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Locomotion, Past Q > Rättad 2020 > Flashcards

Rättad 2020 Flashcards

1
Q

Common symptoms in the pressure on peripheral neuron:

  • Muscular atrophy
  • Bone deviation
  • Joint swelling*
  • Joint redness*
A

Muscular atrophy

*Arthritis

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2
Q

Calcium ions are required for the normal activation of muscle. Which statement below most closely describes the role of calcium ions in the control of skeletal muscle contraction?

  • A high concentration of calcium ions in the myofilament space is required to maintain muscle in a relaxed state
  • The binding of calcium ions to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments removes the inhibition of actin myosin interaction
  • The binding of calcium ions is to the thick filament proteins activates the enzymatic activity of the myosin molecules
  • Calcium ions serve as inhibitor of the interaction of thick and thin filaments
A

-The binding of calcium ions to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments removes the inhibition of actin myosin interaction

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3
Q

Patient is not able abduct the upper limb. Which nerves are damaged?

A
  • Axillary nerve

- Suprascapular nerve

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4
Q

Which is NOT symptom of degenerative arthropathy?

  • Short term joint stiffness
  • Joint deformation
  • Joint pain
  • Joint redness
A
  • Joint redness (arthritis*)
  • Arthrosis is a non-inflammatory degenerative condition associated with aging. It affects mainly cartilage, which becomes rugged, irregular and worn out, causing pain and loss of joint mobility.
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5
Q

Patient falls prevention. Patient falls intrinsic risk factors. Which intrinsic factors can influence patient falls?

  • Balance and gait disorders
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Cataract
  • Arrhythmia
  • Different systems and diseases
A

-Different systems and diseases

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6
Q

In which health care institution patient falls prevention is important:

  • Nursing homes
  • Rehabilitation instituions
  • In all health care institutions
  • Hospitals
A

-In all health care institutions

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7
Q

The contractile response in skeletal muscle:

  • Does not last as long as the action potential
  • Produces more tension when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically
  • Produces more work when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically
  • Decrease in magnitude with repeated stimulation
  • Starts after the action potential is over
A

-Produces more tension when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically

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8
Q

Mark the right statement about posterior cruciate ligament:

  1. it attaches on lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
  2. it prevent anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur
  3. it attaches on the lateral femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
  4. it attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and patella
  5. it attaches on medial femoral condyle and anterior intercobdylar area of the tibia
A
  1. it attaches on lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
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9
Q

According to the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction, during contraction.

  1. The thick filaments stay the same size but the thin filaments shorten
  2. The thin filaments stay the same size but the thick filaments shorten
  3. Both thick and thin filaments shorten
  4. Titin interacts with actin
  5. The sarcomeres shorten
A
  1. The sarcomeres shorten
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10
Q

Which is NOT symptom of inflammatory arthropathy*?

  1. Joint deformation
  2. Subcondrial sclerosis on X-ray
  3. Joint redness
  4. Long term joint stiffness
A 
*arthritis 
Inflammatory arthritis (IA) is joint inflammation caused by an overactive immune system. It usually affects many joints throughout the body at the same time. Inflammatory forms of arthritis are much less common than osteoarthritis (OA), which affects most people at the later stages of life.
  1. Subcondrial sclerosis on X-ray
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11
Q

The recommended limit of one time lifting load weight for women is?

a. 30 kg
b. 25kg
c. 10kg
d. 5 kg

A

10 kg!

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12
Q

Structure into lacuna musculorum:

a. ilioinguinal nerve
b. femoral nerve
c. sciatic nerve
d. iliohypogastric nerve
e. obtratur nerve

A

Femoral nerve

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13
Q

The most informative meniscus rupture diagnostics instrument:
select one or more

  • CT
  • Palpation
  • Ultrasound
  • PET
  • MRI
A

-MRI

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14
Q

What type of protein is not expressed in case of Duchenne muscular dystrophy*?

  • Neurofibromine
  • Ret protooncogene
  • Dystrophine
  • P53 protein
  • Huntingtine
A
  • a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness due to the alterations of a protein called dystrophin that helps keep muscle cells intact. DMD is one of four conditions known as dystrophinopathies.
  • Dystrophine
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15
Q

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of thigh?

  • pubofemoral
  • Iliofemoral
  • Ligament of head of femur
  • Ischiofemoral
  • Transvere acetabular ligament
A

-iliofemoral

The iliofemoral ligament is the strongest ligament in the body and attaches the anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) to the intertrochanteric crest of the femur. The pubofemoral ligament prevents excess abduction and extension, ischiofemoral prevents excess extension, and the iliofemoral prevents hyperextension.

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16
Q

Mark the correct statements about anterior cruciate ligament.

Select one or more:
a. It attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

b. it attaches on medial fomeral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
c. it attaches on lateral femoral epicondyle and posterior intercondylar area of tibia
d. it prevents the posterior displacement of the tibia
e. it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur

A

a. It attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of the tibia
e. it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur

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17
Q

choose the best method to determine free air in the abdominal cavity.

  • Laprocentesis
  • Laparoscopy
  • Plain radiograph
  • Ultrasound
  • Percussion
A

-Plain radiograph

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18
Q

what is the most consistent definition of osteoarthritis*?

Select one or more

  • Degenrative joint cartilage injury
  • Joint cartilage progressive degenerative disease leading to joint pain
  • Joint degenerative disease that damages the acetabulum
  • Progressive articular cartilage degenerative disease that is difficult to treat
  • Joint cartilage progressive degenerative disease that occurs exclusively in the elderly
A
  • It occurs when the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones wears down over time. Although osteoarthritis can damage any joint, the disorder most commonly affects joints in your hands, knees, hips and spine.
  • Joint cartilage progressive degenerative disease leading to joint pain
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19
Q

Which of the following can be causes of pathologic bone fracture?

  • Malignant process
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Seizures
  • Pseudoarthrosis*
  • Osteoporosis
A
  • Malignant process
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Osteoporosis

*Pseudarthrosis occurs when a spinal fusion surgery fails. Some people with this condition experience no symptoms; some people feel pain in their neck, back, arms or legs.

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20
Q

Indicate the objective signs of bone fracture:

select one or more

  • Limb shortening
  • Crepitation
  • Bruising
  • Mobility in an abnormal location
  • Edema
  • Haematoma
  • Deformation
  • Pain
A
  • Crepitation
  • Bruising
  • Edema
  • Haematoma
  • Deformation
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21
Q

What is on the bottom of the movement pyramid?

  • Skills
  • Muscles
  • Posture
  • Pain
A

-Pain

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22
Q

Patient falls prevention. Who can ensure patient falls prevention strategy?

  • Interdisciplinarry team
  • Doctor
  • Occupational Therapist
  • Nurse
  • Physiotherapist
A

-Interdisciplinarry team

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23
Q

Mark the correct statement about medial meniscus:

Select one or more:

a. it is attached to the lateral collateral ligament
b. it is attached to the joint capsule
- it is a hyaline cartilage
- it is more mobile Than lateral meniscus
- it is attached to the medial collateral ligament

A

b. it is attached to the joint capsule

- it is attached to the medial collateral ligament

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24
Q

Name the localisation of dystrophin gene?

  • X chromosome long arm
  • Y chromosome
  • 13 autosome
  • X chromosome short arm
A

-X chromosome short arm

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25
Q

Intramembranous ossification referes to the formation of bone within hyaline cartilage. In this process, mesenchyme is transformed into chondroblasts which produce a hyaline cartilage matrix that is gradually replaced by bone. Most bones of the body form this process.

  • True
  • False
A

FALSE

Why?
Well because, Endochondral Ossification!
Most of the bones of the skeleton are formed in this manner. These bones are called endochondral bones. In this process, the future bones are first formed as hyaline cartilage models.

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26
Q

Which symptoms are characteristics of CTS*?

  • Numbness and pain in the palm of the hand and the fingers especially at night
  • Reness of hand skin
  • Finger nail bed injury
  • Numbness and pain in the wrist
A
  • Numbness and pain in the palm of the hand and the fingers especially at night
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) occurs when the median nerve, which runs from the forearm into the palm of the hand, becomes pressed or squeezed at the wrist. The carpal tunnel—a narrow, rigid passageway of ligament and bones at the base of the hand—houses the median nerve and the tendons that bend the fingers.
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27
Q

What injuries are characteristics for the injury induced by acceleration-declaration trauma mechanism?

Select one or more

  • Internal haemorrhage
  • Rupture of the parenchymatous organs, aortic arch bowel mesenteries
  • Significant injuries are caused by an inert tearing forces when after an impact the human organs stop or start moving suddenly
  • Injury at the site which was in contact with a ground or vehicle
  • Very different and severe injuries are possible due to varying trajectory of the injuring agent
A
  • Internal haemorrhage
  • Rupture of the parenchymatous organs, aortic arch bowel mesenteries
  • Injury at the site which was in contact with a ground or vehicle

Acceleration-declaration trauma mechanism are caused by falls from heights, blunt trauma or vehicular accidents.

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28
Q

Do the micro-fractures, performed to the cartilage area during arthroscopy operation are for reducing further arthritis development?

  • Yes
  • No
A

Yes!

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29
Q

What is on the top of the movement pyramid?

  • Muscles
  • Skills
  • Posture
  • Pain
A

Skills

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30
Q

THE ERGONOMICS IS:

  • Science about occupational risk evaluation
  • Science about environment
  • Science of fitting a job and work test to a person
  • Science about nanotechnologies
A

-Science of fitting a job and work test to a person

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31
Q

Class of medicinal products that cause osteoporosis most commonly:

a. beta adrenergic agonist
b- oestrogen's
c. alpha adrenergic agonists
d. anticonvulsants
e. antithyroid agents
f. thyroid hormones
g. glucocorticoids
A

g. glucocorticoids

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32
Q

Which of the following activities is least likely to involve full (complete, 100%) motor unit activation?

  • A set of repetitions to failure I a weight training exercise
  • A single maximal weight lift
  • 100 m sprint run
  • A 10 min jog
A

-A 10 min jog

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33
Q

Which nerve is damage if patient is not able to flex the thigh and extend the leg?

  • Sciatic nerve
  • Femoral nerve
  • Deep perineal nerve
  • Tibial nerve
  • Superficial peroneal nerve
A

-Femoral nerve

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34
Q

Bone consists of hard part and yellow bone marrow, which radiological method directly shows that?

  • Ultrasound
  • Computed tomography
  • Magnetic resonance imaging
  • Roentgenography
  • Scintigraphy
A

-MRI

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35
Q

A woman whose brother suffers from Duchenne muscular dystrophy is seeking genetic consoling. Her son was also born with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. She is currently pregnant and an ultrasound has shown that fetus is a boy. What are the probability that a foetus will be affected by Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

  • 3/4
  • 1/2
  • 1/4
  • 0
A

-1/2

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36
Q

Select energy sources for muscles at different expertise duration?

  1. 25 seconds
  2. 2 hours
  3. 5 seconds

Options to choose:

  • Creatine phosphate
  • Fatty acids
  • Glycogen
A
  1. Glycogen
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Creatine phosphate
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37
Q

Patient is not able abduct the upper limb. Which muscles are damaged?

  • Deltoid
  • Infraspinatus
  • Supraspinatus
  • Subscapular
  • Latissimus dorsi
A
  • Deltoid

- Supraspinatus

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38
Q

Which muscles are the most vulnerable in cases of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

  • Large muscles in the lumbar and thigh area
  • Small arm muscles
  • Abdominal muscles
  • Small leg muscles
A

-Large muscles in the lumbar and thigh area

39
Q

Patient falls prevention. Patient falls prevention include:

a. patient education
b. physical activity
c. complex of different methods
d. proper footwear
e. fall risk assessment

A

c. complex of different methods

40
Q

Which is NOT symptoms of fibromyalgia*?

  • Morning stiffness
  • Joint deformation
  • Paresthesia
  • Leg weakness

*A condition that causes pain all over the body (also referred to as widespread pain), sleep problems, fatigue, and often emotional and mental distress.

A

-Joint deformation

Exam sheet:

Patient has:
Pain everywhere
Fatigue
Feet weakness
Paresthesia
41
Q

Troponin binding sites:

  • Tropomyosin
  • ATP
  • Ca2+
  • Actin
  • Inorganic phosphate
A
  • Tropomyosin
  • Ca2+
  • Actin
42
Q

What is specific in these molecules structure?

  1. Glicoproteins
  2. Proteoglycans
  3. Elastin
  4. Colagen type 1

a. Repeating units of dissacharides
b. Demosine
c. Triple helix
d. Single sugar level

A
  1. Glicoproteins –> single sugar level
  2. Proteoglycans–> Repeating units of disaccharides
  3. Elastin –> Demosine
  4. Colagen type 1–> Triple helix
43
Q

Elderly patient noticed that pain is shooting through hip joint to the ankle. differential diagnosis from …?

Select one or more.

a. Spine cervical part pathology
b. Knee joint tendon rupture
c. Femoral neck fracture
d. Vertebral column disorders

A

d. Vertebral column disorders

44
Q

Common symptom of degenerative arthropathy:

a. Paresthesia*
b. Short term joint stiffness
c. Long term joint stiffness
d. Constant pain everywhere

*Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation of the skin (tingling, pricking, chilling, burning, numbness) with no apparent physical cause.

A

b. Short term joint stiffness

45
Q

What structures join the bodies of the vertebras?

select one or more:

a. Zygapophysial joints
b. Intervertebral disci
c. Ligamenta flava
d. Posterior longitudinal ligament
e. Interspinous ligaments
f. Anterior longitudinal ligament

A
  • Intervertebral disci
  • Posterior longitudinal ligament
  • Anterior longitudinal ligament
46
Q

The Important factors associated with manual material handling risk on the musculoskeletal system are:

select one or more:

a. Chosen lifting technique
b. Degree of flexion and rotation of the spine
c. The Weight of load

A

a. Chosen lifting technique
b. Degree of flexion and rotation of the spine
c. The Weight of load

47
Q

Mark the correct statement about lymph drainage from axillary lymph nodes:

a. junglar trunk
b. diaphragmatic lymph nodes
c. bronchomediastinal trunk
d. subclavian trunk
e. Parasternal lymph nodes

A

d. subclavian trunk

48
Q

Go to page 51 file rättad 2020 and see the picture.
The question is as following:

There is——-in the picture below. The binding site of estradiol is —-. The binding site of glucocorticoids is—-.

A

Intracellular receptors
4
4

49
Q

What are the main complications of an arterial injury?

Select one or more:

a. arteriovenous fistula
b. haemorrhage
c. false (pseudo-) aneurysm formation
d. arterial disscetion
e. compartment syndrome
f. thrombosis

A

a. arteriovenous fistula –> an abnormal connection between an artery and a vein.
c. false (pseudo-) aneurysm formation –>abnormal outpouchings or dilatation of arteries which are bounded only by the tunica adventitia, the outermost layer of the arterial wall.

50
Q

Mark the correct statement about fibular collateral ligament* (lateral collateral ligament):

select one or more:

a. it becomes tight during extension of knee joint
b. it relaxes during extension of knee joint
c. it’s attachments are: medial femoral epicondyle and medial tibial condyle
d. its attachments are: lateral femoral epicondyle and fibular head
e. its attachments are: lateral femoral epicondyle and anterior intercondylar area
f. its attachments are: medial femoral epicondyle and posterior intercondylar area

A
  • A ligament located on the lateral (outer) side of the knee, and thus belongs to the extrinsic knee ligaments and posterolateral corner of the knee.
    a. it becomes tight during extension of knee joint
    d. its attachments are: lateral femoral epicondyle and fibular head
51
Q

What is located in a lacuna of compact bone?

a. osteoblasts
b. osteoclasts
c. osteon
d. osteocytes
e. osteoid

A

d. osteocytes

52
Q

Muscle contraction proteins:

  1. Binding ATP
  2. Binding Ca2+

Choose:

  • Tropomyosin
  • Actin
  • Myosin
  • Troponin
A
  1. Binding ATP –> Myosin

2. Binding Ca2+ –> Troponin

53
Q

In excitation-contraction coupling:

a. Ca2+ releases from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds yo tropomyosin
b. Relaxation occurs when Ca2+ is excreted from the muscle fibre
c. Troponin blocks binding of myosin heads to actin filaments
d. The muscle action potential propagates along the sarcolemma and down the transverse tubules

A

d. The muscle action potential propagates along the sarcolemma and down the transverse tubules

54
Q

Common symptom of myofascicular pain*:

a. intramuscular tender knot
b. joint swelling
c. leg weakness
d. joint deformation

*A chronic pain disorder. In this condition, pressure on sensitive points in your muscles (trigger points) causes pain in the muscle and sometimes in seemingly unrelated parts of your body. This is called referred pain.

A

right answer:

a. intramuscular tender knot

others and what they mean:

b. joint swelling –> arthritis
d. joint deformation –> arthritis

55
Q

Interaction of the movement system elements depends on:

a. Muscles, fascia and bones
b. Cartilage, bones and muscles
c. Joints, ligaments and fascia
d. Central nervous system, joints and muscles

A

d. Central nervous system, joints and muscles

56
Q

Which structures pass through carpal tunnel:

select one or more:

a. median nerve
b. radial nerve
c. tendon of flexor pollicis longus muscle
d. tendon of brachioradialis muscle
e. tendon of the flexor digitorum muscles

A

a. median nerve
c. tendon of flexor pollicis longus muscle
e. tendon of the flexor digitorum muscles

57
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction is immediately terminated by which action?

  • Removal of sarcoplasmic Ca2+
  • Removal of acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction
  • Return of dihydropyridine receptor to its resting conformation
  • Removal of Ca2+ from the terminal of the motor neuron
  • Closure of the postsynaptic nicotinic acetyl choline receptor
A
  • Removal of sarcoplasmic Ca2+
  • Contraction is turned off by the following sequence of events: (9) Acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is broken down by acetylcholinesterase, and this terminates the stream of action potentials along the muscle fiber surface.
58
Q

What is the sequence of increased pressure on the lumbar vertebrae depending on the body position?

  • sitting, standing, lying
  • sitting. lying, standing
  • lying, standing, sitting
  • lying, sitting, standing
A

-lying, standing, sitting

59
Q

Fill in the blanks:

Teripeptide is a fragment of 1 which 2 and has been administered as 3 for the treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women and in men at increased risk of fracture because 4.

  1. options:
    - Calcitriol
    - PTH
    - PHT
    - Calcitonin
  2. options:
    - Both increases bone formation and reduces bone loss
    - Reduces bone loss
    - Increases bone formation
  3. options:
    - Drug of chose and alternative drug
  4. options:
    - Its safety and efficacy beyond 24 months is not clear
    - It has a better safety profile than bisphosphonates
    - It has a better safety profile than calcitonin
A
  1. PTH
  2. Both increases bone formation and reduces bone loss
  3. Drug of chose and alternative drug
  4. Its safety and efficacy beyond 24 months is not clear
60
Q

Which of the following is a correct comparison of type 1 (slow oxidative) skeletal muscle fiber and type 2 B (fast glycolytic) skeletal muscle fibers?

  • Type 1 fibers produce longer twitch
  • Type 1 fibers have fewer mitochondria
  • Type 1 fibers can generate more tension
  • Type 1 fibers have a bigger diameter
  • Type 1 fibers store more glycogen
A

-Type 1 fibers produce longer twitch

61
Q

Is patients falls have codes in international classification diseases (ICD)?

a. Falls have detailed codes for different kind of falls
b. Yes, we can find only one code
c. No codes

A

a. Falls have detailed codes for different kind of falls

62
Q

All patients with high risk of osteoporosis should be investigated with this radiological method.

a. Computed tomography
b. Roentgenograohy
c. Ultrasoundography
d. DEXA
e. Magnetic resonance imaging

A

d. DEXA

63
Q

Large motor units:

a. Have fewer muscle fibers
b. Use ATP less quickly
c. Produce more force than small motor units
d. Are recruited first
e. Produce tetanic tension at low stimulation frequencies

A

c. Produce more force than small motor units

64
Q

Dorsal pedis artery is continuation of which artery?

a. anterior tibial artery
b. lateral plantar artery
c. posterior tibial artery
d. fibular artery
e. medial plantar artery

A

a. anterior tibial artery

65
Q

The patient complains of difficulty to make fist, abduct and adduct the fingers, flex the hand, and notices the paraesthesia of the medial palmar area of hand. which nerve is damage?

a. musculocutaaneous nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. radial nerve
d. suprasca pular nerve
e. ulnar nerve

A

e. ulnar nerve

66
Q

What causes the movement dysfunction?

  • Joint, nerve and muscle dysfunction
  • Joint dysfunction
  • Nerve dysfunction
  • Muscle dysfunction
A

-Joint, nerve and muscle dysfunction

67
Q

What can you recommend for acute strain treatment?

select one or more

  • Plaster of Paris*
  • Splinting
  • Cold
  • Compression
  • Warmth
A
  • Compression
  • Cold

Use RICE –> rest, ice, compression and elevation

*It is also used in medicine to make plaster casts to immobilize broken bones while they heal, though many modern orthopedic casts are made of fibreglass or thermoplastics.

68
Q

The patient is not able to extend the thigh. Which nerves are damaged?
select one or more:

a. sciatic nerve
b. saphenous nerve
c. femoral nerve
d. inferior gluteal nerve
e. obturator nerve

A

a. sciatic nerve
d. inferior gluteal nerve

Also superior gluteal nerve is damaged

69
Q

Bisphosphonates*:

Select one or more:

  • Mainly increase bone formation
  • Reduce formation/activation of osteoclasts
  • Due to local irritation are usually taken with meals
  • Mimic effects of MCSF on the bone
  • May be administered intravenously and one-week or longer intervals
A
  • A group of drugs that work by slowing bone loss
  • Reduce formation/activation of osteoclasts
  • May be administered intravenously and one-week or longer intervals
70
Q

Which Is most likely to extend the entire length of a muscle fibre?

  • M line
  • Actin filament
  • Myofibril
  • Myosin filament
  • Sarcomere
A

-Myofibril

71
Q

Common symptoms of inflammatory arthropathy?

Select one:

a. constant pain everywhere
b. intramuscular tender knot
c. paresthesia
d. joint redness

A

d. joint redness

72
Q

Long term effects of oestrogen’s on bone metabolism are related to:

a. G-protein coupled receptors
b. Ligand gated ion channels
c. Certain non-cellular enzymes
d. Intracellular receptors
e. Enzyme linked receptors
f. Sodium / calcium symporter

A

d. Intracellular receptors

73
Q

Which agent increases the activity of alpha hydroxylase?

  • PTH
  • Estradiol
  • Calcitonin
  • FGF23
  • 1,25 (OH)2D
  • Glucocorticoids
A

-PTH

74
Q

During investigation of musculoskeletal system with ultrasonography it is possible to detect:

select one more:

  • Tears of superficial tendons
  • Fluid collections
  • Injuries of surfaces of the bones
A
  • Tears of superficial tendons

- Fluid collections

75
Q

Evaluate the picture.

  1. What kind of trauma you will suspect at first?
  • Knee joint contusion
  • Tibia dislocation
  • knee joint haematoma
  • Accidental skin scratches
  • Patella fracture
  1. What radiological examination you will perform in order to avoid a false diagnostic error?
  • X-ray of knee joint
  • Echoscopy
  • CT
  • MRI
  • Arteriography
A
  1. Patella fracture

2. X-ray of knee joint

76
Q

Patient is not able to do eversion of the foot. which muscle is damage?

a. gastrocnemius
b. fibulas longus
c. tibialis posterior
d. flexor digitorum longus
e. tibialis anterior

A

b. fibulas longus

77
Q

Which specific test is used for the purpose of CTS diagnostics?

a. The Romberg test* –> test balance
b. The Kerning test
c. The cold test
d. The Tinel test

A

a*
The Romberg test is positive when the patient is unable to maintain balance with their eyes closed.

b*
When the patient is lying with thigh flexed on the abdomen, the leg can’t be completely extended.

d*
Used with imaging tests to find compressed or squeezed nerves and nerve regrowth. It’s often used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome.

Right answer:
d. The Tinel test and also phalen test can be used

78
Q

Footballer run through the game field, stopped, while standing on the right foot (joint hyperextension) and with left foot kicked ball to the right (rotation outwards). Athlete got pain in the right knee joint. What trauma experienced football player?

select one or more:

a. Anterior cruciate ligament rupture
b. Patella tendon rupture
c. Meniscus rupture
d. Achillis rupture
e. Tibis muscle rupture

A

a. Anterior cruciate ligament rupture

79
Q

Osteoarthritis conservative treatment goals (mark WRONG one)

select one or more:

a. protect or slow down the progression of the disease
b. improve function
c. teach the patient about OA and its treatment
d. reduce the pain
e. restore range of movements with modern implants

A

e. restore range of movements with modern implants

80
Q

Correlation between pain and inflammation:

select one:

a. no correlation
b. pain inhibit function
c. pain inhibit disability
d. function inhibit pain

A

b. pain inhibit function

81
Q

What structures pass through adductor canal?

a. femoral artery
b. great saphenous vein
c. deep femoral artery
d. saphenous nerve
e. femoral vein
f. femoral nerve

A

a. femoral artery
d. saphenous nerve
e. femoral vein

82
Q

Pareshesia* is common in:

a. Goat
b. Pressure on peripheral neuron
c. Degenerative atropathy
d. Inflammatory arthropathy

*Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation of the skin (tingling, pricking, chilling, burning, numbness) with no apparent physical cause.

A

b. Pressure on peripheral neuron

83
Q

Which molecule is binding water?

  • Proteoglycans
  • Dystrophin
  • Elastin
  • Collagen
A

-Proteoglycans

84
Q

Patient falls classification (by prof. J.M.Morse): Falls occur in patients who score a high risk of falling on for example the MGS (Morse Fall Scale). These falls called:

a. Accidental falls
b. Unanticipated physiological falls
c. Anticipated physiological falls

A

c. Anticipated physiological falls

85
Q

What is bone formation called when the bone is formed directly, without using a cartilage template?

  • Endochondral
  • Intramembraanous
  • Endosteum
  • Intraosseous
  • Interosseous
A

-Intramembranous

86
Q

Complete transection of nerve according to Seddon’s classification of nerve injuries:

  • Parasthesia
  • Neurotmesis
  • Neuropraxia
  • Neuralgia
  • Axonotmesis
A

-Neurotmesis

87
Q

Radiological features of osteooarthrosis (s. osteoarthritis, s. degenerative joint disease)

select one or more:

  • Erosions (marginal, central)
  • Periarticular osteopenia
  • Subchondral cysts
  • Osteophytes
  • Asymmetric (non-uniform) joint space narrowing
  • Symmetric (uniform)joint space narrowing
  • Subchondral sclerosis
A
  • Subchondral cysts
  • Osteophytes
  • Asymmetric (non-uniform) joint space narrowing
  • Subchondral sclerosis
88
Q

Long head of triceps brachii is forming these regions:

select one or more:

a. cubital fossa
b. quadrangular space
c. triangular interval
d. triangular space
e. claviopectoral triangle

A

b. quadrangular space
c. triangular interval
d. triangular space

89
Q

Mark the advantages of computed tomography over the roentgenography in investigation of skeletal system

select one or more:

a. during investigation patient receive low does of ionising radiation
b. most valuable in evolution of bone tissue and calcification
c. shows precisely bone in evaluation of complex anatomical structures
d. it is possible to make various 2D and 3D reconstructions

A

c. shows precisely bone in evaluation of complex anatomical structures
d. it is possible to make various 2D and 3D reconstructions

90
Q

Unspecialized stem cells that are derived from mesenchyme, the tissue from which almost all connective tissues are formed. They are the only bone cells to undergo mitotic cell devisions. They are called:

  • Osteons
  • Osteocytes
  • Osteogenic (osteoprogenitor)
  • Osteoblasts
  • Osteoclasts
A

-Osteogenic (osteoprogenitor)

Cells of bone tissue:
STEM CELLS
-osteogenic (osteoprogenitor)
-osteoblaasts 
-osteocytes
-osteoclast
91
Q

Patient is not able to flex the hand, which nerves are damaged?

  • Axillary
  • Ulnar
  • Median
  • Musculocutaneous
  • Radial
A
  • Ulnar

- Median

92
Q

What would you not recommend for the patient with CTS?

a. training of proper wrist position keeping during work task
b. adequate micro pauses during repetitive work
c. to design proper work station
d. resting the wrist on the sharp cold edge of a desk

A

d. resting the wrist on the sharp cold edge of a desk

93
Q

The binding site of ACh to the motor end plate causes a change in membrane permeability to ——

select one or more:

  • acetilcholine
  • sodium
  • potassium
  • acetilcholine esterase
  • calcium
A
  • sodium

- potassium

Locomotion, Past Q (10 decks)

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