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bds 2 > random msa questions > Flashcards

random msa questions Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main routes of metastatic spread of cancer?

A
  • lymphatic
  • haematogenous
  • transcoelomic
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2
Q

give one examples of a cancer which spreads?

A

colon cancer metastasises to liver

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3
Q

name 2 clinical classifications of tumours:

A
  • benign

- malignant

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4
Q

name two histological classifications of tumours:

A
  • epithelial

- mesenchyme

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5
Q

what are 5 features of benign tumours?

A
  1. growth is slow
  2. growth is non-invasive
  3. benign tumours do not spread
  4. do not recur when removed
  5. tumour margins are not well defined
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6
Q

name 5 features of malignant tumours:

A
  1. growth is rapid
  2. growth is invasive (destroys tissue)
  3. tumour spreads
  4. recurrence after excision
  5. tumour margins are well defined
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7
Q

name two benign tumours are their tissue of origin:

A
  • lipoma = fat tissue

- chondroma = cartilage

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8
Q

name two malignant tumours and their tissue of origin:

A
  • carcinoma = epithelial cells

- lymphoma = bone marrow/blood forming cell

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9
Q

name 4 demographic factors (characteristics of a population, expressed statistically):

A
  • Age
  • Sex/gender
  • employment status
  • postcode
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10
Q

briefly describe the Ingestion phase of feeding:

A
  • movement of food from external environment to internal environment
  • accomplished by biting and oral seal
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11
Q

briefly describe stage on of transport in the feeding cycle:

A

food is gathered on tongue tip and moved to the level of the posterior teeth

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12
Q

briefly describe the mechanical processing phase of the feeding cycle:

A
  • solid foods are broken down and mixed with saliva before swallowing
  • moist solid foods need to have fluid removed before transport & swallowing
  • food is chewed with premolars and molars
  • soft foods are squashed against the hard palate
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13
Q

what occurs in stage two of transport during feeding?

A
  • bolus moved posteriorly by ‘squeeze back’ mechanism
  • solid foods moved through fauces to pharyngeal surface of tongue
  • ‘seal’ holds liquids at pillars of fauces
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14
Q

what occurs during the swallowing pharyngeal phase of the feeding cycle?

A
  • involuntary movements push bolus through pharynx into oesophagus
  • epiglottis seals of larynx preventing food entering the respiratory tract
  • UOS relaxes, to allow bolus into the oesophagus and then contracts to counteract backflow
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15
Q

why might ditching occur in an amalgam restoration?

A
  • material is repeatedly stressed for long periods at low stress levels: below elastic limit
  • it may flow resulting in permanent deformation
  • amalgam then sits proud of surface due to this flow, and is vulnerable to fracture
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16
Q

what can a dentist do, in terms of cavity prep, to avoid ditching in an amalgam restoration?

A
  • remove all caries
  • use acid etch and bond
  • use a lining material
  • lining material helps spread forces down the long axis of the tooth, instead of placing stress on the interface between tooth & restoration
  • this reduced stress on the amalgam therefor reducing creep & therefor reducing ditching
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17
Q

what are examples of 4 factors that may contribute to secondary caries in an amalgam restoration?

A
  • microleakage due to no chemical bond between restoration and tooth
  • fracture of enamel at margins causing ditching has compromised any seal that was present at the restoration/tooth interface
  • poor oral hygiene will prevent removal of plaque
  • there is no lining material underlying the amalgam, meaning the dentine has no protection from bacteria and endotoxins
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18
Q

what are 5 risk factors that make someone a high caries risk?

A
  • poor oral hygiene
  • poor diet
  • xerostomia
  • frequency of sugar intake
  • susceptible tooth surface (tight contacts, receded gingiva)
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19
Q

how is cystic fibrosis acquired?

A

it is an inherited disorder

  • CFTR gene - chromosome 7
  • recessive gene
  • both parents must have it
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20
Q

what are the treatment options for a patient suffering with cystic fibrosis?

A
  • physiotherapy
  • exercise
  • medication
  • transplantation
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21
Q

how does cystic fibrosis affect the body?

A
  • inherited gene defect in cell chloride channels
  • produces excess sticky mucous
  • lungs are congested
  • malabsorption of nutrients in the pancreas
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22
Q

how can you test for cystic fibrosis?

A
  • perinatal testing (all children are now screened at birth)

- sweat test (measures salt content of sweat which is higher in CF patients)

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23
Q

what are the three main stages in forming a blood clot?

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • platelet plug & aggregation
  • fibrinogen to fibrin
24
Q

define bioavailability:

A

fraction of an administered dose of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation and is available for clinical effect

25
Q

describe first past metabolism:

A
  • concentration of drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation
  • fraction of the drug is lost during the process of absorption in the gut and metabolism in the liver
26
Q

what are 2 disadvantages of administering drugs via the oral route?

A
  • first pass metabolism occurs

- risk of drug causing gastric irritation & ulceration (NSAIDs eg.)

27
Q

what are the 9 SICPs?

A
  • patient placement
  • safe waste disposal
  • safe handling of uniform
  • cleanliness of environment
  • cleanliness of care
  • prevention of exposure to BBV
  • management of bodily fluid spillages
  • PPE
  • hand hygiene
28
Q

what are the 6 links in the chain of infection?

A
  • infection agent
  • reservoir
  • portal of exit
  • mode of transmission
  • portal of entry
  • susceptible host
29
Q

what are the 7 modes of transmission?

A
  • direct
  • indirect
  • inhalation
  • ingestion
  • inoculation
  • intercourse
  • mother to infant
30
Q

what are the 5 moments for hand hygiene in a clinical environment?

A
  • before touching a patient
  • before a clean/aseptic procedure
  • after bodily fluid exposure risk
  • after touching the patient
  • after touching patient surroundings
31
Q

“Washing with an alcohol based gel when hands are not visibly soiled” - is this an example of social or hygienic hand hygiene?

A
  • social hand hygiene
32
Q

what is ‘hygienic’ hand hygiene?

A

washing with an antimicrobial scrub, or washing with hot water and soap followed by an alcohol based gel

33
Q

in a clinical environment, when would it not be appropriate to use an alcohol based gel to wash your hands?

A
  • if hands are visibly soiled
  • C. Difficile risk
  • if patient has a GI infection
34
Q

when should sharps containers be disposed of?

A

3/4 full

35
Q

what happens to sharps when they are taken away?

A

they are taken for incineration

36
Q

where should sharps boxes be placed within the clinical environment?

A
  • out of reach of children

- close enough to operator for each reach when disposing of sharps

37
Q

what must you do in the events of a sharps injury?

A
  • stop any dental procedures
  • squeeze to encourage bleeding
  • run the injury under lukewarm water
  • wash thoroughly with soap and water but do not scrub
  • cover site with waterproof dressing
  • complete incident report form & report to occupational health
38
Q

what are the three methods of decontamination?

A
  • cleaning
  • disinfection
  • sterilisation
39
Q

what are some advantages of using the hall technique?

A
  • non-invasive and quick
  • required no LA, requires no tooth prep
  • requires no tooth prep
40
Q

what instruments are required when performing the hall technique?

A
  • mirror
  • straight probe
  • excavator
  • flat plastic
  • cotton wool
  • gauze for airway
  • band forming pliers
41
Q

what teeth are suitable for the hall technique?

A

primary molars (Es and Ds)

42
Q

what are the indications for use of the hall technique?

A
  • no radiographic sign of pulpal involvement

- sufficient amount of sound tooth tissue

43
Q

what are the components of stainless steel?

A
  • iron
  • carbon
  • chromium = corrosion resistance
  • nickel = lowers critical temperature
44
Q

what are the advantages of using stainless steel?

A
  • high proportional limit
  • high tensile strength
  • ability to be hardened by heat treatments
45
Q

what is a disadvantage of using stainless steel?

A

susceptible to corrosion

46
Q

list four emergency drugs ESSENTIAL for every dental practise?

A
  • GTN spray
  • adrenaline
  • oral glucose/glucagon
  • salbutamol inhaler
47
Q

list four pieces of emergency pieces of equipment essential for every dental practise:

A
  • oxygen face mask & tubing
  • external defibrillator
  • pulse oximeter
  • blood glucose measurement device
48
Q

where is LA deposited during an IAN block?

A

deposited around the nerve trunk

49
Q

what is the pterygomandibular raphe?

A

Ligamentous (fibrous) band attached to the hamulus of the medial pterygoid muscle and the mylohyoid

50
Q

which structures enter the mandible at the mandibular foramen?

A
  • inferior alveolar nerve

- inferior alveolar artery

51
Q

sometimes during an IAN block, advancing the needle may encounter the lingual of the mandible. What is this?

A
  • prominent bony ridge at the entrance to the mandibular canal
  • attaches the sphenomandibular ligament
52
Q

where is LA deposited during infiltartion? (in relation to nerve)

A

deposited around terminal branches of nerve

53
Q

outline briefly, two drawbacks of CoCr?

A
  • low ductility (doesnt have a great ability to deform under stress and has a very high Young’s Modulus; clasps are not flexible & cannot fit in undercuts >0.25mm)
  • CoCr is difficult to adjust once made, requires precision casting when mad as it work hardens rapidly
  • aesthetics ugly
54
Q

what are advantages of light cured materials?

A
  • extended working time
  • less finishing
  • less waste
  • less porosity
55
Q

name a few criticisms for using flowable composite:

A
  • reduced mechanical properties
  • lower availability of shades
  • more difficult to sculpt
  • discolouration over time

bds 2 (38 decks)

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