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Locomotion, Past Q > Part 2 > Flashcards

Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Principles of treatment of an acute distortion:

  • immobilisation
  • cold
  • compresses
  • warmth
A
  • immobilisation

* cold

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2
Q

During palpation of the injured patient, one may
detect:

painfulness
crackling (crepitation)
fluctuance
subcutaneous emphysema

A

All answers are correct!

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3
Q

In case of slleen rupture, the following
changes of the common blood count are
observed:

  • decreased haemoglobin
  • increased eosinophilic count
  • decreased red blood cell count
    • increased red blood cell sedimentation rate
A
  • decreased haemoglobin

* decreased red blood cell count

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4
Q

In case of a traumatic hollow abdominal organ injury, the X-ray imaging reveals:

  • Dilated small bowel loops
  • Air fluid interfaces
  • Free air collection under the diaphragm
  • Distended large bowel
A

All are correct

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5
Q

In case of a traumatic hollow abdominal
organ injury the palpatory signs are the
following:

  • Ortner’s sign
  • Rovsing’s sign
  • Blumberg’s sign
  • Jordan’s sign
A
  • Rovsing’s sign

* Blumberg’s sign

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6
Q

What is Post-traumatic disease?

•any stress (trauma, surgical operation, anaesthesia, burns,
vascular occlusion, dehydration, starvation, sepsis, acute diseases) or even mental stress may provoke a metabolic response to trauma

• homeostasis disorders in relation to trauma reflect disorders
of organs and organ systems possibly leading to dangerous Compline. Complications including lethal complications

•expressed signs of the post-traumatic disease are only characteristic to ASA class III - V and E patients

• the body reaction to trauma is local reaction (inflammation) and systemic response (protective metabolic reaction aimed to
accumulate energy and plastic materials for tissue reparation)

A

• homeostasis disorders in relation to trauma reflect disorders
of organs and organ systems possibly leading to dangerous Compline. Complications including lethal complications

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7
Q

The following statements
are true regarding
‘commotio’:

• usually there are no clinical signs

• chronic trauma (vibration) leads to sclerotic process
of the skin and subcutis, damaged joints, nerves, osteophytes form themselves

• brain commotion (commotio cerebri) causes nausea,
vomiting, loss of consciousness as well as retrograde amnesia and long duration headache are possible

• chest contusion may provoke arrhythmias

A

All answers are correct!

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8
Q

Soft tissue contusion has the following signs:

  • edema
  • haematomas
  • pain
  • impaired function
  • If large area is injured the possible general signs are general malaise and fever
  • expressed edema and massive hepatomas insides the tissues may mask bone fractures and dislocations
A

All are correct

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9
Q

what are the principles of treatment of contusion?

• immobilisation, local cold, later - physiotherapy and
massage
• narcotic analgesics
• large haematomas are evacuated
• if the tissue stratify the cavities form themselves and the pressure bandage is necessary
• PRICE principle is employed
(protect, rest, ice, compress, elevate)

A

All are correct

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10
Q

which ligament are important for the stability of the spine?

  • anterior longitudinal
  • posterior longitudinal • interspinosal
  • yellow
A

All of them are needed for stability of the spine

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11
Q

What is typical for spondyloarthrosis deformans?

  • narrowed articular space
  • osteosclerosis of articular surfaces
  • osteophytes
A

All of them!

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12
Q

What is not typical for intervertebral osteochondrosis?

  • irregular narrowing of the disk
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • subchondral osteoporosis
  • gaseous degeneration
  • osteophytes
A

• gaseous degeneration

Is not typical for intervertebral osteochondrosis!

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13
Q

Which proposition is correct? Roentgenography is suitable for:

  • screening of osseous pathology
  • survey information about the spine, its axis
  • may be diagnostic
  • we can’t fully evaluate spinal canal
A

All are correct!

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14
Q

Which method is not used for diagnosis of lumbosacral hernia?

  • CT
  • CT myelography
  • MRI
  • Roentgenography
A

• roentgenography

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15
Q

Which statement about
anterior cruciate ligament is
correct?

• arises from lateral side of medial formal condyle and is
attached to the posterior intercondylar area of the tibia

  • arises from medial femoral epicondyle and is attached to medial side of tibia
  • arises from medial side of lateral condyle and is attached to the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

• arises from lateral femoral epicondyle and is attached to
fibular head

A

• arises from medial side of lateral condyle and is attached to the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

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16
Q

Which muscle forms the anterior wall of the crucopopliteal canal?

  • soleus muscle
  • peroneus brevis muscle
  • peroneus longus muscle
  • gastrocnemius muscle
  • tibialis posterior muscle
A

• tibialis posterior muscle

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17
Q 
Femoral nerve enters the thigh through the:
• canalis inguinalis
• lacuna vasorum
• canalis obturatorius 
• lacuna musculorum
A

• lacuna musculorum

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18
Q

Popliteal fossa is bounded by what muscles?

  • peroneus brevis muscle
  • semitendinosus mucsle
  • semimembranosus muscle
  • tibial anterior muscle
  • biceps femoris muscle
A
  • semitendinosus mucsle
  • semimembranosus muscle
  • biceps femoris muscle
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19
Q

Great saphenous veins drains to the ——- vein.

A

Femoral communis vein

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20
Q

If a patient cannot extend the foot, which of their nerves is damaged?

A

Nervus perneus profundus

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21
Q

Which pathological method is the best for examining of soft tissues?

  • roentgenography
  • scintigraphy
  • computed tomography
  • magnetic resonance imaging
A

MRI is the best pathological method for examining of soft tissues!

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22
Q

Neuromuscular transmission is inhibited by?

  • acetylcholine
  • curare
  • Ca2+
  • tropomyosin
  • noradrenaline
A

• Curare

Curare, a selective skeletal muscle relaxant, has been used clinically to reduce shivering and as an anesthetic auxiliary in abdominal surgery.

It is also widely used in animal experiments to block neuromuscular junction activity.

23
Q

In the skeletal muscle, the:

  • contraction precedes (is earlier than) the action potential
  • action potential lasts as long as the contraction
  • action potential lasts longer than the contraction
  • contraction and action potential begin at the same time (simultaneously)
  • action potential precedes the contraction
A

• action potential precedes the contraction

24
Q

Tetanic contraction of a skeletal muscle fibre results from a cumulative increase in the intracellular concentration of which of the following?

  • Na+
  • K+
  • troponin
  • ATP
  • Ca2+
A

• Ca2+

25
Q 
Neuromuscular transmission is:
• unidirectional
• bidirectional
• stimulated by curare
• inhibited by acetylcholine 
• inhibited by calcium
A

• Unidirectional

26
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction
is terminated by which
action?

  • removal of acetylcholine from the neuromuscular junction
  • removal of Ca2+ from the terminal of the motor neurone
  • closure of the postsynaptic nicotinic acetyl-choline receptor
  • decrease of sarcoplasmic Ca2+ from 10-5 M to 10-7 M
  • return of the dihydropyridine receptor to its resting conformation
A

• Decrease of sarcoplasmic Ca2+ from 10-5 M to 10-7 M

27
Q

Rigor mortis*:

*Rigor mortis is a postmortem change resulting in the stiffening of the body muscles due to chemical changes in their myofibrils.

  • is due to failure of neuromuscular transmission
  • is due to loss of ATP
  • means muscle stiffness after fatigue
  • is an autoimmune disease
  • is due to loss of Ca2+
A

• Is due to loss of ATP

28
Q

According to the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction, during contraction:

  • the thick filaments stay the same size but the thin filaments shorten
  • the sarcomeres shorten
  • the thin filaments stay the same size but the thick filaments shorten
  • both thick and thin filaments shorten
  • none of the above occurs
A

• the sarcomeres shorten

29
Q

During skeletal muscle
contraction:

  • ATP-ase activity of myosin head is inhibited
  • tropomyosin covers the active site of actin
  • attachment - detachment cycling occurs between myosin head and actin
  • Ca2+ needed to start contraction comes from T-tubules
  • Ca2+ needed to start contraction comes from extracellular fluid
A

• attachment - detachment cycling occurs between myosin head and actin

30
Q 
Isometric contraction is characterised by:
• constant tension
• constant length
• decrease in length
• high mechanical efficiency 
• low tension in the muscle
A

• Constant length

Isometric contractions are contractions in which there is no change in the length of the muscle. No joint or limb motion occurs. Isotonic contractions occur when the muscle changes length, producing limb motion. Concentric contractions occur when the muscle shortens.

31
Q

A motor unit is made up
of:

  • all the muscle fibres within a given muscle
  • a motor neurone and the muscle fibres it innervates
  • all the neurones innervating an individual section of the body
  • a fascicle and a nerve
  • all the motor neurones innervating one muscle
A

• a motor neurone and the muscle fibres it innervates

32
Q

IV disk examination of it is outer part-

  • Dense regular CT
  • Fibrous cartilage
  • Dense irregular CT
A

-Fibrous cartilage

33
Q

If the patient can not ABDUCT their shoulder, what muscles are then damaged?

A
  • Deltoid muscle

- Infraspinatus muscle

34
Q

The patient can’t abduct the shoulder what nerve is damaged?

A

Axillary Nerve

35
Q

The patient feels shooting pain from hip to ankle –> what is the degenerative disease of the spine?

(2 diseases)

A
  • Spinal column disorder

- Femoral head fracture

36
Q

The football player is standing with his knee hyperextension and do a fast rotation with the second leg. Feeling a sharp pain in his knee.
What is torn?

A

ACL –> Anterior cruciate ligament

37
Q

The patient can’t make a fist, abduct and adduct fingers.

What nerve is damaged?

A

Ulnar nerve

38
Q

Adductor canal components are?

A

Femoral artery
Femoral vein
Vastus medialis
Saphenous nerve

39
Q

The patient can’t do eversion (process of turning inside the foot). What muscle is not functioning?

A

Anterior and posterior tibialis

*Eversion of the Foot (tilting of the sole of the foot away from the midline): Performed by the fibularis brevis and fibularis longus.

40
Q

What are the components of carpal tunnel?

A

Median nerve
Flexor pollicis longus
Flexor digitorum profundus
Flexor digitorum superfacialis

41
Q

What can cause CTS? (Carpal tunnel syndrome)

A

Long hours of work

42
Q

What is the definition of ergonomics?

A

Science of fitting a job to a person

43
Q

In the top of the pyramid what do we have?

A

Kinesiology skills

44
Q

In the bottom of the pyramid what do we have?

A

Pain

45
Q

What is the main cause of DMD in chromosomes?

A

Prevents the body from producing DYSTROPHIN*.

*In skeletal and cardiac muscles, dystrophin is part of a group of proteins (a protein complex) that work together to strengthen muscle fibers and protect them from injury as muscles contract and relax.

46
Q

What type of inheritance does DMD* have?

A

X linked recessive

*DMD is a rapidly progressive form of muscular dystrophy that occurs primarily in boys. It is caused by an alteration (mutation) in a gene, called the DMD gene that can be inherited in families in an X-linked recessive fashion, but it often occurs in people from families without a known family history of the condition.

47
Q

What kind of molecule attract water?

A

Proteoglycans

48
Q

The features of assessment of injured patient:

A

Deformity
Asymmetry
Swelling
Skin rash

49
Q

What are the possible causes of pneumothorax?

A

Can be result of an injury or accident (gunshot or knife wounds to the chest, automobile accidents) or can occur due to following medical procedures whoich accidentally allows air into pleural space. High risk medical procedures include trans bronchial biopsy, pleural biopsy, thoracicentesis, chest tube placement, intracoastal needle anaesthesia and oesophagoscopy.

50
Q

What restrain limits leg extension?

A

ACL

51
Q

What are the advantages of CT vs. X-ray?

A

x- ray:

+ rapid, cheap, excisable, good for bone & joint evaluation.
- Ionizing radiation, limited information about soft tissue.

CT:

+ No superimposition or blurring, high contrast resolution, differentiation of soft tissue and fluid.

  • High dose of ionize radiation, artifacts for metal structure, bed for evaluation of soft tissue.
52
Q

What is the best examination for osteoporosis patients?

A

DEXA*

*A DEXA scan is a type of medical imaging test. It uses very low levels of x-rays to measure how dense your bones are.

53
Q

What can we see in X rays of osteoporosis patient?

A

We can see decreased cortical thickness and loss of bony trabeculae in the early stages in radiography.

Bones like the vertebra, long bones (proximal femur), calcaneum and tubular bones are usually looked at for evidence of osteoporosis.

54
Q

How can we detect abdominal wall bleeding?

A

Ultrasound

Locomotion, Past Q (10 decks)

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