Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP2 > Rapid Review > Flashcards

Rapid Review Flashcards

1
Q

classic ECG finding in atrial flutter

A

sawtooth P waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

definition of unstable angina

A

angina that is new, is worsening, or occurs at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

antihypertensive for a diabetic patient with proteinuria

A

ACEI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade

A

hypotension, muffled heart sounds, JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

drugs that slow heart rate

A

beta- blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hypercholesterolemia treatment that leads to flushing and pruritis

A

niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

murmur- hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)

A

a systolic ejection murmur heard along the lateral sternal border that increase with decreased preload (valsalva)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

murmur- aortic insufficiency

A

Austin Flint murmur, a diastolic, decrescendo, low-pitched, blowing murmur that is best heard sitting up; increases with increased afterload (handgrip maneuver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

murmur- aortic stenosis

A

systolic crescendo/decrescendo murmur that radiates to the neck; increases with increase preload (squatting maneuver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

murmur- mitral regurgitation

A

holosystolic murmur that radiates tot he axilla; increases with increase afterload (handgrip maneuver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

murmur- mitral stenosis

A

diastolic, mid- to- late, low- pitched murmur preceded by an opening snap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

treatment for atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter

A

if unstable, cardiovert. If stable or chronic, rate control with CCBs or beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

treatment for ventricular fibrillation

A

immediate cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dressler syndrome

A

autoimmune reaction with fever, pericarditis, and increased ESR occurring 2-4 weeks post MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IV drug use with JVD and a holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border. Treatment?

A

Treat existing heart failure and replace the tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnostic test for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

echocardiogram (showing a thickened left ventricular wall and outflow obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A

a decrease in systolic BP of more than 10mm Hg with inspiration; seen in cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

classic ECG findings in pericarditis

A

low- voltage, diffuse ST- segment elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

definition of hypertension

A

BP> 140/90 mm Hg on 3 separate occasions 2 weeks apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

eight surgically correctable causes of hypertension

A

renal artery stenosis, coarctation of aorta, pheochromocytoma, Conn’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, unilateral renal parenchymal disease, hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

evaluation of a pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit

A

abdominal ulstrasound and CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

indications for surgical repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

> 5.5 cm, rapidly enlarging, symptomatic, or ruptured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

treatment for acute coronary syndrome

A

ASA, heparin, clopidogrel, morphine, O2, sublingual nitrogen, IV beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

metabolic syndrome

A

abdominal obesity, high triglycerides, low HDL, hypertension, insulin resistance, prothrombotic or proinflammatory states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Appropriate diagnotic test for a 50yo man with stable angina who can exercise to 85% of maximum predicted heart rate

A

exercise stress treadmill with ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Appropriate diagnotic test for a 65yo woman with left bundle branch block and severe osteoarthritis who has unstable angina

A

pharmacologic stress test (dobutamine echo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

target LDL in a patient with diabetes

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

signs of active ishemia during stress testing

A

angina, ST-segment changes on ECG, or decrease in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ECG findings suggesting MI

A

ST-segment elevation (depression means ischemia), flattened T waves, and Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

coronary territories in MI

A 
anterior wall (LAD/diagonal)
inferior wall (PDA)
posterior wall (left circumflex/oblique, RCA/marginal)
septal wall (LAD/diagonal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A young patient with angina at rest and ST-segment elevation with normal cardiac enzymes

A

Prinzmetal’s anging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

common symptoms associated with silent MIs

A

CHF
shock
altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism (PE)

A

spiral CT with contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

protamine

A

reveres effects of heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

prothrombin time

A

coagulation parameter affected by warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

young patient with a family history of sudden death collapses and dies while exercising

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

endocarditis prophylaxis regimens

A

oral surgery-amoxicillin for certain situations; GI or GU procedures- not recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MCC htn in young women

A

OCPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

MCC HTN in young men

A

excessive EtOH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Figure 3 sign

A

aortic coarctation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Water-bottle-shaped heart

A

percardial effusion- look for pulsus paradoxus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

“stuck on” appearance

A

seborrheic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

red plaques with silvery-white scales and sharp margins

A

psoriasis

45
Q

MC type of skin cancer; the lesion is a pearly-colored papule with a translucent surface and telangiectasias

A

basal cell carcinoma

46
Q

honey-crusted lesions

A

impetigo

47
Q

febrile patient with a history of diabetes presents with a red, swollen, painful lower extremity

A

cellulitis

48
Q

positive Nikolsky sign

A

pemphigus vulgaris

49
Q

negative Nikolsky sign

A

bullous pemphigoid

50
Q

55-year old obese patient presents with dirty, velvety patches on the back of the neck

A

acanthosis nigricans. check fasting blood glucose to rule out diabetes

51
Q

dermatomal distribution

A

varicella zoster

52
Q

flat- topped papules

A

lichen planus

53
Q

iris- like target lesion

A

erythema multiforme

54
Q

lesions characteristically orrutting in a linear pattern in areas where skin comes into contact with clothing or jewelry

A

contact dermatitis

55
Q

presents with a herald patch, christmas-tree pattern

A

pityriasis rosea

56
Q

pinkish, scaling, flat lesions on the chest and back; KOH prep has a ‘spagghetti-and-meatballs’ appearance

A

tinea (pityriasis) versicolor

57
Q

four characteristics of a nevus suggestive of melanoma

A

asymmetry, border irregularity, color variation, and large diameter

58
Q

a premalignant lesion from sun exposure that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma

A

actinic keratosis

59
Q

“dewdrops on a rose petal”

A

lesions of primary varicella

60
Q

cradle cap

A

seborrheic dermatitis

treat conservatively with bathing and moisturizing agents

61
Q

associated with propionibacterium acnes and changes in androgen levels

A

acne vulgaris

62
Q

painful, recurrent vesicular eruption of mucocutaneous surfaces

A

herpes simplex

63
Q

inflammation and epithelial thinning of the anogenital area, predominantly in postmenopausal women

A

lichen sclerosus

64
Q

exophytic nodules on the skin with varying degrees of scaling or ulceration; the second most common type of skin cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

65
Q

MCC hypothyroidism

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

66
Q

Lab findings in Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

High TSH, low T4, anti-TPO abs

67
Q

Exophthalmos, pretibial myxedema, and decreased TSH

A

Graves’ disease

68
Q

MCC Cushing syndrome

A

iatrogenic corticosteroid administration. second most common cause is Cushing disease

69
Q

a patient presents with signs of hypocalcemia, high phosphorus, and low PTH

A

hypoparathyroidism

70
Q

“stones, bones, groans, psychiatric overtones”

A

signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia

71
Q

a patient complains of headache, weakness, and pulyuria; examination reveals hypertension and tetany. Labs show hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis

A

primary hyperaldosteronism (due to Conn’s syndrome or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia)

72
Q

a patient presents with tachycardia, wild swings in BP, HA, diaphoresis, AMS, and a sense of panic

A

pheochromocytoma

73
Q

which should be used first in treating pheochromocytoma, alpha or beta antagonists?

A

alpha antagonists (phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine)

74
Q

A patient with a history of lithium use presents with copious amounts of dilute urine

A

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)

75
Q

Treatment of central DI

A

Administration of DDAVP and free- water restriction

76
Q

A postoperative patient with significant pain presents with hyponatremia and normal volume status

A

SIADH due to stress

77
Q

An antidiabetic agent associated with lactic acidosis

A

Metformin

78
Q

A patient presents with weakness, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and new skin pigmentation. Labs show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Treatment?

A

primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease). Treat with glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and IV fluids

79
Q

Goal HbA1C for a patient with DM

A
80
Q

Treatment of DKA

A

fluids, insulin, and electrolyte repletion (eg K+)

81
Q

Why are beta blockers contraindicated in diabetics?

A

they can mask symptoms of hyperglycemia

82
Q

How do you interpret the following 95% CI for RR of 0.582 (0.502, 0.637)

A

These data are consistent with RRs ranging from 0.502 to 0.673 with 95% confidence (ie we are confident that the true RR will be between 0.502 and 0.637 95 out of 100 times)

83
Q

Bias introduced into a study when a clinician is aware of the patient’s treatment type

A

observational bias

84
Q

bias introduced when screening detects a disease earlier and thus lengthens the time from diagnosis to death

A

lead-time bias

85
Q

if you want to know if geographical location affects infant mortality rate but most variation in infant mortality is predicted by SES, then SES is a

A

confounding variable

86
Q

the proportion of people who have the disease and test positive is the

A

sensitivity

87
Q

sensitive tests have few false negatives, and are used to rule ___ a disease

A

out

88
Q

PPD reactivity is used as a screening test because most people with TB (except those who are anergic) will have a positive PPD. Highly sensitive or specific?

A

Highly sensitive for TB (screening tests with high sensitivity are good for diseases with low prevalence)

89
Q

chronic diseases such as SLE- higher prevalence or incidence?

A

higher prevalence

90
Q

epidemics such as influenza- higher prevalence or incidence?

A

higher incidence

91
Q

what is the difference between incidence and prevalence?

A

Prevalence is the percentage of cases of disease in a population at 1 snapshot in time. Incidence is the percentage of new cases of disease that develop over a given time period among the total population at risk.

92
Q

cross- sectional survey- incidence or prevalence?

A

prevalence

93
Q

cohort study- incidence or prevalence?

A

incidence and prevalence

94
Q

case- control study- incidence or prevalence?

A

neither

95
Q

describe a test that consistently gives identical results, but the results are wrong

A

high reliability (prevision), low validity (accuracy)

96
Q

difference between a cohort and a case- control study

A

cohort studies can be used to calculate RR, incidence, and/or odds ratio (OR). Case- control studies can be used to calculate an OR, which is an estimate of RR when the disease prevalence is low.

97
Q

Attributable risk?

A

difference in risk in the exposed and unexposed groups (ie the risk that is attributable to the exposure)

98
Q

relative risk?

A

incidence in the exposed group divided by incidence in the non-exposed group

99
Q

the results of a hypothetical study found an association between ASA intake and risk of heart disease. How do you interpret an RR of 1.5?

A

in patients who took ASA, the risk of heart disease was 1.5 times that of patients who did not take ASA

100
Q

Odds ratio?

A

In cohort studies, the odds of developing the disease in the exposed group divided by the odds of developing the disease in the non-exposed group.

In case- control studies, the odds that the cases were exposed divided by the odds that the controls were exposed.

In cross- sectional studies, the odds that the exposed group has the disease divided by the odds that the non-exposed group has the disease

101
Q

The result of a hypothetical study found an association between ASA intake and risk of heart disease. How do you interpret an OR of 1.5?

A

In patients who took ASA, the odds of acquiring heart disease were 1.5 times those of patients who did not take ASA.

102
Q

In which patients do you initiate colorectal cancer screening early?

A

Patients with IBD; those with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)/ hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC); and those who have first- degree relatives with adenomatous polyps (

103
Q

The most common cancer in men and the most common cause of death from cancer in men

A

prostate is the most common cancer in men. Lung cancer causes more deaths

104
Q

percentage of cases within 1 SD of the mean? 2 SDs? 3 SDs?

A

68%, 95.4%, 99.7%

105
Q

birth rate?

A

number of live births per 1000 population in 1 year

106
Q

mortality rate?

A

number of deaths per 1000 population in 1 year

107
Q

neonatal mortality rate?

A

number of deaths from birth to 28 days per 1000 live births in 1 year

108
Q

infant mortality rate?

A

number of deaths from birth to 1 year of age per 1000 live births (neonatal and postnatal mortality) in 1 year

109
Q

maternal mortality rate

A

number of deaths during pregnancy to 90 days postpartum per 100,000 live births in 1 year

STEP2 (34 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions