Random 11 Flashcards

1
Q

Whenever the fissure for the ligamentum venosum is seen, the portion of the liver seen anteriorly must be the lateral segment / segment II of the left lobe.

A

Whenever the fissure for the ligamentum venosum is seen, the portion of the liver seen anteriorly must be the lateral segment / segment II of the left lobe.

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2
Q
A
  1. CBD
  2. RIGHT hepatic artery
  3. portal vein
  4. IVC
  5. right renal artery
  6. right diaphragmatic crus
  7. cystic duct insertion
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3
Q
A
  1. portal vein
  2. proper hepatic artery
  3. CBD
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4
Q
A

Transverse and longitudinal views of

the mediastinum of the testis

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5
Q
A
  1. head of epididymis - normally isoechoic to the testis
  2. body of epididymis - normally hypoechoic to the testis
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6
Q

6 scrotal layers

A
  1. skin
  2. dartos fascia
  3. external spermatic fascia
  4. cremasteric muscle
  5. internal spermatic fascia
  6. tunica vaginalis
  7. tunica albuginea - testicular capsule
    • infolding of tunica albuginea becomes mediastinum
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7
Q
A
  1. left lobe of liver
  2. pancreas
  3. porto-splenic confluence
  4. aorta
  5. IVC
  6. SMA
  7. CBD
  8. gastroduodenal artery

The CBD travels in the most posterior aspect of the
pancreas. In fact, it often appears immediately anterior
to the IVC. The gastroduodenal artery arises from the
common hepatic artery and descends along the anterior
aspect of the head of the pancreas. These two structures
often appear as two small anechoic dots on transverse
views of the pancreatic head.

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8
Q
A
  1. left lobe of liver
  2. pancreas
  3. splenic vein
  4. aorta
  5. celiac axis
  6. SMA
  7. left renal vein
  8. gastric antrum
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9
Q

Which is closer to the pancreas,

SMV or SMA?

A
  • SMV is immediately adjacent to the head and uncinate process of the pancreas; SMV is to the right
  • SMA is separated from the pancreas by a ring of echogenic fibrofatty tissue; SMA is to the left
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10
Q

Grading of hydronephrosis

A
  • Grade 0 - normal sonogram
  • Grade 1 - minimal separation of the central echogenic renal sinus
  • Grade 2 - obvious distention of the renal collecting system
  • Grade 3 - marked distention of the renal collecting system with cortical thinning
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11
Q
A
  1. caudate lobe
  2. segment II/III
  3. segment IV
  • large arrow - ligament teres
  • small arrow - ligamentum venosum
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12
Q

DDx for focal decreased echogenicity in a tendon

A
  • tendinitis
  • partial tear
  • anisotropy
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13
Q
A
  1. rotator cuff
  2. cartilage
  3. humeral head
  4. anatomic neck
  5. greater tuberosity
  6. subdeltoid bursa
  7. deltoid muscle
  8. biceps tendon

The intra-articular portion of the biceps tendon
separates the subscapularis and the supraspinatus.

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14
Q

The caudate lobe drains into the vena cava via
small veins that are separate from the three main
hepatic veins. The caudate veins can function as
collaterals in patients with Budd–Chiari syndrome.

A

The caudate lobe drains into the vena cava via
small veins that are separate from the three main
hepatic veins. The caudate veins can function as
collaterals in patients with Budd–Chiari syndrome.

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15
Q
A
  1. right thyroid lobe
  2. thyroid isthmus
  3. carotid
  4. IJV
  5. trachea shadow
  6. strap muscles
  7. sternocleidomastoid muscle
  8. longus coli muscle

The thyroid is more echogenic than the overlying strap muscles and the sternocleidomastoid muscles.

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16
Q
A
  1. thyroid
  2. strap muscles
  3. sternocleidomastoid muscle
  4. cartilage rings of trachea

Normal parathyroid glands are too small to be seen on US.

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17
Q

What muscles contribute to the Achilles tendon?

In what part of the tendon does rupture normall occur?

A
  • The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles form the Achilles tendon
  • Complete Achilles tendon tears usually occur 2-6 cm proximal to its insertion
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18
Q

DDx for testicular hyperemia

A
  • orchitis
  • shortly following detorsion
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19
Q

How to clinically differentiate testicular tumor from focal orchitis?

A
  • testicular tumor - non-tender, palpable
  • focal orchitis - tender, non-palpable
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20
Q

Location of thyroglossal duct cyst

A
  • tract of the thyroglossal duct extends from foramen cecum (base of the tongue) –> hyoid bone –> thyroid isthmus –> pyramidal lobe
  • 15% - at the level of hyoid bone, midline
  • 65% - just below the hyoid bone, midline
  • 20% - suprahyoid, tend to be off midline
  • unlike cysts elsewhere, thyroglossal duct cysts are usually not anechoic
    • low-level internal echoes
    • due to hemorrhage, infection, crystals, or proteinaceous material
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21
Q
A
  • non-parenchymal structures, such as extremities and bowel
  • very narrow and sharply pointed systolic peak, rapid systolic deceleratio into diastole, and little, if any, late diastolic flow
  • short phase of diastolic reversal is due to elastic recoild of the artery
  • RI = PS-ED/PS close to 1 for high resistance
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22
Q
A

Ganglion cyst

  • most common cause of palpable cysts in the wrist and hand
  • most common in young women
  • most common location - dorsal wrist, superficial to the scapholunate joint
    • less common - volar wrist around flexor carpi radialis tendon or radial artery; along the flexor tendon sheaths of the fingers; arise from IP joint, usually due to degenerative OA
  • containing very thick, gelatinous liquid
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23
Q
A

Acute Appendicitis

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24
Q

DDx for multiple hypoechoic liver lesions

A

DDx for multiple hypoechoic liver lesions

  • metastases
  • lymphoma
  • multifocal HCC
  • FNH, adenomas
  • abscesses
  • sarcoidosis
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25
Q

Testicular cysts

A
  • when an intratesticular lesion meet criteria for a simple cyst, it requires no further evaluation
  • 10% prevalence
  • more common in elderly men
  • often occur near the mediastinum
  • associated with tubular ectasia of the rete testes - both conditions may be caused by outflow obstruction of the seminal fluid
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26
Q

Doppler Aliasing Artifact

A
  • aliasing is due to a basic principle of sampling theory = a periodic phenomenon must be sampled at twice its own frequency to be accurately reproduced
  • increase Doppler scale –> decrease aliasing
  • decrease probe frequency –> decrease aliasing
    • the frequency shift is proportional to the transmitted frequency
  • scan at a larger Doppler angle –> decrease aliasing
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27
Q

Post-vasectomy epididymal enlargement

A
  • most frequently visualized in the epididymal body
  • causes of obstruction
    • vasectomy
    • trauma
    • infection
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28
Q

Indications for thyroid biopsy

A

Indications for thyroid biopsy

  • nodules > 1.5cm
  • solid and hypoechoic
  • irregular margins
  • thick halo
  • microcalcifications
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29
Q

Junctional parenchymal defect

A

Junctional parenchymal defect

  • 20% of patients
  • more common on the right
  • triangular-shaped defect along the anterior renal surface at the junction of upper and middle third
  • communicating with renal sinus fat
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30
Q

Testicular seminoma

A
  • homogeneous, hypoechoic, hypervascular mass - typical for a seminoma
  • DDx
    • seminoma
    • infarct
    • contusion
    • hematoma
    • focal orchitis
    • focal atrophy
    • sarcoid
  • primary tseticular tumors are the most common malignancy in young adults
    • most common - germ cell tumors
      • most common - seminoma
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31
Q

Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

A

Kasabach-Merritt Syndrome

Platelet sequestration and destruction by hemangiomas - extremely rare cause of thrombocytopenia

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32
Q

Hemangiomas can change over time, even during real time scanning!

A

Hemangiomas will occasionally
change in appearance over time. Typically, they
will convert from hyperechoic to hypoechoic. Rarely,
they will change echogenicity over a matter of minutes
or even seconds. No other hepatic mass has been
observed to have this behavior.

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33
Q

Exact location of a Baker’s cyst

A

Baker’s cysts occur in the medial aspect of the
posterior knee. The cyst arises from fluid accumulation
in the bursa between the medial head of the
gastrocnemius and the semimembranosus tendon.

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34
Q

Upper limit of normal for peripheral intrahepatic ducts

is 2mm

A

Upper limit of normal for peripheral intrahepatic ducts

is 2mm

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35
Q

US appearance

gallstones

vs

sludge ball

vs

polyp

A
  • gallstone - echgoenic, mobile, shadowing
  • sludge ball - echogenic, mobile, non-shadowing
  • polyp - echogenic, non-mobile, non-shadowing
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36
Q

Epididymal cystic lesion

A
  • spermatocele - more common
  • epididymal cyst - contains serous fluid
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37
Q

Pathogenesis of alcohol pancreatitis

A

Alcohol causes precipitation of proteins that obstruct the ducts, and gallstones produce obstruction when they pass through the bile duct and lodge at the ampulla.

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38
Q

Varicocele

A

Varicoceles are dilated veins of the pampiniform
plexus. They are almost always caused by incompetent
valves within the internal spermatic vein.

Normal peritesticular veins should
be less than 2 or 3 mm in diameter. In my experience,
they seldom exceed 2 mm. On color Doppler scanning,
venous flow in varicoceles is generally too slow to be
detected with the patient at rest. Sometimes, this slow
flow is apparent on gray-scale imaging. With a Valsalva maneuver, there is augmented retrograde flow in the varicocele that is readily detectable on color Doppler imaging. This augmented flow usually lasts longer than 1 second.

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39
Q

Postcatheterization Pseudoaneurysm

A

Postcatheterization Pseudoaneurysm

  • The waveform exhibits pandiastolic flow reversal. The normal triphasic pattern has only a short period of flow reversal in early diastole.
  • “To-and-fro” waveform comes from the neck of a pseudoaneurysm and reflects flow into the aneurysm during systole and flow out of the aneurysm during diastole.
  • Color Doppler - “yin-yang” appearance
  • With grayscale imaging - often possible to see the collection expand during systole and contract during diastole.
  • DDx - hematoma, abscess, adenopathy, and hernia.
  • Rx - ultrasound-guided thrombin
    injection.
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40
Q

Replaced right hepatic artery

A
  • Normally right hepatic artery runs anterior to the portal vein
  • If there is an artery runs b/t the PV and IVC, it is most likely to be an anomalous right hepatic artery arising from the SMA
  • Incidence of replaced or accessory right hepatic artery = 20%
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41
Q

Column o Bertin

A

Column of Bertin

42
Q

Normal portal vein waveform

A

Normal portal vein waveform

  • normal portal vein velocity - 15-30 cm/sec
  • Although the liver is very close to the heart, the hepatic parenchyma and its sinusoidal network effectively isolate the portal vein from the pressure fluctuations in the right heart. For this reason, the portal vein waveform is much less pulsatile than other centrally located veins. However, the normal portal vein waveform usually does have some gentle pulsatility related to the cardiac cycle.
  • A good rule of thumb is that minimum flow velocities should not drop all the way to the baseline and certainly not below baseline.
43
Q

5-layer gut signature

A
  1. inner hyperechoic layer - interface reflection b/t luminal contents and superficial mucosa
  2. inner hypoechoic layer - deep mucosa and muscularis mucosa
  3. middle hyperechoic layer - submucosa
  4. outer hypoechoic layer - muscularis propria
  5. out hyperechoic layer - serosa/adventitia
44
Q
  • A transverse temporal bone fracture extends at a right angle to the long axis of the petrous pyramid. It tends to course through the internal auditory canal and cochlea predisposing the patient to facial and auditory nerve damage that may result in facial palsy and sensorineural hearing loss. The ossicular chain is typically not affected.
  • A longitudinal fracture is the most common type (80%) of temporal bone fractures. The fracture line runs parallel to the long axis of the petrous pyramid. It tends to course through the tympanic membrane and middle ear cavity predisposing the patient to ossicular chain disruption and conductive hearing loss.
A
  • A transverse temporal bone fracture extends at a right angle to the long axis of the petrous pyramid. It tends to course through the internal auditory canal and cochlea predisposing the patient to facial and auditory nerve damage that may result in facial palsy and sensorineural hearing loss. The ossicular chain is typically not affected.
  • A longitudinal fracture is the most common type (80%) of temporal bone fractures. The fracture line runs parallel to the long axis of the petrous pyramid. It tends to course through the tympanic membrane and middle ear cavity predisposing the patient to ossicular chain disruption and conductive hearing loss.
45
Q

Which is the most common site for post-traumatic ossicular chain disruption?

        Incudostapedial joint separation
A

The incus is the least stable ossicle because of its weak attachments to the malleus and stapes with the incudostapedial joint being the most common site of traumatic separation (82%). The malleus is anchored by the tensor tympani muscle and its tendon while the stapes is fastened by the stapedius muscle and its tendon, making dislocations of the malleus and stapes a rare occurrence. Fractures of the stapes crura are also uncommon.

46
Q

“This can also be re-assessed at the time of follow up US.”

A

“This can also be re-assessed at the time of follow up US.”

47
Q

DDx for

A
  • porcelain gallbladder - clean shadow
  • emphysematous cholecystitis - dirty shadow
    • as well as ring down artifact
    • only gas can give you ring down artifact! (maybe metal also)
  • can be differentiated with AXR or CT
48
Q

Porcelain gallbladder

vs

A gallbladder full of stones

A

When the calcification is diffuse and thick,
the superficial wall of the gallbladder is seen as a bright,
curvilinear reflector with an associated shadow.

Because of extensive attenuation of the sound pulse,
the back wall is not visible when the calcification is
thick.

If the calcification is thin, enough sound may
penetrate the superficial wall in order to image part of
or even the entire back wall. Such is the case in this
patient.

The ability to see the back wall is important
because that excludes a gallbladder full of stones from
the differential diagnosis.

49
Q

DDx for polypoid nonshadowing lesion in the gallbladder?

A
  • gallbladder polyp
  • gallbladder cancer
  • tumerfactive sludge
  • pus
  • blood clots

can use Doppler flow to distinguish

50
Q

Mangement for gallbladder polyps

A
  • <5mm - ignore
  • 5-10mm - follow up
  • >10mm - cholecystectomy
51
Q

Cholesterol polyps

A
  • usually pedunculated
  • most common gallbladder polyp
  • enlarged papillary fronds filled with lipid-laden macrophages - a form of gallbladder cholesterolosis
  • “ball on the wall” sign
  • does not appear to be associated with an increased incidence of cholesterol stones
52
Q

What cancer has the greatest propensity to metastasize to the gallbladder?

A

Melanoma

53
Q

Mirror artifact

A
  • air in the lung base and air in the trachea acts as an acoustic mirror
54
Q

What parameters to look at for significant carotid stenosis?

A
  • PSV > 125cm/s
    • can be confounded by other factors
    • high baseline PSV may be due to contralateral ICA or CCA occlusion
    • low baseline PSV may be due to aortic stenosis or a second more proximal stenosis
  • ICA/CCA > 2
55
Q

How to differentiate acute vs chronic hematomas?

A
  • Hyperacute - anechoic
  • Acute - hyperechoic
  • Subacute - complex cystic, partially liquefied
56
Q

Pancreatic tail is positioned below the splenic vein, as the splenic vein exits the splenic hilum.

Pancreatic tail is usually immediately anterior to the upper pole of the left kidney.

A

Pancreatic tail is positioned below the splenic vein, as the splenic vein exits the splenic hilum.

Pancreatic tail is usually immediately anterior to the upper pole of the left kidney.

57
Q

DDx for multifocal splenic lesions

A
  • metastases
  • lymphoma
  • sarcoidosis
  • abscesses
  • infarcts
58
Q

Vertebral artery

A

This abnormality is caused by stenosis of the
subclavian artery prior to the origin of the
vertebral artery.

59
Q

Morton’s neuroma

A

Morton’s neuroma

  • arise from plantar branch of the digital nerves
  • most often located in the 2nd and 3rd webspaces of the foot at the level of the metatarsal heads
  • more common in women
  • due to perineural fibrosis, likely related to repetitive trauma
  • pain and paresthesias with walking and marked tenderness to direct palpation
  • hypoechoic masses
60
Q

DDx for calcifed liver masses

A
  • metastases* (most common) - colorectal carcinoma most common primary, ovarian, gastric, RCC
  • infectious/inflammatory - granulomatous disease (TB, histo), echinococcus, healed pyogenic or amebic abscess
  • primary liver neoplasm - fibrolamellar HCC with calcification in the central scar
61
Q

Chronic calcific pancreatitis is caused by alcohol
abuse, not by gallstones.

A

Chronic calcific pancreatitis is a complication of prolonged
alcohol abuse. It is believed that alcohol predisposes to
the precipitation of proteins in the side branches of the
pancreatic duct. These proteins attract calcium carbonate
and form stones that obstruct the peripheral side
branches, resulting in an inflammatory response that
causes parenchymal damage and, ultimately, periductal
fibrosis. Side branch strictures and ectasia result from the
scarring and from the intraductal concretions. With more
advanced disease, the main pancreatic duct becomes
involved, with alternating strictures and dilatation.

62
Q

Up to one-third of patients with chronic pancreatitis
have a focal inflammatory mass in the pancreas. These
masses are usually located in the pancreatic head and
may cause dilatation of the common bile duct and the
pancreatic duct. Therefore, they can be difficult to
distinguish from pancreatic carcinoma. The presence of
calcifications strongly supports the diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. When calcifications are absent and especially when the mass is hypoechoic, ERCP and biopsy should be considered to further evaluate for possible.

A

Up to one-third of patients with chronic pancreatitis
have a focal inflammatory mass in the pancreas. These
masses are usually located in the pancreatic head and
may cause dilatation of the common bile duct and the
pancreatic duct. Therefore, they can be difficult to
distinguish from pancreatic carcinoma. The presence of
calcifications strongly supports the diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. When calcifications are absent and especially when the mass is hypoechoic, ERCP and biopsy should be considered to further evaluate for possible.

63
Q
A

Tenosynovitis

An effusion with thickening and increased vascularity
of the tendon sheath around the tendon.

64
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer

Psammoma bodies (microcalcifications)

A

Papillary thyroid cancer

Psammoma bodies (microcalcifications)

65
Q
A
  • Cysts of the tunica albuginea are entities distinct from intratesticular cysts.
  • Typically, they are very firm on physical examination and often are first recognized by the patient.
  • Since they arise from the tunica albuginea, they are always located at the periphery of the testis.
  • Although they occur in a range of sizes, they are most often less than 5 mm in diameter.
66
Q

The role of percutaneous biopsy is limited in diagnosing solid renal lesions. Most solid lesions will be rescted regardless.

Except:

A
  • if there is a prior history of lymphoma
  • or if there is history of another primary tumor likely metastasizing to the kidneys
67
Q

Medullary renal cancer is associated with

A

Sickle cell disease

68
Q

Hydatid cyst can have macroscopic fat in them

maybe due to communication with biliary ducts

A

Hydatid cyst can have macroscopic fat in them

maybe due to communication with biliary ducts

69
Q

Which side of the SI joints does sacroilitis starts to occur?

A

ILIAC side!!!

anteroinferior side of SI joints

and

Iliac side!

70
Q

Isolated gastric varices, what to think about?

A

Splenic vein thrombosis

71
Q

Most common cerebral arterial aneursym?

A
  • AComm - 30%
  • ICA at the PComm origin - 25%
  • MCA bifurcation - 20%
  • ICA bifurcation - 7.5%
  • Vertebrobasilar - 10%
72
Q

Upper limits of the yolk sac size

A

6mm

73
Q

Normal thickness of thymic tissue

A

Age < 20 years should not exceed 1.8 cm in maximum transverse (short axis) thickness.

If exceed this measurements? Thymic hyperplasia.

74
Q

How does blood flow within a recanalized umbilical vein?

A

The umbilical vein travels inferior to the liver along
the deep aspect of the abdominal wall toward the
umbilicus. It eventually connects to the inferior
epigastric veins, which then drain into the femoral–
iliac system. In some cases, the umbilical vein turns
superiorly to communicate with the superior
epigastric veins and the internal mammary veins.

The umbilical vein normally exits the liver and travels
along the anterior abdominal wall toward the
umbilicus. As it leaves the liver, it ramifies into paraumbilical
veins.

75
Q

Parathyroid adenomas are almost always medial to
the carotid artery. A nodule seen lateral to the
carotid is much more likely to be a lymph node.

The incidence of ectopic parathyroid nodules is
approximately 10%.

A

Parathyroid adenomas are almost always medial to
the carotid artery. A nodule seen lateral to the
carotid is much more likely to be a lymph node.

The incidence of ectopic parathyroid nodules is
approximately 10%.

76
Q

Based on the results of the
North American Symptomatic Carotid Endarterectomy
Trial study, patients with neurologic symptoms benefit
from carotid endarterectomy if the diameter stenosis
(determined from a carotid arteriogram) is 70% or greater.

A

> 50% stenosis - > 125cm/s

> 70% stenosis - > 230cm/s

77
Q

Hepatic target lesions

Hyperechoic centrally and hypoechoic peripheral rim

DDx

A

DDx for hepatic target lesions

Hyperechoic centrally with hypoechoic peripheral rim

DDx

  • metastases
  • HCC
  • lymphoma
  • abscess

The hypoechoic rim represents viable tumor. In fact, when performing percutaneous biopsy of these lesions, the highest yield is from the hypoechoic rim.

78
Q

Ring down artifact causes

A

Causes of ring down artifact

  • gas bubbles - msot common
  • metal (cholecystectomy clips)

If a complex fluid collection gives ring down artifact - abscess containg gas locules

If echogenic gallbladder wall gives shadowing and ring down - emphysematous cholecystitis

If ring down in the gallbladder fossa following cholecystectomy - surgical clips

79
Q

WES - wall echo shadow

vs

porcelain gallbladder

A

WES - thin hypoechoic wall superficially

80
Q

Hepatic abscesses can appear as solid lesions on US

Look for

target lesion appearance and

relative posterior acoustic enhancement

A

Hepatic abscesses can appear as solid lesions on US

Look for

target lesion appearance and

relative posterior acoustic enhancement

81
Q

Normal hepatic vein waveform

A

Normal hepatic vein waveform

During right atrial contraction there is a short period during which the blood flow in the hepatic vein actually reverses and heads back into the liver. This is seen as the short phase of flow above the baseline. As the right atrium relaxes (corresponding to ventricular systole), blood flow rapidly exits the liver and enters the atrium, producing flow below the baseline. As the atrium starts to fill up, the flow out of the liver slows, and the waveform starts to approach the baseline. Then the tricuspid valve opens (at the beginning of ventricular diastole), and the right atrium starts to decompress into the right ventricle. This leads to another period of rapid outflow from the liver into the right atrium, resulting in a second pulse of flow below the baseline. Finally, the right atrium starts to
contract again, and the process repeats itself. The end
result is a triphasic pattern with one retrograde pulse
above the baseline (during atrial contraction) and two
antegrade pulses below the baseline. The first antegrade pulse is usually the largest and occurs during ventricular systole. The second antegrade pulse is usually smaller and occurs during ventricular diastole.

82
Q

Thallium

vs

Sestamibi

Cardiac SPECT/CT

A
  • Thallium - taken up by cells via the Na/K ATPase pump (85% first pass extraction fraction) and is cleared predominantly by the kidneys
  • Sestamibi - lipophilic cationic agent, taken up by cells via passive diffusion (concentrated in the mitochondria) and cleared via the hepatobiliary route. Hence, in addition to the normal biodistribution of the radiotracer, there is also visualization of liver, gallbladder, and bowel
83
Q

Replaced left hepatic artery

A

The left hepatic artery occasionally arises from the
left gastric artery. In such cases, it enters the liver
through the fissure for the ligamentum venosum.

84
Q

How to reduce Doppler aliasing

Aliasing is a well-known artifact that occurs when the
Doppler sampling rate (i.e., the pulse repetition frequency
or PRF) is less than twice the Doppler frequency shift.

A

How to reduce Doppler aliasing

  • increase Doppler angle (to closer to 90 degrees)
  • increase Doppler scale
  • increase pulse repetition frequency
  • decrease transmitted frequency
85
Q

Is portal venous flow reversal more common

in right portal vein

or

left portal vein

A

Right portal vein

A common portal systemic collateral in patients
with portal hypertension is the recanalized umbilical
vein, which is supplied by the left portal vein.

A common finding in these patients is reversed
right portal flow that crosses the portal bifurcation
and contributes to antegrade left portal flow and
ultimately to flow into the umbilical vein. Thus, flow
reversal is more common in the right portal vein.

86
Q

When you see a lesion with “vascular flow”

on color Doppler, what do you do?

A

Confirm vascularity with spectural Doppler

87
Q

Islet vs adenocarcinoma

which one is more likely to contain calcifications?

A

Islet cell tumors are more likely to contain calcifications

88
Q

Resistive Index (RI)

vs

Pulsatility Index (PI)

A

RI = (PSV-EDV)/PSV

PI = (PSV-EDV)/mean velocity

89
Q

Testicular microlithiasis

A
  • calcifications within the seminiferous tubules
  • usually bilateral
  • controversial re: whether predisposes to cancer - can recommend annual US followup
  • classification
    • classic: > 5 microliths/view
    • limited: < 5 microliths
90
Q

Multilocular cystic nephroma

A
  • a benign renal neoplasm.
  • consists of multiple cystic spaces that do not communicate with each other or with the renal collecting system. The cysts are epithelium lined and separated by fibrous septations. The lesion is usually well encapsulated.
  • demographics:
    • young boys (typically 3 months to 4 years of age)
    • adult women (older than age 30 years)
  • surgical resection due to overlapping appearance with cystic RCC
91
Q

Significance of this finding?

A

Spectral broadening

  • can be a sign of disordered or turbulent blood flow
  • but can be typical of small parenchymal vessels
    • This difference is at least
      partially related to the relative size of the vessel and the size of the sample volume. In a small vessel, the slow flow at the edge of the vessel wall and the faster flow in the center of the lumen are being sampled simultaneously.
      In a larger vessel, only the faster flow in the
      center is being sampled. In addition to large sample volumes, high Doppler gain and high power outputs can also produce spectral broadening in normal vessels.
92
Q

Tiisue Harmonic Imaging

THI

A

With current harmonic imaging technology, only the second
harmonic, which is twice the fundamental frequency, is
used.

In this case, the image was created by transmitting
at 1.6 MHz and analyzing the 3.2-MHz harmonic
signal after the 1.6-MHz echoes were filtered out.
Because the harmonic signal is a higher frequency,
axial resolution improves with harmonic imaging.
Additionally, the harmonics allow for better focusing,
which also improves lateral resolution.

93
Q

What does this indicate?

A
  • in the proper clincial setting, it indicates a proximal arterial stenosis
    *
94
Q

GIST

A
  • 10-30% malignant
  • C-KIT positive
  • may have cystic necrosis, hemorrhage, calcifications
  • the tumors grow in an exophytic fashion and this can make if difficult to determine
    where the lesion arises. This growth pattern is particularly true of large lesions. Therefore, it is important to include GIST in the differential diagnosis of large intra-abdominal masses that do not arise from a defined solid organ.
95
Q
  • Palpable intratesticular masses are usually malignant
  • Palpable extratesticular masses are usually benign
  • Most common benign intratesticular neoplasm - stromal tumor (such as Leydig cell tumors)
  • Most common palpable extratesticular lesion - spermatocele
A
  • Palpable intratesticular masses are usually malignant
  • Palpable extratesticular masses are usually benign
  • Most common benign intratesticular neoplasm - stromal tumor (such as Leydig cell tumors)
  • Most common palpable extratesticular lesion - spermatocele
  • Most common extratesticular scrotal neoplasm - adenomatoid tumor
96
Q

Adenomatoid tumor

A
  • benign
  • most common location - epididymis
  • homogeneous and small; may be hypo-, iso-, or hyper-echoic to the testis
  • DDx
    • inflammatory mass
    • post-inflammatory scar
    • sperm granuloma
97
Q

Bladder diverticulum

  • Which population?
  • Complications?
  • Further imaging?
A

Bladder diverticulum

  • more common in older male (BPH)
  • complicatiosn - stasis, stone, infection, cancer
  • further imaging - often associated with bladder outlet obstruction, therefore post void residual is indicated
98
Q

Thyroid follicular adenoma/carcinoma

A
  • solid, homogeneous
  • features: a thin, uniform, hypoechoic halo surrounding the tumor
99
Q
A

FNH

  • a collection of vessels arranged in a spokewheel configuration.
  • Central calcification suggests the diagnosis of fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma and would prompt a more aggressive approach.
  • NM study - sulfur colloid scan - Due to the concentration of Kupffer cells, approximately 60% of FNHs are either
    more intense or isointense to adjacent liver.
100
Q
A

Peyronie’s disease

Peyronie’s disease is fibrosis of the tunica albuginea of
the corpora cavernosa.