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Locomotion, Past Q > 2020 andra cycle > Flashcards

2020 andra cycle Flashcards

1
Q

For the sage lifting is important:

a. to keep a load with one hand
b. to bend the trunk as much below as possible, during load lifting
c. to keep spine in natural curve
d. to keep a loaf from the body as far as possible

A

c. to keep spine in natural curve

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2
Q

Patient falls classification (by prof. J.M.Morse): Falls occur in patients who score a high risk of falling on for example the MGS (Morse Fall Scale). These falls called:

a. Anticipated physiological falls
b. Unanticipated physiological falls
c. Accidental falls

A

a. Anticipated physiological falls

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3
Q

Ergonomic (physical ergonomics) risk factors for the low back pain are:

a. improper work schedule organisation
b. long working hours
c. bullying
d. forceful movements, awkward posture, lifting

A

d. forceful movements, awkward posture, lifting

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4
Q

At the neuromuscular junction

a. end plate potential normally leads to action potential generation
b. Mg2+ ions are essentials for neurotransmitter release
c. Neurotransmitter release is under low “all-or-nothing”
d. the signal is transmitted both ways: from nerve to muscles as well as from muscle to nerve
e. action potential is result of nicotinic channels opening

A

a. end plate potential normally leads to action potential generation

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5
Q

Interaction of the movement system elements depends on:

a. central nervous system, joints and muscles
b. cartilage, bones and muscles
c. joints, ligaments and fascia
d. muscles, fascia and bones

A

a. central nervous system, joints and muscles

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6
Q

Osteoarthritis conservative treatment goals (mark wrong one)

select one or more:

  • improve function
  • restore range of movements with modern implants
  • protect or slow down the progression of the disease
  • reduce the pain
  • teach the patient about OA and its treatment
A

-restore range of movements with modern implants

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7
Q

Soft tissue contusion has the following signs:

select one or more:

  • impaired function
  • expressed edema and massive hemorrhage inside the tissues may mask bone fractures and dislocations
  • if large area is injured, general signs like general malaise and fever are possible
  • haemorrhage
  • edema
  • pain
A

all of them are correct, they are signs of soft tissue contusion!

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8
Q

WHAT CAUSES THE movement dysfunction?

  • muscle dysfunction
  • nerve dysfunction
  • joint dysfunction
  • joint, nerve and muscle dysfunction
A

-joint, nerve and muscle dysfunction

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9
Q

Dorsal pedis artery is continuation of which artery?

a. medial plantar artery
b. fibular artery
c. posterior tibial artery
d. anterior tibial artery
e. lateral plantar artery

A

d. anterior tibial artery

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10
Q

The contractile response in skeletal muscle

a. produce more work the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically
b. does not last as long as the action potential
c. decreases in magnitude with repeated stimulation
d. starts after action potential is over
e. produces more tension when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically

A

e. produces more tension when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically

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11
Q

When two acetylcholine molecules bind to a nicotinic receptor on skeletal muscle, the channel opens and allows transmembrane passage of ions. The resulting ion flux is dominated by which of the following choices under normal physiologic conditions?

a. Ca2+
b. Mg2+
c. Na+
d. Cl-
e. K+

A

c. Na+

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12
Q

Common symptom in the pressure on peripheral neuron:

a. Bone deviation
b. Muscular atrophy
c. Joint redness
d. Joint swelling

A

b. Muscular atrophy

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13
Q

Which of the following is a correct comparison of type 1 (slow oxidate) skeletal muscle fibers and type 2 B (fast-glycolytic) skeletal muscle fibers?

a. Type 1 fibers have fewer mitochondria
b. Type 1 fibers have a bigger diameter
c. Type 1 fibers can generate more tension
d. Type 1 fibers store more glycogen
e. Type 1 fibers produce longer twitch

A

e. Type 1 fibers produce longer twitch

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14
Q

Elderly patient noticed that pain is “shooting” through hip joint to the ankle, Differential diagnosis from…?

select one or more:

a. knee joint tendon rupture
b. femoral neck rupture
c. spine cervical part pathology
d. vertebral column disorders

A

d. vertebral column disorders

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15
Q

What are the possible causes of pneumothorax?

select one or more:

  • Blunt or penetrating chest injury
  • Transbronchial biopsy
  • Spontaneous
  • Pleural biopsy
  • Yawn
  • Thoracocentesis
  • Subclavian vein puncture
  • Esophagoscopy
  • Sneeze
  • Chest tube insertion
  • Intercostal blockade
A
  • Blunt or penetrating chest injury
  • Transbronchial biopsy
  • Spontaneous
  • Pleural biopsy
  • Thoracocentesis
  • Subclavian vein puncture
  • Esophagoscopy
  • Chest tube insertion
  • Intercostal blockade
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16
Q

Choose the correct type of DMD inheritance:

select one:

a. Y linked
b. Autosomal recessibe
c. Autosomal dominant
d. X-linked recessive
e. X-linked dominant

A

d. X-linked recessive

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17
Q

Common X-ray symptoms of inflammatory arthropathy:

select one:

a. uzura
b. osteophytes
c. bone cysts
d. subchondrial sclerosis

A

a. uzura

b. osteophytes
c. bone cysts
d. subchondrial sclerosis

From b-d are signs of arthrosis

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18
Q

Patient is not able to do eversion of the foot, which muscle is damage?

a. tibialis posterior
b. tibialis anterior
c. flexor digitorum longus
d. gastrocmemius
e. fibulas longus

A

e. fibulas longus

ALSO –> fibulas brevis and fibularis tertius

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19
Q

What is true regarding the inspection of an injured patient?
Select one or more

  • Inspection requires prevent additional injuries, it is forbidden to touch or remove foreign bodies
  • It is essential to inspect the whole body except non-injured sites
  • It is essential to assess the state of consciousness, type and adequacy of respiration, tissue perfusion, as well as to pay attention to the position, deformities, functional and sensational impairment, and to assess the movement of chest and abdominal wall
  • Rapid and weak pulse is a sign of hypovolemia, strong pulse is characteristic to a severe head trauma and decreased intracranial pressure
  • Inspection helps to detect bone fractures, dislocations, brain and spinal cord injuries, chest and abdominal organ injuries
  • Inspection helps to recognize a possible injury and to provide an adequate help
  • Suspect the head and chest injury as well as shock when a patient is unconscious
A
  • It is essential to assess the state of consciousness, type and adequacy of respiration, tissue perfusion, as well as to pay attention to the position, deformities, functional and sensational impairment, and to assess the movement of chest and abdominal wall
  • Inspection helps to detect bone fractures, dislocations, brain and spinal cord injuries, chest and abdominal organ injuries
  • Inspection helps to recognize a possible injury and to provide an adequate help
  • Suspect the head and chest injury as well as shock when a patient is unconscious
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20
Q

Common symptom of the myofascicular pain:

a. intramuscular tender knot
b. joint swelling
c. joint redness
d. generalised stiffness

A

a. intramuscular tender knot

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21
Q

Mark the advantages of computed tomography over the roentgenography in investigations of skeletal system

a. during investigations patient receives low dose of ionising radiation
b. it is possible to make various 2D and 3D reconstructions
c. Most valuable in evaluation of bone tissue and calcification
d. shows precisely bone in evaluation of complex anatomical structures

A

b. it is possible to make various 2D and 3D reconstructions

d. shows precisely bone in evaluation of complex anatomical structures

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22
Q

What is the sequence of increased pressure on the lumbar vertebrae depending on the body position?

a. sitting, standing lying
b. lying, standing, sitting
c. lying, sitting, standing

d, sitting, lying, standing

A

b. lying, standing, sitting

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23
Q

Mark the correct statement about posterior cruciate ligament

a. it attaches on the lateral femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
b. it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur
c. it attaches on the medial femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of the tibia
d. it attaches on the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and patella
e. it attaches on lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia

A

e. it attaches on lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia

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24
Q

The important factors associated with manual meterial handling risk on the muscloskeletal system are:

a. the weight of the load
b. chosen lifting technique
c. degree of flexion and rotation of the spine

A

a. the weight of the load
b. chosen lifting technique
c. degree of flexion and rotation of the spine

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25
Q

select medicine(s) not administered for first line prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis due to the risk of thromboembolism:

select one or more:

a. estradiol
b. teriparatide
c. ibadronic acid
d. denosumab
e. raloxifene

A

a. estradiol
e. raloxifene

Teriparatide has no risk of TB, 2nd line

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26
Q

What is on the bottom of the movement pyramid?

a. pain
b. posture
c. muscles
d. skills

A

PAINNNN

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27
Q

Patient falls prevention. Patient falls intrinsic risk factors. Which intrinsic factors can influence patient falls?

a. different systems and diseases
b. balance and gait disorders
c. cataract
d. arrhythmia
e. orthostatic hypotension

A

a. different systems and diseases

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28
Q

What tissues is found in epyoheseal plates of children and adolescent?

a. fibrouscartilage
b. hyaline cartilage
c. elastic cartilahe
d. compact bone
e. articular cartilage

A

b. hyaline cartilage

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29
Q

Paresthesia is common in:

a. Degenerative arthropathy
b. Pressure on peripheral neuron
c. Goat
d. Inflammartory arthropathy

A

b. Pressure on peripheral neuron

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30
Q

The functions of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle include

a. Acting as “relaxing protein” at rest by covering up the sites where myosin binds to actin
b. Releasing Ca2+ after initiation of contraction
c. Binding to myosin during contraction
d. Sliding on actin to produce shortening
e. Generate ATP, which it passes to the contractile mechanism

A

a. Acting as “relaxing protein” at rest by covering up the sites where myosin binds to actin

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31
Q

Which nerve is damage if patient is not able to flex the thigh and extend the leg?

a. tibial nerve
b. sciatic nerve
c. femoral nerve
d. superficial peroneal nerve
e. deep peroneal nerve

A

c. femoral nerve

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32
Q

Common symptom of degenerative arthropathy:

a. Short term joint stiffness
b. Paresthesia
c. Long term joint stiffness
d. Constant pain everywhere

A

a. Short term joint stiffness

–> REMEMBER: arthritis is degenerative athropathy

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33
Q

Choose the most frequent type of dystrophin gene mutation:

a. inversions
b. insertions
c. transversions
d. point mutations
e. deletions

A

e. deletions

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34
Q

The optimal tractics for treating joint osteoarthritis* require:

select one or more:

a. all patients older than 70 years are enrolled for end-prosthesis operation
b. a combination of pharmacological treatments
c. a combination of non-pharmcalogical treatments
d. a combination of non-pharmcalogical and pharmacological treatments
e. a combination of pharmcalogical and surgical (alloplastic) treatments

A

d. a combination of non-pharmcalogical and pharmacological treatments
* Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis, affecting millions of people worldwide. It occurs when the protective cartilage that cushions the ends of the bones wears down over time. Although osteoarthritis can damage any joint, the disorder most commonly affects joints in your hands, knees, hips and spine.

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35
Q

Hip joint consists of:

select one or more:

a. ilium bone and ischium
b. iliac crest and femoral head
c. pubis and llium
d. pelvis and femoral head
e. pelvis, symphysis and sacrum

A

a. ilium bone and ischium
c. pubis and llium
d. pelvis and femoral head

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36
Q

Mark what could be visible in roentgenogram of the spine in case of generalised osteoporosis:

select one or more:

a. thining of compact layer of bones
b. fractures
c. compressed vertebral bodies/ “fish bone” vertebra
d. bones of lower density

A

a. thining of compact layer of bones
b. fractures
c. compressed vertebral bodies/ “fish bone” vertebra
d. bones of lower density

all are correct

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37
Q

Joint crepitus is common in:

a. myofascicular pain
b. pressure on peripheral neuron
c. fibromyalgia
d. degenerative arthropathy

A

d. degenerative arthropathy

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38
Q

Footballer run through the game field, stopped, while standing on right foot (joint hyperextension) and with left foot kicked ball to the right (rotation outwards). Athlete got pain in right knee joint. What trauma experienced football player?

select one or more:

a. patella tendon rupture
b. meniscus rupture
c. anterior cruciate ligament rupture
d. tibia muscle rupture
e. achilis rupture

A

c. anterior cruciate ligament rupture

39
Q

Patient is not able abduct the upper limb. Which nerves are damage?

select one or more:

a. musculocutaneous nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. suprascapular nerve
d. ulnar nerve
e. radial nerve

A

b. axillary nerve

c. suprascapular nerve

40
Q

During palpation of the injured patient one may detect:

select one or more:

a. fluctuance
b. subcutaneous emphysema
c. painfulness
d. crackling (crepitation)

A

a. fluctuance
b. subcutaneous emphysema
c. painfulness
d. crackling (crepitation)

41
Q

Which statements about micro trauma are incorrect?

select one or more:

a. microtrauma results in poorly defiend post traumatic inflammation, the symptoms of which are invisible and inaccurate
b. microotrauma include skin scratches, needle sticks, micro tears off muscular fibers, muscle sheaths, tensions, ligaments, connective tissues, except occupational injuries amongst health care workers
c. reccuring microtrauma may be complicated by occupational disease
d. the small sharps injuries in the operating theatre such as needle sticks or slight damage of skin by scalpel are not considered to be microtrauma due to low risk hepatitis and HIV
e. microtrauma usually does not cause anatomical changes

A

b. microotrauma include skin scratches, needle sticks, micro tears off muscular fibers, muscle sheaths, tensions, ligaments, connective tissues, except occupational injuries amongst health care workers
d. the small sharps injuries in the operating theatre such as needle sticks or slight damage of skin by scalpel are not considered to be microtrauma due to low risk hepatitis and HIV

42
Q

Which of following can be the causes of pathologic bone fracture?

select one or more:

a. seizures
b. malignant process
c. osteoporosis
d. osteomyelitis
e. pseudoarthrosis

A

b. malignant process
c. osteoporosis
d. osteomyelitis

43
Q

Mark the correct statement about lymph drainage from axillary nodes:

a. parasternal lymph nodes
b. diaphragmatic lymph nodes
c. jugular trunk
d. bronchomediastinal trunk
e. subclavian trunk

A

e. subclavian trunk

44
Q

Which Is NOT symptom of degenerative arthropathy?

a. short term joint stiffness
b. joint deformation
c. joint redness
d. joint pain

A

c. joint redness

45
Q

Why are flexors and extensors antagonists?

a. they pull in the opposite direction
b. they move faster and efficiently
c. they work together
d. the push the joint

A

a. they pull in the opposite direction

46
Q

All statements about osteoblasts are correct EXEPT one. Which statement is incorrect?

a. osteoblasts divide mitotically
b. osteoblasts are located at the surface of canceleous bone lamellae
c. osteoblasts become osteocytes
d. osteoblasts develop from neural crest
e. osteoblast secret osteoid

A

a. osteoblasts divide mitotically

47
Q

Patients falls classification (by prof. J.M. Morse). Falls are caused by environmental factors such as water or urine on the floor or because of a failure of equipment. Prevention of those falls are:

a. ensure safe environment
b. careful and individual patient evaluation
c. only secondary prevention is available, prevention of repeated falls

A

a. ensure safe environment

48
Q

Class of medicinal products that cause osteoporosis most commonly:

a. antithyroid agents
b. alpha adrenergic agonist
c. thyroid hormones
d. estrogens
e. anticovulsants
f. beta adrenergic agonists
g. glucocorticoids

A

g. glucocorticoids

49
Q

Patient falls prevention. Who can ensure patient falls prevention strategy?

a. nurse
b. physiotherapist
c. interdisciplinary team
d. doctor
e. occupational therapist

A

c. interdisciplinary team

50
Q

Common symptoms of Gout:

a. joint redness
b. constant pain everywhere
c. muscular hypotonia
d. muscular atrophy

A

a. joint redness

51
Q

Structure into lacuna musculorum

a. ilioinguinal nerve
b. iliohypogastric nnerve
c. femoral nerve
d. obturatur nerve
e. sciatic nerve

A

c. femoral nerve

52
Q

Correlation between pain and inflammation:

a. no correlation
b. pain inhibit function
c. function inhibit pain
d. pain inhibit disability

A

b. pain inhibit function

53
Q

The length of the sarcomere increases in event of:

a. contraction of skeletal muscle
b. both relaxation and contraction of skeletal muscle
c. length of the sarcomere do not change in the events of contraction and relaxation
d. relaxation of skeletal muscle

A

d. relaxation of skeletal muscle

54
Q

Select troponin binding sites:

select one or more:

a. inorganic phosphare
b. tropomyosin
c. Ca2+
d. ATP
e. Actin

A

b. tropomyosin
c. Ca2+
e. Actin

55
Q

What structures pass through carpal tunnel?

select one or more:

a. radial nerve
b. tendon of brachioradialis muscle
c. median nerve
d. tendon of flexor policies longus muscle
e. tendons of the flexor digitorum muscles

A

c. median nerve
d. tendon of flexor policies longus muscle
e. tendons of the flexor digitorum muscles

56
Q

Select energy sources for muscles at different exercise duration?

  1. 2h
  2. 25 seconds
  3. 5 seconds

choose from these options:

a. glycogen
b. creatinine phosphate
c. fatty acids

A
  1. c
  2. a
  3. b
57
Q

What is on the top of the movement pyramid?

a. skills
b. posture
c. muscles
d. pain

A

a. skills

58
Q

Distrofine protein connects with:

a. actin and myosine
b. actin
c. actin and protein complex in sarcoleme
d. myosine

A

c. actin and protein complex in sarcoleme

59
Q

Patient is not able abduct the upper limb. Which muscles are damage?

select one or more:

a. infraspinaatus
b. deltoid
c. supraspinatus
d. subscapular
e. lattisimus dorsi

A

b. deltoid

c. supraspinatus

60
Q

The patient complains of difficulty to make fist, abduct and adduct the fingers, flex the hand and notices the paraesthesia of the medial palmar area of the hand. Which nerve is damage?

a. musclucutaneous nerve
b. ulnar nerve
c. axillary nerve
d. radial nerve
e. suprascapular nerve

A

b. ulnar nerve

61
Q

The patient is not able to extend the thigh. Which nerve are damage?

select one or more:

a. obturator nerve
b. saphenous nerve
c. inferior gluteal nerve
d. femoral nerve
e. sciatic nerve

A

c. inferior gluteal nerve

e. sciatic nerve

62
Q

What structures join the bodies of the vertebras?

select one or more:

a. zygapophysial joints
b. intersoinoous ligaments
c. posterior longitudinal ligament
d. intervertebral disci
e. ligamenta flava
f. anterior longitudinal ligament

A

c. posterior longitudinal ligament
d. intervertebral disci
f. anterior longitudinal ligament

63
Q

Hemorrhage inside the abdominal wall may be detected by:

a. ultrasound imaging
b. arthroscopy
c. laparocentesis
d. throaconscopy
e. laparoscopy

A

a. ultrasound imaging

64
Q

All the patients with high risk of osteoporosis should be investigated with this radiological method

a. ultrasonography
b. DEXA
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. roentgenography
e. computed tomography

A

b. DEXA

65
Q

Mark the correct statements about fibular collateral ligament:

select one or more:

a. it becomes tight during extension of knee joint
b. its attachment are: medial femoral epicondyle and posterior intercondylar area
c. its attachment are: lateral femoral epicondyle and anterior intercondylar area
d. it relaxes during extension of knee joint
e. its attachment are: medial femoral epicondyle and medial tibial condyle
f. its attachment are: lateral femoral epicondyle and fibular head

A

a. it becomes tight during extension of knee joint

f. its attachment are: lateral femoral epicondyle and fibular head

66
Q

Which proposition is NOT correct?

a. CTS is the most prevalent of all nerve compression syndromes
b. CTS always diagnosed as occupational disorder
c. CTS is associated with repetitive hand motions
d. Congenital predisposition also is one of the CTS causes

A

b. CTS always diagnosed as occupational disorder

–> only 10%

67
Q

Which molecule is binding water?

a. proteoglycans
b. collagen
c. elastin
d. dystrophin

A

a. proteoglycans

68
Q

What is specific in these molecules structure?

  1. proteoglycans
  2. collagen fibers
  3. glicoproteins ????
  4. elastin

Choose between:

a. triple helix
b. demosine
c. a single sugar residue ????
d. repeating units of disaccharides

A
  1. d
  2. a
  3. c INTE SÄKER PÅ SVARET
  4. b
69
Q

Bisphosphonates:

select one or more:

a. reduce formation/activation of osteoclasts
b. mimic effects of MCSF on the bone
c. mainly increase bone fomration
d. due to local irritation are usually taken with meals
e. may be administered intravenously and one week or longer intervals

A

a. reduce formation/activation of osteoclasts

e. may be administered intravenously and one week or longer intervals

70
Q

Is there ionising radiation during magnetic resonance imaging?

a. NO
b. YES

A

a. NO

71
Q

What are the leading symptoms of CTS?

select one or more:

a. some people are unable to tell between hot and cold touch
b. the paresthesia ion the palm side of the hand and on three first fingers
c. numbness and tingling in the palm side of the hand and there first fingers
d. decreased grip strength

A

a. some people are unable to tell between hot and cold touch
b. the paresthesia ion the palm side of the hand and on three first fingers
c. numbness and tingling in the palm side of the hand and there first fingers
d. decreased grip strength

72
Q

48 years old woman was operated by neurosurgeon. During surgery was removed intervertebral disc. In pathology department this disc was investigated by microscopy. What tissue was observed at the periphery of this disc?

a. elastic cartilage
b. dense regular connective tissue
c. hyaline cartilage
d. fibrous cartilage
e. dense irregular connective tissue

A

d. fibrous cartilage

73
Q

Raloxifene*:

select one or more:

a. mimics effects of oestrogen’s on endometrium
b. on the contrary to oestrogen’s, does not cause thrombosis and embolism
c. has been used for the second line prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis
d. mimics effects of oestrogen’s on bones
e. is selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

A
  • Raloxifene is used by women to prevent and treat bone loss (osteoporosis) after menopause. It slows down bone loss and helps to keep bones strong.
    c. has been used for the second line prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis
    d. mimics effects of oestrogen’s on bones
    e. is selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
74
Q

Select medicin (s) with anabolic effect ion bones to increase their minerals density:

select one or more:

a. estradiol
b. teriparatide
c. ibandronic acid
d. MCSF
e. PTH
f. raloxifene
g. denosumab

A

b. teriparatide

e. PTH

75
Q

Skeletal muscle:

a. contraction strength is related to initial length
b. generates spontaneous activity (without external stimulation)
c. contracts when the number of sarcomeres decreases
d. contracts when calcium is taken up by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. contracts when the actin and myosin filaments shorten

A

a. contraction strength is related to initial length

76
Q

The woman has son and brother with DMD. She is:

a. the non obligate carrier
b. the obligate heterozygote
c. the non obligate heterozygote
d. the patient

A

b. the obligate heterozygote

77
Q

A motor unit is made up of:

a. all the neurones going into an individual section of the body
b. a fascicle and a nerve
c. all the muscle fibers within a given muscle
d. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates
e. all the synergist muscles

A

d. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates

78
Q

Properties of the cells in synovial membrane

select one or more:

a. they do not make epithelial linning
b. they are connected with desmosomes
c. they make epithelial linning of the synovial membrane
d. they synthesise osteoid
e. they are two types
f. they are able to phagocyte from the synovial fluid

A

a. they do not make epithelial linning

f. they are able to phagocyte from the synovial fluid

79
Q

Large motor units:

a. produce more force than small motor units
b. are recruited first
c. use ATP less quickly
d. produce tetanic tension at low stimulation frequencies
e. have fewer muscle fibers

A

a. produce more force than small motor units

80
Q

Mark the correct statements about anterior cruciate ligament

select one or more:

a. it attaches on the lateral femoral epicondyle and posterior intercondylar area of tibia
b. it prevents the posterior displacement of the tibia
c. it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur
d. it attaches on medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
e. it attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

A

c. it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur
e. it attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

81
Q

Principles of the soft tissue contusion treatment include:

select or more

a. all hematomas are evacuated
b. PRICE principle is employed
c. immobilisation, local cold, later-physiotherapy and massage
d. narcotic analgesics
e. compressive bandage is necessary, if the tissues stratify the cavities form themselves

A

b. PRICE principle is employed
c. immobilisation, local cold, later-physiotherapy and massage
e. compressive bandage is necessary, if the tissues stratify the cavities form themselves

NOTE –> LARGE hematomas are evacuated

82
Q

Medicinal product(s) not requiring renal activation and suitable for the treatment of the secondary hyperparathyroidism in patients with chronic renal failure include:

select one or more:

a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 (calcifediol)
c. ergocalciferol
d. 1-hydroxyvitamin D3 (alfacalcidol)
e. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol)

A

d. 1-hydroxyvitamin D3 (alfacalcidol)

e. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol)

83
Q

Mark the correct statements about medial meniscus:

select one or more:

a. it is a hyaline cartilage
b. it is more mobile than lateral meniscus
c. it is attached to the medial collateral ligament
d. it is attached to the lateral collateral ligament
e. it is attached to joint capsule

A

c. it is attached to the medial collateral ligament

e. it is attached to joint capsule

84
Q

Neuromuscular synaptic transmission:

a. depends on direct electrical transmission (without neurotransmitter)
b. generates an action potential without generation of postsynaptic potential in muscle membrane
c. is dependent on an increase in presynaptic permeability to Ca2+
d. is dependent on an increase in postsynaptic permeability to Ca2+
e. generates an action potential in presynaptic cell

A

c. is dependent on an increase in presynaptic permeability to Ca2+

85
Q

The ergonomics is:

a. science about environment
b. science about nanotechnologies
c. science about occupational risk evaluation
d. science of fitting a job and work task to a person

A

d. science of fitting a job and work task to a person

86
Q

Mark the advantages of MRI investigation of knee joint comparing with other radiological methods

a. better visible injuries of hard part of the bone
b. better visualised soft intraarticular tissues and their injuries
c. better visible calcification

A

b. better visualised soft intraarticular tissues and their injuries

87
Q

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of thigh?

a. ligament of head of femur
b. transverse acetabular ligament
c. pubofemoral
d. ischiofemoral
e. iliofemoral

A

e. iliofemoral

88
Q

Is patients falls have codes in international classification of Disease (ICD)?

a. no codes
b. falls have detailed codes for different kind of falls
c. yes, we can find only one code

A

b. falls have detailed codes for different kind of falls

89
Q

The patient is not able to extend the thigh. Which muscles are damage?

a. iliopsoas
b. gluteus maximus
c. quadriceps femoris
d. adductor magnus
e. seminmembraneous

A

b. gluteus maximus

e. seminmembraneous

90
Q

Patient is not able to flex the hand, which nerves are damage?

select one or more:

a. median
b. radial
c. axillary
d. ulnar
e. musculocutaneous

A

a. median

d. ulnar

91
Q

Muscle contraction proteins:

  1. Binding ATP
  2. Binding Ca2+

Choose between:

a. Myosin
b. Troponin

A
  1. Myosin

2. Troponin

92
Q

Which structures pass through adductor canal:

a. femoral vein
b. saphenous nerve
c. femoral artery
d. femoral nerve
e. deep femoral artery
f. great saphenous vein

A

a. femoral vein
b. saphenous nerve
c. femoral artery

93
Q

Long head of triceps brachii is forming these regions:

select one or more:

a. claviopectoral triangle
b. quadrangular space
c. cubital fossa
d. triangular space
e. triangular interval

A

b. quadrangular space
d. triangular space
e. triangular interval

Locomotion, Past Q (10 decks)

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