Random_7 Flashcards

1
Q

Adrenal CORTICAL carcinoma

A

as opposed to the medullary - pheochromocytoma

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2
Q

Adrenal protocol

A
  • ROI has to be at least 1/2-2/3 of the adrenal gland
  • relative washout = enhanced-delayed/enhanced
    • >40% benign
  • absolute washout = enhanced-delayed/enhanced-unenhanced
    • >60% benign
  • if not benign, then it is INDETERMINATE
    • can go for biopsy
    • or 6/12 follow up
    • or NM study - MIBG study
    • DO NOT suggest adrenal MR, as MR is same as CT on adrenals
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3
Q

Adrenal cortical carcinoma

A
  • often huge and ugly looking
  • grows super fast
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4
Q

Stages of SLAC wrist

These begin at the radial aspect of the radioscaphoid joint (due to its major function in wrist loading), then the remainder of the radioscaphoid joint, and ultimately the capitolunate joint.

A
  • Stage 1
    • radial aspect of radioscaphoid joint
  • Stage 2
    • entire radioscaphoid fossa
  • Stage 3
    • narrowing and sclerosis of capitolunate joint and entire entire radioscaphoid fossa
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5
Q

Staging of bladder tumor

A

T0: No tumor is found in the bladder.
Ta: The tumor is only found on the inner lining of the bladder.
T1: the tumor has invaded the lamina propria (tissue under the lining of the bladder)
T2: The tumor has grown into the muscle layer of the bladder, either superficially (stage T2a) or deeply (stage T2b). Stage 2 and higher tumors are considered to be invasive cancers.
T3: The tumor has grown through the bladder muscle into the fat layer surrounding the bladder.
T4: The tumor has spread to surrounding organs, such as the prostate, bowel, vagina, or uterus

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6
Q

Staging of RCC

A
  • T
    • T1 - limited to the kidney. T1a - <4cm; T1b 4-7cm
    • T2 - limited to kidney, >7cm
    • T3 -extends to the renal veins or infradiaphragmatic IVC
    • T4 - ispsilateral adrenal gland or beyond the Gerota’s fascia
  • N
    • N0 - no nodal involvement
    • N1 - nodal involvement
  • M
    • M0 - no metastasis
    • M1 - distant metastasis
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7
Q

Stercoral ulcer

A

Stercoral ulcer is an ulcer of the colon due to pressure and irritation resulting from severe, prolonged constipation. It is most commonly located in the rectum.

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8
Q

Most commonly missed things on abdo CT

A
  • PE in the lower lobes
  • DVT
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9
Q

Types of endoleak of an endovascular stent graft

A
  • Type 1
    • inadequate seal
    • most common in thoracic aneurysm repair
  • Type 2
    • collateral vessels
    • most common in abdominal aorta
  • Type 3
    • defect in the fabric of the graft - actual mechanical failure of the graft
  • Type 4
    • generally porous graft - intentional design of the graft
  • Type 5
    • endotension
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10
Q

PRES

A
  • posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome
  • posterior - parietal, occipital, and cerebellum; in the subcortical regions; usually bilateral
  • spares basal ganglia and the brainstem
  • mechanism: hypertension (eclampsia) or cytotoxic drugs/immunosuppressive drugs –> destroy capillary permeability and cap leakage and destroy autoregulation –> edema; may be complicated by infarct or hemorrhage
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11
Q

Pellergrini-Stieda Disease

A
  • post-traumatic calcification/ossification of the proximal MCL
  • adjacent to the margin of the medial femoral condyle
  • grades of MCL injury
    • grade 1 - interstitial tear - adjacent soft tissue T2 hyperintensity
    • grade 2 - partial tear - T2 hyperintensity within the MCL itself
    • grade 3 - complete tear
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12
Q

Saying

In a patient with no prior history of malignancy and given the conspicuity of this lesion despite its small size, it likely represents a small hepatic cyst or hemangioma.

A

In a patient with no prior history of malignancy and given the conspicuity of this lesion despite its small size, it likely represents a small hepatic cyst or hemangioma.

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13
Q

Portal venous phase

< 37 HU

A

Adrenal adenoma!!!

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14
Q

Medullary nephrocalcinosis is more common than

cortical nephrocalcinosis

A
  • medullary nephrocalcinosis (95%), vs cortical nephrocalcinosis (5%)
  • affected kidney is typically normal in size and contour
  • often asymptomatic
  • earliest sonographic finding in medullary nephrocalcinosis is the absence of hypoechoic papillary structures –> then become hyperechoic
  • most common cause - Hyperparathyroidism
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15
Q

DDX for medullary nephrocalcinosis

A
  • HOMERS
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • Oxyuria, hypercalcemia, hypervitaminosis D, milk alkali syndrome
  • Medullary sponge kidney
  • E…
  • Renal tubular acidosis
  • Sarcoidosis
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16
Q
A

Ochronosis

  • multilevel vertebral disc calcification
  • multilevel vertebral disc space narrowing
  • syndesmophytes
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17
Q

Neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia

NAIT

A
  • NAIT is an uncommon cause of neonatal thrombocytopenia with variable presentation due to placental transfer of maternal antibodies against paternally inherited fetal platelet antigens.
  • Imaging findings aid in the diagnosis of NAIT. Consider NAIT in the setting of multiple intracranial hemorrhages of varying ages and in the absence of other sequela of congenital infection or trauma.
  • Chronic hematomas may not exert significant mass effect.
  • MR appearance of blood products aids in approximating their actual chronicity.
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18
Q

Serum tumor markers for

carcinoid

CJD

A
  • Carcinoid - 5-HIAA
  • CJD - EEG, 14-3-3 protein, S100
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19
Q

How to calculate ovarian volume?

A

A x B x C x 0.523

Normal:

  • premenopasual < 20cm3
  • postmenopausal < 10cm3
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20
Q

2 things that can cause

hepatic or portal venous thrombosis

A
  • HCC
  • abscess
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21
Q

What does melanoma like to go?

A
  • 3S’s
  • spleen
  • subcutaneous soft tissue
  • small bowel (serosal surface)
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22
Q

Pouchitis

A

Common

small bowel is not made to hold stool

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23
Q

Small bowel mesentery

A
  • suspends the jejunum & ileum
  • extends like a fan obliquely across the abdomen from the ligament of Treitz in the LUQ to the region of right SI joint
  • contains branches of the SMA and SMV, and mesenteric lymph nodes
  • Dz originating from above the liagment is directed towards the RLQ
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24
Q

Greater omentum

A
  • a double layer of peritoneum
  • hangs from the greater curvature of the stomach
  • descends in front of the abdominal viscera
  • encloses fat and a few blood vessels
  • serves as fertile ground for implantation of peritoneal metastases
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25
Q

Lesser sac

A
  • space b/t stomach and pancreas
  • communicates with the greater sac (the rest of the peritoneal cavity) through foramen of Winslow
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26
Q

Density of serous ascites vs hemoperiteoneum

A
  • Serous ascites -10 to +15 HU
  • Hemoperiteoneum >30-45 HU
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27
Q

Pseudomyxoma Peritonei

A
  • most common cause - mucocele of the appendix/appendiceal mucocele
  • other rare causes
    • mucinous tumors of colon, rectum, stomach, pancreas or urachal tumors
    • mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
  • imaging findings
    • loculated mucinous fluid causes liver scalloping
    • septations
    • mottled densities
    • calcifications
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28
Q

What percentage of mesotheliomas arise in the abdomen?

i.e., mesentery, omentum, periteoneal surfaces

A

20-40%

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29
Q

DDx for cystic abdominal masses

A
  • loculated ascites
  • abscess
  • pancreatic pseudocyst
  • ovarian cyst/cystic tumor
  • lymphocele (post surgery/trauma)
  • cystic lymphangioma (congenital)
    • mesenteric cyst - cystic lymphangiomas of the mesentery
  • enteric duplication cyst
  • cystic teratoma
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30
Q

Level of bifurcation for

abdominal aorta

vs

common iliac artery

A
  • abdominal aorta bifurcates at the level of iliac crest
  • common iliac vessels bifurcate at the level of pelvic brim - sacral promontory
    • external iliac artery
    • internal iliac artery = hypogastric vessels
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31
Q

Abdominal venous anatomy variants

A
  • duplicated IVC
    • drains into the Ieft renal vein
  • retroaortic or curcumaortic left renal vein
  • absent intrahepatic segment of IVC
    • azygos continuation of IVC drains blood into the SVC
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32
Q

Hyperattenuating crescent sign

A
  • a crescent-shaped area of high attenuation within the wall or within the intraluminal thrombus of AAA
  • indicative of impending rupture of AAA
  • similar to intramural hematoma
  • it is caused by acute blood dissecting into the intraluminal thrombus and dissecting to the outer weak wall of the aneurysm
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33
Q

Intramural hematoma

A
  • a subtype of aortic dissection
  • hemorrhage within the vasa vasorum, which weakens the media, but does not tear the intima
  • hyperdense blood within the wall of the aorta on unehanced CT
  • may progress or resolve
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34
Q

How to differentiate true IVC thrombus

from flow-related phenomenon

A
  • true IVC thrombus will
    • associated IVC dilatation (acute)
    • enhancing IVC wall - provided by the vasa vasorum!
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35
Q

Whipple’s procedure

The most common technique of a pancreaticoduodenectomy consists of the en bloc removal of the distal segment (antrum) of the stomach; the first and second portions of the duodenum; the head of the pancreas; the common bile duct; and the gallbladder.

The basic concept behind the pancreaticoduodenectomy is that the head of the pancreas and the duodenum share the same arterial blood supply (the gastroduodenal artery). These arteries run through the head of the pancreas, so that both organs must be removed if the single blood supply is severed. If only the head of the pancreas were removed it would compromise blood flow to the duodenum, resulting in tissue necrosis.

A

It consists of removal of the distal half of the stomach (antrectomy), the gall bladder and its cystic duct (cholecystectomy), the common bile duct (choledochectomy), the head of the pancreas, duodenum, proximal jejunum, and regional lymph nodes.

Reconstruction consists of attaching the pancreas to the jejunum (pancreaticojejunostomy) and attaching the hepatic duct to the jejunum (hepaticojejunostomy) to allow digestive juices and bile respectively to flow into the gastrointestinal tract and attaching the stomach to the jejunum (gastrojejunostomy) to allow food to pass through.

Whipple originally used the sequence: bile duct, pancreas and stomach, whereas presently the popular method of reconstruction is pancreas, bile duct and stomach, also known as Child’s operation.

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36
Q

DIffuse Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostosis

DISH

A
  • most common in thoracic spine
    • anterior and lateral bridging/flowing osteophytes
    • right > left due to pulsation of the thoracic aorta
  • Cspine - flowing anterior osteophytes
  • Lspine - RARELY have bridging osteophytes but commonly have anterior vertebral body osteophytes
  • Have to be more than >4 vertebrae
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37
Q

Abdominal wall muscles

A
  • anterior abdo wall muscles
    • rectus abdominis within the rectus sheath
  • flanks
    • external oblique
    • internal oblique
    • transversus abdominis
  • posterior abdo wall muscles
    • latissimus dorsi
    • quadratus lumborum
    • paraspinal muscles
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38
Q

Abdominal wall hernias

A
  • incisional hernia
  • inguinial hernias
    • direct hernia - medial to inferior epigastric vessels, acquired
    • indirect hernia - lateral to inferior epigastric vessels, congenital
    • femoral hernia
  • paraumbilical hernia
    • midline
    • through the linea alba
  • spigelian hernia
    • lateral edege of the rectus abdominis
    • through the linea semilunaris
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39
Q

Chondroblastoma

A
  • benign tumor
  • skeletally immature patient 10-25y/o
  • based in epiphysis
  • most common location - proximal humerus > prox tibia > proximal femur
  • path - nodules of relatively mature cartilaginous tissue surrounded by highly cellular tissue
  • chromosomal abn - 5 and 8
  • imaging appearance
    • epiphyseal lesion
    • lytic geographic lesion with central calcifiation - chondroid matrix
    • MR - low T1, heterogenous T2 (low T2 due to calcifications; high T2 due to non-calcification chondroid matrix); +++ associated reactive marrow edema
  • may have malignant degeneration
    • look for associated soft tissue mass
    • pathologic fracture
  • Rx
    • small lesion - RFA
    • large lesion - surgical curettage and bone graft
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40
Q

Chondroblastoma T1

A

Chondroblastoma T2

  • heteogeneous T2 signal - calcified and non-calcified chondroid matrix
  • reactive bone marrow edema
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41
Q

Dean Smith Liver Protocols

  • follow up HCCs
  • unknown/indeterminate hepatic lesions
A
  • follow up HCCs –> always biphasic liver, use early arterial phase to bring out HCC
  • unknown/indeterminate hepatic lesions –> always triphasic liver - need to do unenhanced phase to exlude calcifications
42
Q

Normal cervical length during pregnancy

A

> 2.5 cm

43
Q

Normal nuchal translucency

A

< 3mm

44
Q

Ileal diverticulum

A

may be complicated by

  • acute diverticulitis
  • bacterial overgrowth - B12 deficiency
45
Q

Renal involvement of the Wegener’s granulomatosis

A
  • Vasculitis of the kidneys
  • necrotizing granulomatous angiitis of medium sized vessels
  • striated nephrogram
46
Q

Colonic angiodysplasia

A
  • 2nd most common cause of colonic bleeding - most common cause is diverticulosis
  • most commonly on the right
  • cluster of dialted thin walled vessels in the mucosa
  • imaging
    • cluster of thin walled arteries during arterial phase
    • along anti-mesenteric border of the colon
    • progressive enhancement during PV and delayed phases
    • early draining vein, persisting into late venous phase
47
Q

Anatomy of hepatic venous drainage

A
  • right hepatic vein drains into IVC separately
  • middle and left hepatic veins often form a common trunk
  • caudate lobe - separate drainage directly into the IVC
    • via short hepatic veins
48
Q

What divides the liver into superior and inferior segments?

A

Right portal vein obliquely

and

Left portal vein transversely

49
Q

Caudate lobe

A
  • anterior to caudate lobe - fissure of the ligamentum enosum (remnant of ductus venosus)
  • posterior to the caudate lobe - IVC
  • arterial supply - both R and L hepatic arteries
  • venous drainage - small hepatic veins directly into the IVC
  • papillary process
    • a proces of the caudate lobe
    • may extend towards the lesser sac
    • may appear separate from the rest of the caudate lobe and simulate a mass or lymph node
50
Q

Which lobe is also called the quadrate lobe?

A

Segment IV

51
Q

Falciform ligament

vs

Ligamentum venosum

vs

Lesser omentum

vs

Greater omentum

A
  • Falciform ligament
    • contains ligament teres (remnant of umbilical vein)
    • separates into coronary ligaments - define “bare area” of the liver
    • separates segments II/III from IVa/IVb
  • Ligamentum venosum
    • contains remnant of ductus venosus; in fetal life shunts blood from umbilical vein to IVC
    • separates caudate lobe from left lobe
  • Lesser omentum
    • suspends the lesser curvature of the stomach & duodenal bulb from the inferior surface of the liver, attaching within the fissure of ligamentum venosum
    • made of
      • gastrohepatic ligament
      • heatoduodenal ligament
    • gastrohepatic ligament
      • contains gastric artery, coronary vein (portal HTN)
    • hepatoduodenal ligament
      • contains portal vein, hepatic artery, and CBD
      • anterior border of foramen of Winslow opens to lesser sac
  • Greater omentum
    • made of
    • gastrocolic ligament
    • gastrosplenic ligament
    • gastrophrenic ligament
52
Q

Hypervascular liver lesions best seen on

arterial phase of enhancement?

A
  • HCC
  • carcinoid mets
  • FNH
53
Q

Arterial

vs

Portal venous

vs

Delayed phase

for liver imaging

A
  • arterial - 20-25sec
  • portal venous - 60-70sec
  • delayed phase - 10-20 min
54
Q

Delayed phase shows which lesion best?

A
  • delayed contrast fill-in of a hemangioma
  • fibrotic tumors such as a cholangiocarcinoma
55
Q

Transient arterial perfusion abnormality

A
  • Increased hepatic arterial inflow and decreased portal venous inflow for whatever reason
    • 3rd inflow from systemic vein
    • portal vein thrombosis
    • etc
  • hyperenhancement during arterial phase
  • normalizes during portal venous phase
56
Q

Leptomeningeal carcinomatosis

A
  • dissemination of neoplasm into the subarachnoid space –> beneath the arachnoid and pia mater
  • direct extension - e.g., primary brain tumor
  • hematogenous dissemination - e.g., leukemia
  • most common cancers that cause leptomeningeal spread
    • breast
    • lung
    • melanoma
57
Q

The most common lesion of the spermatic cord is ?

The the most common solid tumor of the spermatic cord is ?

A
  • The most common lesion of the spermatic cord = varicocele
  • The most common solid tumor of the spermatic cord = lipoma
58
Q

Brown tumors

A
  • MRI features can be variable - solid, solid/cystic, and cystic
  • T2 susceptibility - due to presence of hemosiderin - therefore called “brown tumor”
    • very few osteolytic tumors result in T2 shortening
    • diagnostic of brown tumor
59
Q

Pulmonary AVMs

A
  • usually solitary (80%)
  • multiple PAVMs high associated with HHT
  • hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia/Osler Weber Rendu Syndrome
    • autosomoal dominant
    • M=F
    • epistaxis, telangiectasias, family member with syndrome
  • treatment criteria
    • treat > 2cm to avoid CNS or heart failure
    • treat any feeding artery > 3mm
    • screen family members
60
Q

Craniosynostosis

A
  • Craniosynostosis (from cranio, cranium; + syn, together; + ostosis relating to bone) is a condition in which one or more of the fibrous sutures in an infant skull prematurely fuses by turning into bone (ossification), thereby changing the growth pattern of the skull
  • Because the skull cannot expand perpendicular to the fused suture, it compensates by growing more in the direction parallel to the closed sutures
  • Craniosynostosis can occur as part of a syndrome or as an isolated defect. Nonsyndromic craniosynostosis is more common and often idiopathic.
  • Complications associated with craniosynostosis can be severe and include increased intracranial pressure, impaired cerebral blood flow, and inhibition of brain growth.
  • Moderate to severe cases of craniosynostosis are treated surgically. Techniques include cranial vault reshaping, distraction osteogenesis, and endoscopic craniectomy.
61
Q

Cranial sutures

A
62
Q

How to differentiate anterior vs posterior acetabulum?

A

Posterior acetabulum is steeper!

63
Q

Dropped gallstones and appendicoliths

A
  • most common location - Morison’s pouch and lower pelvis
  • may become symptomatic days even years after surgery
  • asymptomatic dropped stones can be left alone
  • always have high index of suspicion for radiolucent stones when dealing with recurrent peri-hepatic abscesses in a post-op patient
  • when symptomatic (e.g., recurrent abscesses), dropped stones must be removed to allow complete recovery
64
Q

DDx of calcified object in the pelvis

A
  • dropped surgical clips
  • dropped appendicoliths or gallstones
  • calcified epiploic appendages
  • auto-amputated ovary from prior remote ovarian torsion
  • calcified peritoneal carcinomatosis
  • calcified lymph nodes
65
Q

Biliary obstruction

  • obstruction without dilatation - early / low grade obstruction
  • dilatation without obstruction - prior obstruction, post-decompression
A

Biliary obstruction

  • obstruction without dilatation - early / low grade obstruction
  • dilatation without obstruction - prior obstruction, post-decompression
66
Q

DDx for focal/segmental biliary obstruction

A
  • with associated mass
    • HCC
    • cholangiocarcinoma
    • metastatic disease
  • without associated mass
    • PSC
    • recurrent pyogenic cholangitis
    • biliary injury (iatrogenic)
    • ischemia (post surgical anastamotic ischemia)
    • HIV cholangiopathy
67
Q

DDx of metastatic disease involving the biliary trees

A
  • most common - lymphoma or GI tract
  • less common - breast/lung/RCC/HCC
68
Q

Caroli disease

A
  • INTRA-hepatic saccular biliary dilatation
  • associated with PCKD
  • “central dot sign” - portal triad structures seen within the saccular dilatation
    • post gad T1 - enhancing
    • T2 - flow voids
69
Q

Todani classification

A
  • I - fusiform dilatation of extrahepatic CBD (most common)
  • II - true saccular diverticulum of intra- and extra- hepatic biliary ducts
  • III - choledochocele - focal protrusion of dilated segment of CBD into the duodenum
  • IV -
  • V - Caroli disease - cystic/saccular dilatation of intrahepatic biliary ducts
70
Q

What are extra-axillary LAD in breast cancer

A
  • internal mammary nodes
  • Rotter’s nodes
    • interpectoral nodes
    • between the pec major and pec minor muscles
  • supraclavicular nodes
71
Q

Twinkle artifact

A
  • rapidly fluctuating mixture of red and blue color
  • Doppler signals behind a strong specular reflector and may be seen behind coarse calcifications or biopsy clips
  • e.g.
  • surgical clips
  • coarse calcifications
  • kidney stones
72
Q

US features of malignant solid masses in breast

A
  • margins
    • spiculated
    • angular
    • ductal extension
    • branch pattern
    • microlobulation
  • echo-pattern
    • marked hypoechogenicity
    • shadowing**
    • calcification
  • shape
    • tall > wide
  • architectural distortion
  • skin thickening
73
Q

Breast cancer echogenicity

A

MOST breast cancers are very HYPOechoic, but with posterior acoustic shadowing!!!

Most echogenic masses are benign

  • lipoma
  • focal fibrosis
  • angiolipoma
74
Q

Mauriac Syndrome

A
  • glycogen hepatopathy in children
  • hepatomegaly
  • hyperattenuation of the liver parenchyma
  • type I DM
75
Q

Neurofibromatosis type II

A

MISME

  • multiple intracranial schwannomas
  • meningiomas
  • ependymomas
76
Q
A

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

bland soft tissue density encasing…

77
Q

Best project on CT cervical spine

to visualize the occipital condyles?

A

Coronal projection

78
Q

Adrenal adenoma

and dropout on fat sat MR images

A
  • adrenal adenoma (esp lipid-rich adenoma) drop out on FS images
  • but not all adrenal adenoma (esp lipid-poor adenoma) demonstrate dropout
    • can be further assessed with CT adrenal protocol to exam its washout
79
Q

MR images of fat

In-and-Out of Phase images

vs

India Ink Artifact

A
  • In-and-Out Phase Images
      • dropout –> microscopic fat
  • India Ink Artifact
      • India Ink –> macroscopic fat
    • must have water/fat interface
80
Q

Laundry Hamper

A

Laundry Hamper

81
Q

Most common cancer to metastasize to the breast?

A

Melanoma

82
Q

Breast masses with spiculated borders

A
  • breast carcinoma
  • fat necrosis
  • surgical scar
  • radial scar/complex sclerosing lesion
83
Q

Multiple rounded masses in the breast

A
  • cysts
  • fibroadenomas
  • multiple papillomas
  • metastases
84
Q

Dermatomyositis

A
  • calcinosis cutis
  • elevated lab values
    • adolase
    • transaminases
    • CPK
    • LDH
  • heliotrope rash - purple discoloration of the upper eyelids
  • Gottron papules - scaly plaques erupt over the knucles
  • proximal muscle inflammation and edema - high signal intensity on T2 and STIR
85
Q

Malignant calcifications

A
  • pleomorphic, often branching
  • high grade - camedonecrosis
    • linear
    • dot-dash
  • low grade - cribriform and micropapillary
    • punctate
    • granular
86
Q

Serendipity

Serendipitious

Serendipitiously

A

Occurrence and development of events by chance

in a happy or beneficial way

87
Q

Indications for breast MR

A
  • screening in high risk patient
    • life time risk > 20%
    • BRCA-1/-2 positive
    • other genetic syndromes, such as p53 mutations, etc
    • chest radiation in 10-30y/o
  • staging
    • extent of local disease
    • multifocality of lesions
  • post treatment followup
    • e.g., differentiate post lumpectomy changes vs recurrent cancer
  • axillary metastatic LAD with unknown origin
  • breast implant evaluation
88
Q

Breast MR findings of

benign vs malignant lesions

A
  • Benign
    • smooth margins
    • minimal or no enhancement
    • non-enhancing internal septations
    • diffuse patchy enhancement
    • persistent kientic curve
  • Malignant
    • spiculated or irregular borders
    • peripheral or rim enhancement
    • regional enhancement
    • ductal enhancement
    • plateau** or washout kinetic curves
  • NOTE: high intensity of T1 is suggestive of benign etiologies –> hemorrhagic cyst, complicated cyst, fresh fat necrosis, fatty hilum of an intramammary lymph node
89
Q

Density of breast

A
  • <25% glandular tissue
    • fatty
  • 25-50%
    • scattered fibroglandular densities
  • 50-75%
    • heterogeneously dense
    • which may obscure detection of small masses
  • > 75%
    • extremely dense
    • which lowers the sensitivity of mammography
90
Q

Differentiate

BI-RADS 3

vs

BI-RADS 4

A
  • BI-RADS3
    • probably benign (>98% benign)
    • recommendations –> short term follow up
      • q6/12 x 2
      • then q1yr x 3
  • BI-RADS4
    • suspicious
    • recommendations –> biopsy
91
Q

Good saying

“Given … and …, consideration should be given to performing a stereotactic-guided mammotome core biopsy to allow for deinitive histologic assessment.”

A

Good saying

“Given … and …, consideration should be given to performing a stereotactic-guided mammotome core biopsy to allow for deinitive histologic assessment.”

92
Q

Most common cause of male gynecomastia

A
  • pharmacologic elevation of estrogen levels
  • marijuana use
  • liver disease
93
Q

Appendiceal mucocele

A
  • Chronic cystic dilatation of appendiceal lumen by mucin accumulation
  • Mean age = 50y/o
  • F:M = 4:1
  • Any obstruction lesion can cause mucocele formation
    • scarring post appendicitis is most common cause
    • fecalith
    • appendiceal or cecal carcinoma
    • endometrioma
    • carcinoid
    • polyp
    • volvulus
  • Classification based on histology
    • Focal or diffuse mucosal hyperplasia (simple or retention mucocele)
    • Mucinous cystadenoma (benign neoplasm, most common type of mucocele)
    • Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma (less common than cystadenoma, increased risk of perforation)
  • Pseudomyxoma peritonei: due to rupture (more common with malignant mucocele), peritoneal cavity filled with mucus seedings
  • CT findings
    • Simple mucocele and mucinous cystadenoma: well-defined thin walled RLQ cystic mass, with wall or luminal calcification
    • Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma: solid and cystic components, large irregular mass, thickened enhancing nodular walls, calcifications in solid component
    • Pseudomyxoma peritonei: loculated ascites, scalloped surface of liver and spleen
  • MR findings
    • Mucocele with increased fluid content is T1 hypo and T2 hyper
    • Mucocele with increased mucin content is T1 and T2 hyper
  • Prognosis/treatment
    • Good prognosis for mucocele and cystadenoma
    • Poor prognosis for cystadenocarcinoma and pseudomyxoma peritonei
    • Surgical resection (right hemicolectomy)
94
Q
A

Hamartoma

fibroadenolipoma

“breast within a breast”

95
Q

When breast U/S is not indicated following a diagnostic mammogram?

A

When the lesion contains fat density - must be benign

96
Q

The positive biopsy rate that is published as a general guideline of what is appropriate in standard screening practice is about 30%.

A

The positive biopsy rate that is published as a general guideline of what is appropriate in standard screening practice is about 30%.

Thus, 2 of every 3 biopsies yield benign results.

This is for a screening population only.

97
Q
A

This patient had known ovarian carcinoma, and the biopsy showed metastatic ovarian carcinoma, but the differential diagnosis included a primary breast cancer.

The diffuse calcifications are more typical of the psammomatous calcifications seen with ovarian tumors. In fact, when primary breast tumors are the papillary type and have multiple calcifications, the pathologist may include ovarian metastasis in the differential after core biopsy.

These are not the typical pop-corn or coarse calcifications one sees with fibroadenomas. Phylloides tumors do not have typical calcifications. Papillomas do occasionally have diffuse calcifications, so this answer is possible, but less likely.

The calcifications really make the mass look echogenic on ultrasound. Hyperechogenicity is a benign ultrasound characteristic. It is important to remember that when a mass is suspicious by mammography, one cannot back away from a biopsy because of a benign ultrasound appearance.

98
Q
A

Calcified Hickman catheter cuff.

The cuff induces a fibrotic response in the subcutaneous tissues, and often remains behind when the catheter is finally removed after treatment. The cuff usually calcifies, and is often seen on mammography as a calcified tubular structure in the superficial tissue of the upper breast.

99
Q
A

This appearance of a complex cystic mass with mural nodules is classic for intracystic papillary carcinoma.

With rare exceptions, we do not typically see benign breast disease such as cysts and fibroadenomas in men.

100
Q

When finding DCIS in the breast from biopsy

what is the next step?

A

Breast MRI and consultation with surgical oncology and medical oncology are recommended. The standard of care in the United States is to treat DCIS as a cancer. MRI demonstrates the extent of disease better than mammography or ultrasound.

Surgery can be either lumpectomy to obtain clean margins followed by radiation therapy OR mastectomy without radiation therapy.