

181
Q

Most common form of
arthritis

A

Osteoarthritis

182
Q

Osteophytes at the DIPJ

A

Heberden nodes

183
Q

Osteophytes at CMCJ or PIPJ
of the hand

A

Bouchard nodes

184
Q

Most common inflammatory
arthritis

A

Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

185
Q

HLA type associated with RA

186
Q

Most common joints involved
in RA

A

Small joints of hands and
feet

187
Q

PIP Hyperextension, DIP
flexion

A

Swan neck deformity

188
Q

PIP Flexion, DIP
Hyperextension

A

Boutonniere deformity

189
Q

IgM/IgG against IgG Fc
region

A

Rheumatoid factor

190
Q

Early specific marker for RA

A

Anti-citrullinated peptide
antibody (ACPA)

191
Q

Most commonly involved
joint in gout

A

1st MTP of big toe

192
Q

Pathologic hallmark of gout

193
Q

Appearance of monosodium
urate crystals in polarized
microscopy

A

Needle-shaped, (-)
Birefringence (Yellow)

194
Q

Crystals deposited in
pseudogout

A

Calcium pyrophosphate
dihydrate (CPPD)

195
Q

Most commonly involved
joint in pseudogout

196
Q

Appearance of CPP crystals
in polarized microscopy

A

Rhomboid, (+)
Birefringence (Blue)

197
Q

Infectious etiology of
suppurative arthritis in late
adolescents and young adults

A

N. gonorrhoeae

198
Q

Infectious etiology of
suppurative arthritis in
children <2 years old

A

H. influenzae

199
Q

Examples of seronegative
spondyloarthropathies

A

Ankylosing spondylitis,
Reactive arthritis

200
Q

Most commonly involved
joint in Ankylosing
spondylitis

A

Sacroiliac joint

201
Q

Triad of reactive arthritis

A

Arthritis, Conjunctivitis,
Urethritis

202
Q

Most common soft tissue
tumor of adulthood

203
Q

Most common sarcoma of
adulthood

A

Liposarcoma

204
Q

Most common soft tissue
sarcoma in children and
adolescents

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

205
Q

Craniopharyngioma:
Adamantinomatous mutation
Papillary mutation

A

CTNNB1 (B-catenin);
BRAF V600E

206
Q

Metastatic PitNet features

A

(+) craniospinal involvement
(+) systemic metastasis

207
Q

Graves disease is a Type _____ hypersensitivity reaction with Ab against _______________________

A

II; TSH receptors

208
Q

Colloid is pale; scalloped (Moth-eaten)

A

Grave’s disease

209
Q

Grave’s triad

A

Hyperthyroidism
Ophthalmopathy
Dermopathy

210
Q

Brown glassy translucent cut surface

A

Goiter (Colloid involution)

211
Q

A syndrome of toxic (hyperthyroid) goiter w/ functioning nodule from multinodular goiter

A

Plummer syndrome

212
Q

Follicular adenoma mutation

A

RAS, PAX8::PPARG fusion

213
Q

Follicular carcinoma route of spread

A

Hematogenous

214
Q

Papillary carcinoma mutation

A

BRAF V600E, RAS, RET fusion

215
Q

Route of spread of papillary thyroid carcinoma

216
Q

Thyroid carcinomas caused by iron deficiency

A

Follicular, Anaplastic

217
Q

Thyroid carcinomas caused by iron excess

218
Q

Mutations in anaplastic thyroid Ca

A

TP53, TERT, RAS, BRAF

219
Q

IHC of anaplastic thyroid Ca

A

(+) Cytokeratin
(+) PAX8

220
Q

Thyroid ca that arise from follicular epithelial cells

A

follicular, anaplastic, papillary

221
Q

Thyroid ca that arise from parafollicular c cells

222
Q

Mutation in medullary thyroid ca

A

Germline RET

223
Q

Used to diagnose hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue

A

Technetium-99m sestamibi

224
Q

Lab parameter to use to check serum ca levels

225
Q

Hormone co-secreted w/ insulin that promotes amyloid deposition

A

Islet amyloid polypeptide

226
Q

Why is the decrease in insulin in HHS not sufficient to cause ketoacidosis?

A

Adequate portal vein insulin levels

227
Q

Manifestations: DKA vs. HHS

A

DKA: visceral (N/V, abdominal pain)
HHS: Neurologic

228
Q

Steroid deficiencies in primary vs. secondary adrenocortical insufficiency
(glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid, androgens)

A

Primary: Glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid
Secondary: Glucocorticoid, androgens

229
Q

Spironolactone bodies

A

Adrenal cortical adenoma

230
Q

Adrenal cortical carcinoma are associated with the following conditions:

A

Li-Fraumeni Syndrome (TP53 loss)
Beckwidth-Wiedemann (IGF-2 overexpression)

231
Q

Zellballen arrangement of chief cells surrounded by spindle sustentacular cells

A

Pheochromocytoma

232
Q

Pheochromocytoma clinical features

A

Hypertension
DHP triad: Diaphoresis, headache, palpitations

233
Q

Metastatic sites for pheochromocytoma

A

LLLB
Lymph nodes
Liver
Lung
Bone

234
Q

Mutation in MEN 4

A

CDKN1B loss

235
Q

(+) neurotization

A

Melanocytic nevus

236
Q

Malignant melanoma mutation

237
Q

Associated with Burt Hogg syndrome

A

Fibroepithelial polyp

238
Q

Undulation of epidermal and dermal papillae

A

Acanthosis nigricans

239
Q

Atypical squamous cells invading dermis

A

SCC of skin

240
Q

Basal cell carcinoma gene affected

A

PCTH (tumor suppressor gene) loss

241
Q

(+) thickening of epidermis and elongation of Rete

A

Test tube in a rack appearance
Seen in psoriasis

242
Q

(+) neutrophils in spongiotic foci

A

Spongiform pustules of Kogoj

243
Q

(+) follicular lipping

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

244
Q

(+) Wickham striae

A

Lichen planus

245
Q

Difference of Pemphigus vulgaris vs. Bullous pemphigoid
Ab against:
Location of blister:
Acantholysis
Pattern:
Nikolsky:

A

Pemphigus vulgaris
IgG against DESMOSOMES
Suprabasilar blister
(+) Acantholysis
Epidermis-intercellular –> lace-like pattern
(+) Nikolsky sign

Bullous pemphigoid
IgG against HEMIDESMOSOMES
Subepidermal blister
(-) Acantholysis
Basement membrane –> linear pattern
(-) Nikolsky sign

246
Q

Pathogenesis of Verruca vulgaris

A

Viral E6 protein –> NOTCH inactivation –> ↑ epidermal hyperplasia

247
Q

Well-differentiated LPS/Atypical Lipomatosis Tumor etiology (gene)

A

MDM2 amplification

248
Q

Myxoid LPS etiology

A

DDIT3 rearrangement

249
Q

Rhabdomyosarcoma soft tissue IHC

A

Desmin, myogenin, MYOD1

250
Q

Alveolar RMS translocation

A

t (2:13) PAX3::FOXO1
t (1:13) PAX7::FOXO1

251
Q

Conditions with presence of Psammoma Bodies

A

PSaMmoma bodies
Papillary ca of thyroid
Papillary ca of RCC
Serous cystadenoma of ovary
Meningoma