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Locomotion, Past Q > 2021 första cycle, dorsas rättning > Flashcards

2021 första cycle, dorsas rättning Flashcards

1
Q

Which nerve is damage if patient is not able to flex the thigh and extend the leg?

  • deep peroneal nerve
  • sciatic nerve
  • superficial peroneal nerve
  • femoral nerve
  • tibial nerve
A

-femoral nerve

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2
Q

Which muscle is damage if patient is not able to flex the thigh and extend the leg?

A

quadriceps

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3
Q

Is patients falls have codes in international classification of diseases (ICD)?

a. yes, we can find only one code
b. no codes
c. falls have detailed codes for different kind of falls

A

c. falls have detailed codes for different kind of falls

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4
Q

Interaction of the movement system elements depends on:

a. central nervous system, joints and muscles
b. cartilage, bones and muscles
c. muscles, fascia and bones
d. joints, ligaments and fascia

A

a. central nervous system, joints and muscles

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5
Q

Patient is not able to flex the hand, which nerves are damaged?

select one or more:

a. ulnar
b. musculocutaneous
c. radial
d. axillary
e. median

A

a. ulnar

e. median

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6
Q

Common symtoms of inflammatory arthropathy (arthritis):

a. constant pain everywhere
b. intramuscular tender knot
c. paresthesia
d. joint redness

A

Right answer, d. joint redness

a. constant pain everywhere –> fibromyalgia
b. intramuscular tender knot–> myofascial syndrome
c. paresthesia –> peripheral neuron

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7
Q

What can you recommend for acute strain treatment?

select one or more:

  • warmth
  • Plaster of Paris
  • cold
  • compression
A
  • cold
  • compression
Use the RICE:
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation
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8
Q

Muscle contraction proteins:

Binding ATP —>

Binding Ca2+ —>

A

–> myosin

—> troponin

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9
Q

Which molecules is binding water?

  • proteoglycans
  • collagen
  • elastin
  • dystrophin
A

-proteoglycans

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10
Q

Long term effects of oestrogen’s on bone metabolism are related to:

  • sodium/calcium symporter
  • G protein coupled receptors
  • Ligand gated ion channels
  • certain non-cellular enzymes
  • intracellular receptors
  • enzyme linked receptors
A
  • intracellular receptors

- G protein coupled receptors (acute)

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11
Q

What is bone formation called when the bone is formed directly, without using a cartilage template?

  • intramembranous
  • endosteum
  • intraosseous
  • interosseous
  • endochondrial
A

-intramembranous –> directly from mesenchyme

NOTE:
*-endochondrial –> hyaline cartilage, replaced by bone after

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12
Q

Mark the correct statement about posterior cruicitae ligament:

a. it attaches on the lateral femoral
b. it attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and patella
c. it attaches on medial femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of tibia
d. it attaches on lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia
e. it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur

A

d. it attaches on lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle and posterior intercondylar area of the tibia

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13
Q

Indicate the objective signs of bone fracture:

select one or more:

  • limb shortening
  • pain
  • edema
  • crepitaation
  • bruising
  • mobility in an abnormal location
  • haematoma
  • deformation
A
  • edema
  • crepitaation
  • bruising
  • haematoma
  • deformation
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14
Q

Radiological features of osteoarthrosis is:

select one or more:

  • subchoondral cysts
  • osteophytes
  • periarticular osteopenia
  • erosions (marginal, centraal)
  • symmetric (uni form) joint space narrowing
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • assymetric (non-uniform) joint space narrowing
A
  • subchoondral cysts
  • osteophytes
  • subchondral sclerosis
  • assymetric (non-uniform) joint space narrowing
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15
Q

Structure into lacuna musculorum:

a. femoral nerve
b. sciatic nerve
c. illiopogastric nerve
d. illioinguinal nerve
e. obturator nerve

A

a. femoral nerve

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16
Q

In excitation-contraction coupling:

  • the muscle action potential propagates along the sarcolemma and down the transverse tubules
  • relaxation occurs when Ca2+is excreted from the muscle fibre
  • Ca2+ released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to tropomyosin
  • Troponin blocks binding of myosin heads to actin filaments
A

-the muscle action potential propagates along the sarcolemma and down the transverse tubules

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17
Q

Paresthesiaa is common in:

a. inflammatory arthropathy
b. gout
c. pressure on peripheral neuron
d. degenerative arthropathy

A

c. pressure on peripheral neuron

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18
Q

What is located in a lacuna of compact bone?

  • osteocyte
  • osteclast
  • osteon
  • osteoblast
  • osteoid
A

-osteocyte

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19
Q

The contractile response in skeletal muscle

a. decrease in magnitude with repeated stimulation
b. starts after the action potential is over
c. does not last as long as the action potential
d. produces more TENSION when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically
e. produces more WORK when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically

A

d. produces more TENSION when the muscle contracts isometrically than when the muscle contracts isotonically

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20
Q

What is the sequence of increased pressure on the lumbar vertebrae depending on the body position?

  • sitting, standing, lying
  • lying, standing, sitting
  • lying, sitting, standing
  • sitting, lying, standing
A

-lying, standing, sitting

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21
Q

Which muscles are the most vulnerable in case of Duschenne muscular dystrophy?

a. abdominal muscles
b. large muscles in the lumbar and thigh area
c. small arm muscles
d. small leg muscles

A

b. large muscles in the lumbar and thigh area

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22
Q

True or false:

Intramembranous ossification refers ti the formation of bone within hyaline cartilage. In this process, mesenchyme is transformed into chondroblasts which produce a hyaline cartilage matrix that is gradually replaced by bone. Most bones of the body form by this process.

A

False

It was an explanation for endochondral ossification and not intramembraneous

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23
Q

During investigation of musculoskeletal system with ultrasonography it is possible to detect

select one or more:

  • tears of superficial tendons
  • fluid collection
  • injuries of surfaces of the bones
A
  • tears of superficial tendons
  • fluid collection

According to quiz:

  • Fluid collections in particular soft tissues
  • synovitis (is the medical term for inflammation of the synovial membrane. This membrane lines joints that possess cavities, known as synovial joints.)
  • superficial tendon/ligament pathology
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24
Q

What is on top of movement pyramid?

  • posture
  • pain
  • muscles
  • skills
A

skills

  1. skills
  2. muscles
  3. posture
  4. pain
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25
Q

Which structures pass through carpal tunnel?

select one or more:

  • radial nerve
  • tendons of flexor digitorum muscles
  • tendon of the brachioradialis muscle
  • tendon of flexor policies longus muscle
  • median nerve
A
  • tendons of flexor digitorum muscles
  • tendon of flexor policies longus muscle
  • median nerve
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26
Q

What causes the movement dysfunction?

  • muscle dysfunction
  • joint, nerve and muscle dysfunction
  • nerve dysfunction
  • joint dysfunction
A

-joint, nerve and muscle dysfunction

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27
Q

The ergonomics is:

a. science about environment
b. science about nanotechnologies
c. science about occupational risk evaluation
d. science of fitting a job and work task to a person

A

d. science of fitting a job and work task to a person

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28
Q

Elderly patient noticed that pain is “shooting” through hip joint to the ankle. Differential diagnosis from …?

select one or more:

a. knee joint tendon rupture
b. spine cereal part pathology
c. vertebral column disorder
d. femoral neck fracture

A

c. vertebral column disorder

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29
Q

What would you not recommend for the patient with CTS?

a. adequate micro pauses during repetitive work
b. resting the wrist on the sharp cold edge of the desk
c. training proper wrist position keeping during work task
d. to design proper work station

A

b. resting the wrist on the sharp cold edge of the desk

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30
Q

Bisphosphonates:

select one or more:

  • may be administered intravenously and one week or longer intervals
  • mimic effects of MCSF on the bone
  • due to local irritation are usually take with meals
  • reduce formation/ activation of osteoclast
A
  • reduce formation/ activation of osteoclast

- may be administered intravenously and one week or longer intervals

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31
Q

Footballer run through the game field, stopped, while standing on right foot (joint hyperextension) and with left foot kicked ball to the right (rotation outwards). Athlete got pain in right knee joint. What trauma experienced football player?

select one or more:

a. patella tendon rupture
b. meniscus rupture
c. tibia muscle rupture
d. anterior cruciate ligament rupture
e. achilis rupture

A

d. anterior cruciate ligament rupture

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32
Q

According to the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction, during contraction.

  • both thick and thin filament shorten
  • the thick filament stay the same size but the thin filaments shorten
  • the Titian interacts with actin
  • the sarcomeres shorten
  • the Titian filaments stay the same size but the thick filaments shorten
A

-the sarcomeres shorten

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33
Q

Osteoarthritis conservative treatment goals (mark wrong one)

select one or more:

  • restore range of movements with modern implants
  • protect or slow down the progression of the disease
  • improve function
  • teach the patient about OA and its treatment
  • Reduce pain
A

-restore range of movements with modern implants

Conservative treatment goals:

  • protect or slow down the progression of the disease
  • improve function
  • teach the patient about OA and its treatment
  • Reduce pain
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34
Q

What type of protein is not expressed in case of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

a. P53 protein
b. neurofibromine
c. Ret protooncogene
d. dystrophine
e. huntingtine

A

d. dystrophine

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35
Q

In which health care institutions patient falls prevention is important:

  • hospitals
  • rehabilitaation instituions
  • in all health care institutions
  • nursing homes
A

-in all health care institutions

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36
Q

Unspecialized stem cells that are derived from mesenchyme, the tissue from which almost all connective tissues are formed. They are only bone cells to undergo mitotic cell divisions.. They are called:

  • osteons
  • osteoclasts
  • osteoblasts
  • osteogenic (osteoprogenitor)
  • osteocytes
A

-osteogenic (osteoprogenitor)

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37
Q

What structures join the bodes of vertebras?

select one or more:

  • zygapophyseal joints
  • anterior longitudinal ligament
  • intervertebral disci
  • ligamneta flava
  • interspinous ligaments
  • posterior longitudinal ligament
A
  • anterior longitudinal ligament
  • intervertebral disci
  • posterior longitudinal ligament
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38
Q

Mark the correct statement about lymph drainage from axillary lymph nodes:

  • diaphragmatic lymph nodes
  • jugular trunk
  • subclavian trunk
  • parasternal lymph nodes
  • bronchomediastinal trunk
A

-subclavian trunk

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39
Q

The patient is not able to extend the thigh. Which nerves are damage?

select one or more:

a. inferior gluteal nerve
b. saphenous nerve
c. obturator nerve
d. sciatic nerve
e. femoral nerve

A

a. inferior gluteal nerve

d. sciatic nerve

40
Q

Calcium ions are required for the normal activation of muscle. Which statement below most closely describes the role of calcium ions in the control of skeletal muscle contraction?

a. the binding of calcium ions to the thick filament regulatory proteins activates the enzymatic activity of the myosin molecules
b. the binding of calcium ions to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments removes the inhibition of actin myosin interaction
c. a high concentration of calcium ions in the myofilament space is required to maintain muscle in a relaxed state
d. calcium ions serve as inhibitor of the interaction of thick and thin filaments

A

b. the binding of calcium ions to regulatory proteins on the thin filaments removes the inhibition of actin myosin interaction

41
Q

Select energy sources for muscles at different exercise duration?

  1. 2 hours
  2. 25 second
  3. 5 seconds

choose from:

  • fatty acids
  • creatine phosphate
  • glycogen
A
  1. 2 hours –> fatty acids
  2. 25 second–> glycogen
  3. 5 seconds–> creatine phosphate
42
Q

Which of the following is a correct comparison of type 1 (slow oxidative) skeletal muscle fibers and type 2 B (fast glycolytic) skeletal muscle fiber?

  • type 1 fibers have fewer mitcohondria
  • type 1 fibers produce longer twitch
  • type 1 fibers have a bigger diameter
  • type 1 fibers can generate more tension
  • type 1 fibers store more glycogen
A

-type 1 fibers produce longer twitch

And they have MORE mitochondria and a smaller diameter

43
Q

Common symptom in the pressure on peripheral neuron:

a. joint swelling
b. muscular atrophy
c. joint redness
d. bone deviation

A

b. muscular atrophy

44
Q

What is true about ACL?

Give me 2 facts—->

A

-it prevents anterior displacement of the tibia relative to the FEMUR

&

-It attaches on medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and anterior intercondylar area of the tibia

45
Q

The patient complains of difficulty to make fist, abduct and adduct the fingers, flex the hand, and notices the paresthesia of the medial palmar area of hand. Which nerve Is damage?

A

Ulnar nerve

46
Q

The binding of ACh to the motor end plate causes a change in membrane permeability to —

select one or more:

  • Potassium
  • Acetilcholine esterase
  • sodium
  • acetilcholine
  • calcium
A
  • Potassium

- sodium

47
Q

Large motor units:

  • have fewer muscle fibers
  • are recruited first
  • use ATP less quickly
  • produce tetanic tension at low stimulation frequencies
  • produce more force than small motor units
A

-produce more force than small motor units

48
Q

Which of the following can be the causes of pathologic bone fracture?

select one or more:

  • malignant process
  • pseudoarthrosis
  • osteomyelitis
  • seziures
  • osteoporosis
A
  • malignant process
  • osteomyelitis
  • osteoporosis
49
Q

Which specific test is used for purpose of CTS diagnostics?

a. the Tinel test
b. the Kernig test
c. the Romberg test
d. the Cold test

A

a. the Tinel test

test for phalanges and tumb

50
Q

Patient falls prevention, Patient falls intrinsic risk factors. Which intrinsic factors can influence patient falls?

  • orthostatic hypotension
  • different systems and diseases
  • balance and gait disorder
  • cataract
  • arrhythmia
A

-different systems and diseases

51
Q

Troponin binding sites:

select one or more:

  • actin
  • tropomyosin
  • Ca2+
  • inorganic phosphate
  • ATP
A
  • Actin
  • Tropomyosin
  • Ca2+
52
Q

Which symptoms are characteristics of CTS?

  • finger nail bed injury
  • numbness and pain in the palm of the hand and the fingers especially at night
  • redness of hand skin
  • numbness and pain in the wrist
A

-numbness and pain in the palm of the hand and the fingers especially at night

53
Q

Mark the advantages of computed tomography over the roentgenography in investigation of skeletal muscle:

select one or more:

a. during investigation patient receives low dose of ionising radiation
b. shows precisely bone in evaluation of complex anatomical structures
c. most valuable in evaluation of bone tissue and calcification
d. it is possible to make various 2D and 3D reconstructions

A

b. shows precisely bone in evaluation of complex anatomical structures
d. it is possible to make various 2D and 3D reconstructions

54
Q

What injuries are characteristics for the injury induced by acceleration-deceleration trauma mechanism?

  • injury at the site which was in contact with a ground or vehicle
  • very different and severe injuries are possible due to varying trajectory of the injuring agent
  • significant injuries are caused by an inert tearing forces when after an impact the human organs stop or start moving suddenly
  • internal haemorrhage
  • rupture of the parenchymatous organs, aortic arch, bowel mesenteries
A
  • injury at the site which was in contact with a ground or vehicle
  • internal hemorrhage
  • rupture of the parenchymatous organs, aortic arch, bowel mesenteries
55
Q

Which is not symptom of fibromyalgia?

a. paresthesia
b. leg weakness
c. morning stiffness
d. joint deformation

A

d. joint deformation

56
Q

What are symptoms of fibromyalgia?

Mention 3–>

A
  1. paresthesia
  2. leg weakness
  3. morning stiffness
57
Q

Common symptom of the myofascicular pain:

a. joint swelling
b. leg weakness
c. joint deformation
d. intramuscular tender knot

A

d. intramuscular tender knot

58
Q

Which structures pass through adductor canal:

select one or more:

a. femoral vein
b. great saphenous vein
c. deep femoral artery
d. saphenous nerve
e. femoral nerve
f. femoral artery

A

a. femoral vein
d. saphenous nerve
f. femoral artery

59
Q

The important factors associated with manual material handling risk on the muscluskletal system are:

select one or more:

a. the weight of load
b. degree of flexion and rotation of the spine
c. chosen lifting technique

A

a. the weight of load
b. degree of flexion and rotation of the spine
c. chosen lifting technique

60
Q

Which agent increases the activity of alpha hydroxyls?

a. glucocorticoids
b. estradiol
c. 1,25(OH)2D
d. PTH
e. calcitonin
f. FGF 23

A

d. PTH

61
Q

Patient is not able to do EVERSION of the foot, which muscle is damage?

A

Fibulas longus

62
Q

Patient is not able to do INERVESION of the foot, which muscle is damage?

A

Tibialis posterior and anterior

63
Q

The most informative meniscus rupture diagnosis intrusment:

RADIOLOGY

A

MRI!!!

64
Q

Bone consists of hard part and red and yellow bone marrow. Which radiological method directly shows that?

A

MRI –> Magnetic resonance imaging

65
Q

Patient falls classification (by prof. J.M.Morse): Falls occur in patients who score a high risk of falling on for example the MGS (Morse fall scale). These falls called:

a. accidental falls
b. anticipated physiological falls
c. unanticipated physiological falls

A

b. anticipated physiological falls

66
Q

Patient falls prevention. Patient falls prevention include:

a. physical activity
b. fall risk assessment
c. proper footwear
d. complex of different methods
e. patient education

A

d. complex of different methods

67
Q

What class of medicinal products cause osteoporosis most commonly?

A

GLUCOCORTICOIDS

68
Q

What are the main complications of an arterial injury?

select one or more:

  • thrombosis
  • arteriovenous fistula
  • false (pseudo-) aneurysm formation
  • haemorrhage
  • arterial dissection
  • compartment syndrome
A
  • arteriovenous fistula

- false (pseudo-) aneurysm formation

69
Q

Which is NOT symptom of degenerative arthropathy?

a. joint redness
b. short term joint stiffness
c. joint pain
d. joint deformation

A

a. joint redness

70
Q

Mention symptom of degenerative arthropathy –>

3 symptoms.

A

b. short term joint stiffness
c. joint pain
d. joint deformation

71
Q

All patients with high risk of osteoporosis should be investigated with this radiological method:

  • ultrasound
  • mri
  • ct
  • DEXA
  • roentgenography
A

-DEXA

72
Q

Common symtom of degenerative arthropathy:

a. long term joint stiffness
b. short term joint stiffness
c. paresthesia
d. constant pain everywhere

A

b. short term joint stiffness

Other answers and why they are wrong:

a. long term joint stiffness –> inflammatory arthritis
c. paresthesia –> peripheral neuron
d. constant pain everywhere –> fibromyalgia

73
Q

What is on the bottom of movement pyramid?

A

pain

74
Q

Dorsal pedis artery is continuation of which artery?

A

ANTERIOR TIBIAL ARTERY

75
Q

What is the most consistent definition of osteoarthritis?

select one or more:

  • joint cartilage progressive degenerative disease leading to joint pain
  • progressive articular cartilage degenerative disease
  • degenerative joint cartilage injury leading too shortening of the leg
  • joint cartilage progressive degenerative disease that occurs exclusively in the elderly people
  • joint degenerative disease that damages the acetabulum
A

-joint cartilage progressive degenerative disease leading to joint pain

76
Q

Patient falls prevention. Who can ensure patient falls prevention strategy?

a. occupational therapist
b. nurse
c. doctor
d. interdisciplinary team
e. physiotherapist

A

d. interdisciplinary team

77
Q

Fill in the blanks:

Tetriparatide is a fragment of — which —– and has been administered as —- for postmenopausal women and in men at increased risk of fracture because ——.

A
  • PTH
  • Both increases bone formation and reduces bone loss
  • As an alternative drug
  • Its safety and efficacy beyond 24 months is not clear
78
Q

Patient is not able to abduct the upper limb. Which nerves are damage?

select one or more:

a. musculocutaneous nerve
b. suprascapular nerve
c. radial nerve
d. axillary nerve
e. ulnar nerve

A

b. suprascapular nerve

d. axillary nerve

79
Q

Mark the correct statements about fibular collateral ligament:

select one or more:

a. its attachments are: lateral femoral epicondyle and fibular head
b. its attachments are: medial femoral epicondyle and medial tibial condyle
c. it becomes tight during extension of knee joint
d. it relaxes during extension of knee joint
e. its attachments are: lateral femoral epicondyle and anterior intercondylar area
f. its attachments are: medial femoral epicondyle and posterior

A

a. its attachments are: lateral femoral epicondyle and fibular head
c. it becomes tight during extension of knee joint

80
Q

Do the micro fractures, performed to the cartilage area arthroscopy operation are for reducing further arthritis development?

  • yes
  • no
A

Yes

81
Q

Which ligament prevents hyperextension of thigh?

A

Iliofemoral

82
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction is immediately terminated by which action?

a. removal of Ca++ from the terminal of motor neuron
b. closure of the postsynaptic nicotinic acetyl-choline receptor
c. removal of sarcoplasmic Ca++
d. return of the dihydropyridine receptor to its resting conformation

A

c. removal of sarcoplasmic Ca++

83
Q

The recommended limit of one-time lifting load weight for women is:

a. 10 kg
b. 5 kg
c. 30 kg
d. 25 kg

A

10 kg for woman and 20 kg for men

84
Q

Patient is not able abduct the upper limb. Which muscles are damage?

select one or more:

a. deltoid
b. latissimus dorsi
c. supraspinatus
d. infraspinatus
e. subscapular

A

a. deltoid
c. supraspinatus

PLUS–> trapezius and seratus anterior must be damaged if the patient can not abduct the upper limb

Infraspinatus and subscapilar muscles would be damaged if the patient could not ADDCUT!!!!

85
Q

Patient is NOT able to extend the thigh. Which muscles are damage?

select one or more:

  • adductor magnus
  • iliopsoas
  • quadriceps
  • semimembranosus
  • gluteus maximus
A
  • semimembranosus

- gluteus maximus

86
Q

Choose the best method to determine free air in the abdominal cavity.

a. laparocentesis
b. plain radiograph
c. laparoscopy
d. ultrasound
e. percussion

A

b. plain radiograph

AKA X-ray

87
Q

What is specific in these molecules structures?

  1. proteoglycans
  2. glycoproteins
  3. collagen type 1
  4. elastin

Choose from:

a. a single sugar residue
b. demosine
c. triple helix
d. repeating units of disaccharides

A
  1. proteoglycans –> d
  2. glycoproteins –> a
  3. collagen type 1 –> c
  4. elastin –> b
88
Q

Correlation between pain and inflammation:

  • function inhibit pain
  • no correlation
  • pain inhibit disability
  • pain inhibit function
A

-pain inhibit function

89
Q

Name the localisation of dystrophin gene:

a. X chromosome short arm
b. Y chromosome
c. 13 autosome
d. X chromosome long arm

A

a. X chromosome short arm

90
Q

Long head of triceps brachii is forming these regions:

select one or more:

a. triangular space
b. cubital fossa
c. claviopectoral triangle
d. triangular interval
e. quadrangular space

A

a. triangular space
d. triangular interval
e. quadrangular space

91
Q

Complete transection of nerve according to Seddon’s classification of nerve injuries:

a. neuralgia
b. axonotmesis
c. neuropraxia
d. paresthesia
e. neurotmesis

A

e. neurotmesis

92
Q

Which of the following activities is least likely to involve full (complete, 100%) motor unit activation?

a. 100 m sprint run
b. a set of repetitions to failure in a weight training exercise
c. a single maximal weight lift
d. a 10 min jog

A

d. a 10 min jog

93
Q

Which is most likely to extend the entire length of a muscle fiber?

a. myosin filament
b. sarcomere
c. actin filament
d. M-line
e. Myofibril

A

e. Myofibril

94
Q

Mark the correct statements about medial meniscus:

select one or more:

a. it is attached to the medial collateral ligament
b. it is a hyaline cartilage
c. it is attached to the lateral collateral ligament
d. it is more mobile than lateral meniscus
e. it is attached to the joint capsule

A

a. it is attached to the medial collateral ligament

e. it is attached to the joint capsule

95
Q

Which is not symtom of inflammatory arthropathy?

a. joint deformation
b. long term joint stiffness
c. subchondrial sclerosis on X-ray
d. joint redness

A

c. subchondrial sclerosis on X-ray

96
Q

Which is symtom of inflammatory arthropathy?

select one or more:

a. joint deformation
b. long term joint stiffness
c. subchondrial sclerosis on X-ray
d. joint redness

A

a. joint deformation
b. long term joint stiffness
d. joint redness

Locomotion, Past Q (10 decks)

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