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bds 2 > random mcq questions > Flashcards

random mcq questions Flashcards

1
Q

what decreases the gypsum setting reaction?

A

potassium sulphate

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2
Q

what speeds up the GI setting reaction?

A

tartaric acid

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3
Q

sinners circle

A

time, temperature, mechanicals, chemicasl;

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4
Q

which bacteria causes pseudomembranous collitis?

A

c.diff

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5
Q

what is produced in bone marrow?

A

erythrocytes

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6
Q

Starling’s Law

A

Increases in venous return cause the heart’s chambers to fill with more blood, which then causes the heart to stretch and contract more forcefully, and pump more blood out to the rest of the body.

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7
Q

What is Koch’s Postulate

A

The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms.

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8
Q

What type of bonding is GI to tooth surface?

A

ionic

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9
Q

what cystic fibrosis enzymes are replaced?

A

pancreatic = lipase, protease, amylase

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10
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A

insulin deficiency

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11
Q

bioavailability is?

A

is the fraction (%) of an administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation after the first pass metabolism

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12
Q

amalgam thermal coefficient expansion?

A

22-28

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13
Q

what can you get out of stress/strain graph?

A

Stress strain curves visually display the material’s deformation in response to a tensile, compressive, or torsional load

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14
Q

what is measured force per unit?

A

stress

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15
Q

highest force in teeth?

A

largest root surface in molars

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16
Q

what is confidence intervals in stats?

A

the mean of your estimate plus and minus the variation in that estimate

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17
Q

hiv cd4 count?

A

over 500 is good
healthy is 1500-500

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18
Q

what causes chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

philadelphia chromosome

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19
Q

trismus is caused by injecting which muscle?

A

medial pterygoid

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20
Q

Which part doesn’t play a significant role in protecting larynx during swallowing

A

soft palate

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21
Q

when does full masticatory function develops?

A

2 years

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22
Q

Number of Words understood by 1 year old

A

50 words

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23
Q

Colon cancer metastasis organ

A

liver

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24
Q

Which sugar causes highest caries

A

sucrose

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25
Q

Medium grit bur band colour

A

blue

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26
Q

Structure used in voice articulation

A

tongue

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26
Q

Structure used in voice articulation

A

tongue

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27
Q

What percentage of adult population in western world with perio disease

A

10-15

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28
Q

Hep b transmission

A

1 in 3

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29
Q

First thing you’d do when setting a treatment plan?

A

establish baseline

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30
Q

What dental treatment would you not do for haemophilia 8?

A

IDB

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31
Q

HIV is an example of

A

retrovirus

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32
Q

Random sample is drawn out target population. what is not true?

A

as sample size increases the variability of the sample man increases

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33
Q

what is not an etiological factor for dental anxiety?

A

high pain threshold

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34
Q

describe pattern of atrial fibrillation

A

irregular HR at irregular pattern

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35
Q

the reed sternberg cell is pathogenic of

A

hodgkin lymphoma

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36
Q

oral pigmentation can be associated with some forms of non smoking related lung cancers. this is because

A

ACTH is secreted by lung cancers

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37
Q

what portion of cancer are carcinomas?

A

90%

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38
Q

an indication for a primary molar pulpotomy

A

primary molar that is tender to percussion

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39
Q

sirs meaning

A

systemic inflammatory response syndrome

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40
Q

inflammatory cells cause breakdown of tissue

A

MMP

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41
Q

What is support in dentures?

A

The resistance to lifting away from the mucosa

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42
Q

What is retention?

A

The resistance to displacement of the denture away from the tissue - e.g. - how easily it moves when eating

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43
Q

what is stability

A

The resistance to horizontal (lateral) movement of the denture

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44
Q

what are rests?

A

Components that provide support for the denture from vertical opposing forces

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45
Q

what is direct retention?

A

Resistance to VERTICAL displacement of the denture

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46
Q

What is indirect retention?

A

Resistance to ROTATIONAL displacement of the denture

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47
Q

Which of the following branches of the maxillary nerve innervates the anterior part of the hard palate immediately behind the central and lateral incisors?

A

nasopalatine nerve

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48
Q

What drug is most likely to be given to someone having an acute myocardial infarction FIRST?

A

aspirin

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49
Q

what is reciprocation

A

it’s is an opposing element to the clasp, which prevents pressure from the clasp leading to tooth movement

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50
Q

Which of the following routes of drug administration is subject to first pass metabolism?

A

oral

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51
Q

In the mandibular arch, where is the primate space found?

A

mesial to canines

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52
Q

Where do you find the fovea palatinae

A

posterior to the vibrating line

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53
Q

Which direct restorative material relies on chelation between carboxyl groups and the calcium in the tooth as a major component of the bonding mechanism?

A

GI

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54
Q

What factor does not affect the wear of composite

A

tensile strength

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55
Q

Which classification of support could be considered when designing a partial denture incorporating a free-end saddle

A

craddock class 3

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56
Q

Agar and alginate are both

A

hydrocolloids

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57
Q

At what depth does the first black band on a BPE probe start

A

3.5 mm

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58
Q

What is the normal order of eruption of primary teeth

A

a b d c e

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58
Q

What is the normal order of eruption of primary teeth

A

a b d c e

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59
Q

What is the minimum length of a CoCr occlusally approaching clasp

A

15 mm

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60
Q

The RPI is a stress relieving clasp system that works by

A

eliminating axial rotation (torque) from the distal of the abutment tooth

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61
Q

What is the most appropriate material to place directly over a non-carious exposure in an asymptomatic tooth?

A

non-setting calcium hydroxide

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62
Q

A hybrid composite resin material is one that

A

Has quartz filler particles that range in diameter from small (<0.1um) to large (1 to 10um)

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63
Q

When a patient sues a dentist for compensation because of harm that results from clinical negligence, there are sometimes causes involving contributory negligence.

Contributory negligence applies when:

A

The patient’s own actions of a neglectful nature also contributed to the harm

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64
Q

Which of the following materials in an irreversible hydrocolloid?

A

alginate

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65
Q

What type of material is Impregum?

A

polyether

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66
Q

In which situation is it most appropriate to use impression compound with an alginate wash to take a master impression?

A

Kennedy Class I with 6 missing teeth

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67
Q

Which of the following should be checked/confirmed prior to inserting the trial cobalt chromium framework in the patients mouth?

A

Patient Name on Work tick/ cast matches that of your patient

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68
Q

What is the most likely cause of the framework fitting an undamaged cast but not the patient?

A

Faulty/distorted impression

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69
Q

Cobalt Chromium Alloy has a melting tempreature of approximately:

A

1400-1500 degrees centigrade

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70
Q

The recommended minimum casting thickness for cobalt chromium frameworks is:

A

0.5 mm

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71
Q

Conventional cobalt chromium framework construction requires a refractory model to be produced, what material is this refractory model made from?

A

Phosphate bonded investment material

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72
Q

Conventional cobalt chromium framework construction requires a refractory model to be produced, what material is this refractory model made from?

A

Phosphate bonded investment material

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73
Q

What do you use to check for premature occlusal contacts when delivering finished dentures?

A

thin articulating paper

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74
Q

You should check the fit surface of a finished denture with a gloved finger to identify:

A

acrylic blebs and pearls

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75
Q

Which of the following statements about non-carious tooth surface loss is correct:

A

Erosion is tooth surface loss by non-bacterial chemical dissolution

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76
Q

Which of the following statements regarding surveying of casts for denture design is true:

A

It can be used to determine undercuts with regard to the path of insertion of a denture

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77
Q

Which statement regarding Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivitis is false:

A

it is characterised by chronic onset

A. It is caused by Gram –ve anaerobic bacteria
B. It affects smokers more than non-smokers
C. It causes necrosis of interdental papillae

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78
Q

What pressure should be used when probing for a BPE:

A

25

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79
Q

Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest quantity in human serum

A

Ig G

g for greatest

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80
Q

Which statement regarding the differences between primary and permanent molars is correct:

A

Deciduous molars have thinner enamel, a more bulbous crown and larger pulp horns than permanent molars

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81
Q

What does an enamel bonding agent consist of:

A

unfilled resin

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82
Q

Which of the following is true about a dentine conditioner, such as phosphoric acid:

A

it removes smear layer

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83
Q

Which of the statements is true about a dentine primer:

A

It increases the surface energy (wets) dentine

Dentine primer allows the subsequent resin layer in the adhesive to flow over or “wet” the etched dentine surface. (“wetting” the surface is not the same as having a wet/moist surface. Remembers that the resin in composite is hydrophobic and so a moist surface would not improve the bond.)
The conditioner (phosphoric acid) conditions dentine/removes the smear layer/ etches the dentine.

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84
Q

What happens to a zinc-containing low copper amalgam if moisture gets into it:

A

the alloy expands

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85
Q

Which of these is the gamma phase of amalgam

A

Ag3Sn

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86
Q

Which is true of a hybrid composite:

A

It contains both large and small filler particles

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87
Q

What is an important property of a posterior composite:

A

heavily filled

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88
Q

Identify the incorrect statement regarding restorations to primary teeth:

A

Occlusal cavities must have a depth no greater then 2.5mm

it is 1.5 mm

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89
Q

Which of these is a reason for giving primary molar pulp therapy instead of tooth extraction:

A

Teeth needed as space maintainers to prevent crowing in permanent dentition

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90
Q

Which of these is false regarding pulpotomies and pulpectomies in primary teeth:

A

Pulpotomies are recommended where there is irreversible pulpitis and exposure of a severely hyperaemic pulp

right: Pulpotomies indicated where there are no signs of irreversible pulpitis and bleeding can be arrested by using ferric sulphate.

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91
Q

When removing radicular pulp during a pulpectomy, what is the closest distance that files should come to the apex:

A

2 mm

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92
Q

What is the maximum safe dose of lignocaine that can be used when injecting with 2% solution with 1:80 000 adrenaline:

A

4.4 mg/kg

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93
Q

Which of these statements is false:

A

Apexogenesis and apexification are the same thing

Apexogenesis is the stimulation of complete root formation and closure of the end of the root in a traumatized tooth with a healthy pulp.
Apexification is inducing a calcified barrier at the apex of a non-vital tooth with incomplete root formation.

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94
Q

In the primary dentition, lower teeth erupt before uppers with the exception of:

A

the exception is the upper central incisors, which usually erupt before the lower central incisors

95
Q

Which primary tooth erupts at around 18 months

A

canine

96
Q

Following eruption, how long does it take root completion to occur in a permanent tooth

A

1 year

97
Q

A radiographic report states that a patient has “generalised severe horizontal bone loss”. Which of these statements is false:

A

Bone loss is equivalent to less than 30% of root length

98
Q

In periodontitis, how much of the white cell infiltrate consists of plasma cells:

A

> 50%

99
Q

Which of these are the most destructive periodontal pathogens:

A

P. Gingivalis
T. Denticola
B. Forsythus

100
Q

At what position would a right-handed operator sit to scale the buccal surfaces of 44-48, buccal surfaces of 14-18, and lingual surfaces of 34-38:

A

9 o’clock

101
Q

Which is the least vasodilatory anaesthetic used in dentistry:

A

mepyvicaine

102
Q

Which of these is false:

A

Using adrenaline carries no risks in patients with cardiovascular disease, hyperthyroidism, phaeochromocytomas or patients taking certain drugs

103
Q

what is incorrect about IDB

A

Inferior alveolar block injections only anaesthetise molars and second premolars

IAB injections anaesthetic pulps of all teeth on that side. There may be incomplete anaesthesia in central incisors and sometimes there is crossover of nerve supply to these teeth.
The crossover issue also applies to mental nerve blocks, where premolars, canines and lateral incisors will be anaesthetised, but there may be incomplete anaesthesia of centrals.

104
Q

Which of these is an advantage of a gold inlay or onlay:

A

corrosion resistant

105
Q

Which constituent of composite resins facilitates a good bond between the glass filler particles and the resin:

A

silane coupling agent

106
Q

In composite resins, adding filler particles to the resin has which effect:

A

decreases polymerisation shrinkage

107
Q

Which of these ions is not released in the glass ionomer setting reaction:

A

magnesium

but sodium, fluoride, calcium and aluminium are

108
Q

“A material’s ability to resist scratching or surface indentation” describes which property:

A

hardness

109
Q

Which of these statements is true of amalgam:

A

Factors decreasing strength include corrosion, undermixing, too high Hg content, low condensation pressure and slow rate of packing

110
Q

Syneresis and imbibition may occur with which impression material:

A

alginate

111
Q

Which of these is true of elastomers compared to hydrocolloid:

A

A. They are more accurate
B. They are more tear resistant
C. They have better dimensional stability

112
Q

Which impression material requires a platinum catalyst for setting and has polydimethylsiloxane in both catalyst and base pastes:

A

addition silicone

113
Q

true statements about metals

A

A. CoCr has the highest % shrinkage of partial denture alloys
B. Type IV gold is the most ductile partial denture alloy
C. CoCr is the hardest partial denture alloy and has the highest Young’s Modulus
D. Stainless steel has the highest UTS & PL

114
Q

which feature is visible under microscope and arises from the incremental deposition of dentine?

A

lines of Von Ebner

115
Q

which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel

A

enamel spindles

115
Q

which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel

A

enamel spindles

116
Q

which type of dentine is translucent dentine

A

intra tubular (peritubular) dentine

117
Q

which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel

A

enamel spindles

117
Q

which feature rises from odontoblast processes extending into enamel

A

enamel spindles

118
Q

which type of dentine is translucent dentine

A

intratubular (peritubular) dentine

119
Q

the cells which form cementum are derived from which of the following tissues and cells

A

from cementoblasts that came from dental follicle

120
Q

which periodontal fibre groups originate in a cervical region of a tooth and extends to the ID surface of adjacent teeth

A

trans-septal

121
Q

the epithelial attachment where the junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth surface is formed by which type of junction?

A

hemidesmosomes

122
Q

which characteristic applies to cellular cementum

A

present on the apex of the root

123
Q

physiological mesial drift of permanent molar teeth will result in which one of the following clinical features?

A

broadening of contact points

124
Q

when do you expect roots of primary teeth to be complete?

A

4 years

125
Q

when would you expect upper permanent canine to erupt?

A

12 years

126
Q

cleft lip is

A

failure of fusion maxillary and medial nasal processes

127
Q

which bone is formed from meckel’s cartilage

A

malleus and incus

128
Q

difficulty swallowing

A

dysphagia

129
Q

which condition is less likely to impact masticatory efficiency

A

loss of upper incisor and canine teeth

130
Q

metric suture is

A

between two frontal bones

131
Q

which two muscles are attached to pterygomandibular raphe

A

buccinator and superior constrictor

132
Q

inflammatory response in a pulp

A

release of neuropeptides

133
Q

which cells associates with an erupting tooth will give rise to the junctional epithelium

A

reduced enamel epithelium

134
Q

fillers are added to composite resin to increase

A

wear resistance

135
Q

alginate setting time is controlled by

A

the amount of sodium phosphate

136
Q

typical features of reversible pulpitis

A

pain to cold, lasts a short time
hydrodynamic expression- microleakage (A-fibres)
no change in pulp blood flow

137
Q

irreversible pulpits

A

spontaneous pain
negative to cold, pain to hot (C-fibres)
increase in pulpal blood flow

138
Q

The synthesis of this clotting factor is not inhibited by warfarin.

A

8

but factors 2,7,9,10 and proteins C and S

139
Q

Left side heart failure:

A

Dyspnoea: shortness of breath (increase of BP within lungs will cause fluid to enter into alveolar system preventing alveoli from moving oxygen into blood) (this is made worse when patient is lying flat)
Orthopnea: the sensation of breathlessness in the recumbent position, relieved by sitting or standing.
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a sensation of shortness of breath that awakens the patient, often after 1 or 2 hours of sleep, and is usually relieved in the upright position.
Tachycardia: fast heart
Low BP

140
Q

Right side heart failure

A

Ascites: swelling in abdominal cavity
JVP: jugular venous pressure (if raised can see pulse in neck)
Poor GI absorption: excess fluid arround tract inhibits absorption
Liver swelling

141
Q

Which of the following Hepatitis viruses are bloodborne:

A

B, C, D

142
Q

a palpable exam is not possible on what two muscles

A

Medial pterygoid and Lateral pterygoid

143
Q

How is grading measaured in periodontal treatment?

A

Percentage bone loss / Age

144
Q

Which type of dental material has the highest amount of compressive strength?`

A

amalgam

145
Q

As a general rule, the lower teeth erupt before uppers.

This is true for primary teeth except for the ________

Thi is true for the permanent teeth except for the ________

A

Lateral incisor and second premolar

146
Q

which disease of the blood is best described as a malignant proliferation of plasma cells and is common in the spine and long bones?

A

multiple myeloma

147
Q

which of the following is the name for a complete blockage of a blood vessel?

A

infarction

148
Q

Which kind of antibodies is a set of antibodies which respond to antigens from the core of a hepatitis virus but reduce in number after some months?

A

IgM

gM are anti Hbc (c for core) and respond first to the core antigens however they dwindle after 6 months and into chronic disease

IgG are also anti-HBc and respond to core and remain after IgM dwindles

Anti HBe are usually present when there is a high viral load

Anti HBs are anti-surface antigens and are important for making vaccines (e.g used in vax for hep B)

149
Q

Which of these will cause activation of the renin-angiotensin system and can contribute to hypertension?

A

renal artery stenosis

150
Q

Which Hepatitis C characteristic makes it harder to produce a vaccine?

A

Since hep C is an RNA virus, it has a variable genome
this means that it changes each time it is passed on to someone else
it is similar to influenza (another RNA virus) as flu requires a new vaccine each year

151
Q

What is a typical cure strength of composite to enamel?

A

40 MPa

152
Q

which cranial nerve is not involved in the gag reflex

A

7

5,9,10,12 are

153
Q

Gas Exchange Failure (Type 1 respiratory failure) can be due to

A

Thickening of alveolar wall
Inadequate Number of alveoli (emphysema)
Mismatch between where air and blood goes in lungs- V-Q

154
Q

Glass ionomer cement:

A

Long working time
Short setting time
Easy to use
Lower thermal conductivity and diffusivity than dentine
Higher compressive strength >170MPa
Most are radiopaque
Better marginal seal due to chemical bond to dentine and enamel
Only lining material to seal dentinal tubules - decreases microleakage and post op sesnitivity
RMGIC less soluble than GIC (solubility highest initially)
Fluoride release
Benzoyl iodides + benzoyl bromides are cytotoxic (kill residual cavity bacteria)
Complete cure needed for RMGIC as uncured HEMA is a chemical irritant
Only lining able to bond to restorative materials
May be possible to bond amalgam to tooth with RMGIC

155
Q

Which of these is NOT a property of CoCr?

A

ductile

It is rigid so therefore not ductile. It has a high young’s modulus which means it is rigid or in other words can withstand alot of stress and only experience a little strain

156
Q

n youth, the angle of the mandible is more ______ than in adulthood until tooth loss in elderly.

A

acute

157
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for anticoagulants?

A

thrombocythemia
excess platelets

but these are
Deep venous thrombosis (DVT)
Heart valve disease
Mechanical valves
Thrombophilia

158
Q

Which tongue muscles are more superior?

A

intrinsic

159
Q

When does the mastoid process become apparent in the developing cranium?

A

2 years

  • conical prominence projecting from the undersurface of the mastoid portion of the
    temporal bone.
  • located behind the external acoustic meatus.
  • distinct at around 2 years old.
160
Q

The Suprahyoid muscles are the:

A

Digastric
Mylohyoid
Geniohyoid
Stylohyoid

161
Q

The Infrahyoid muscles are the:

A

Sternohyoid
Sternothyroid
Omohyoid
Thyrohyoid

162
Q

The tympanic ______ in the ear changes into the tympanic ______ with age.

A

ring changes into plate

163
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Genetic defect of cartilage growth, only affects endochondrial ossification

164
Q

Which of the following muscles is NOT innervated by CNV3:

A

Posterior belly of the digastric muscle

but
mylohyoid
tensor veli palatine
deep head of the medial pterygoid
and upper head of the lateral pterygoid
do

165
Q

The medial border of the pterygopalatine fossa is:

A

perpendicular plate of the palatine bone

166
Q

Which MOM matches this description:

Origin: superficial head: tuberosity of maxilla deep head: medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate

Insertion: (medial surface of) angle of mandible

Function: Protrusion and elevation od mandible

A

medial pterygoid

167
Q

What is the cause of a medial cleft lip?

A

Incomplete fusion of medial nasal processes

168
Q

Which of these papilla on the tongue is NOT involved in taste?

A

filiform

169
Q

Which MOM matches this description:

Origin: Zygomatic arch

Insertion: Lateral surface and angle/ramus of the mandible

Function: Elevates mandible

A

masseter

170
Q

What is the name of the suture between the 2 parietal bones?

A

saggital

Frontal + Parietal: Coronal
Parietals: Sagittal
Parietal + Occipital: Lambdoid

171
Q

In which branch of CNV3 are there fibers from the glossopharyngeal nerve CNIX, which give parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland?

A

auricotemporal nerve

172
Q

Where is the origin of the SUPERFICIAL head of the medial pterygoid?

A

tuberosity of maxilla

173
Q

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the skull at the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

maxillary nerve

174
Q

Which branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the skull at the infratemporal fossa?

A

mandibular nerve

175
Q

Which of the following is the correct match between the nerve and the corresponding fossa?

A

posterior superior alveolar nerve - pterygomaxillary fissure

Greater and Lesser palatine nerves: Palatine canal
Posterior superior alveolar nerve: pterygomaxillary fissure
Infraorbital nerve: Infraorbital fissure
Nasopalatine nerve: sphenopalatine fossa
Pharyngeal nerve: palatovaginal canal

176
Q

Which of these structures in the developing skull fuse first?

A

mental symphysis

  1. Mental Symphysis:
    unfused centre of mandible.
    fusion by 7-8 months, before the 1st year
  2. Metopic Suture
    connective tissue structure which separates the two halves of the frontal bone of the
    skull
    it fuses at around the age of nine months then disappears around 6 years old
  3. Anterior Fontanelle
    soft diamond-shaped part at the front of the skull which allows for cranial growth
    98% closed by the age of 2.
  4. Occipital centres of ossification
    centres of ossification fused or separated
    fused by school age
  5. Spheno-Occipital Synchrondosis
    the cartilaginous union between the sphenoid and occipital bone at the base of the skull
    closes 16 -25.
177
Q

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve gives general sensory nerve innervation to the tongue (not taste), which part of the tongue does it innervate?

A

anterior 2/3rd

178
Q

Which MOM matches this description?

Origin: lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate

Insertion: superior: intra-articular disc inferior: head of the condoyle

Function: Lateral deviation and protrusion + depression

A

lateral pterygoid

179
Q

Which branch of CNV3 carries special sensory fibers from the facial nerve (CN7) which give taste from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

lingual nerve

180
Q

Which of the following nerves are not in the posterior trunk of CNV3?

A

motor branches to all 4 mom
buccal nerve

181
Q

egarding the relationship between V3 (mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve) and the facial nerve (CN VII), what is untrue about the innervation they supply?

A

Sympathetics to submandibular and sublingual glands via synapse at the submandibular ganglion

its PARA
and
Taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

182
Q

Which of these muscles are NOT a suprahyoid muscle?

A

omohyoid

but
Digastric
Mylohyoid
geniohyoid
stylohyoid

183
Q

Which is the only muscle of mastication that doesn’t elevate the mandible?

A

lateral pterygoid

Lateral Pterygoid function: lateral deviation and protrusion of mandible in addition to DEPRESSION of mandible

184
Q

what is the origin of the Masseter muscle?

A

zygomatic arch

185
Q

Which statement is incorrect about tooth development?

A

The growth of the inner and the outer enamel epithelium cells forms Hertwig’s dentinal sheath, which determines the shape of the dentine.

he growth of the inner and the outer enamel epithelium cells forms Hertwig’s ROOT sheath, which determines the shape of the ROOT

186
Q

The function of the stratum intermedium includes

A

transportation of the nutrients to and from the enamel forming ameloblasts.

187
Q

The function of the stellate reticulum is

A

to protect the underlying dental tissues and maintain the shape of the tooth.

188
Q

What is the primary function of dental tubules with dentine?

A

contain odontoblast projections

189
Q

Which of the following is not a stage of chewing?

A

stage ii transport

Ingestion - food from external to mouth, lips act as anterior oral seal as anteriors bite or cutlery used

Stage I transport - food gathers on the tip of the tongue which retracts to pull food to posteriors

Mechanical processing - food broken down and mixed with saliva, pre molars used too chew and soft foods squashed against hard palate by the tongue

Food processing - mandibular, supra hyoid and tongue muscles coordinate

190
Q

What is the first movement in Posselt’s envelope of motion?

A

rotation

191
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves is not involved in gagging reflex?

A

facial

192
Q

n which set of muscles do some of them assist in depression of the mandible?

A

supra hyoid

SUPRAHYOID Depressors:
Digastric
Mylohyoid
Genohyoid
non depressor: STYLOHYOID

193
Q

Which of the Pterygoid muscles has superficial and a deep head rather than a superior and inferior head

A

medial

194
Q

Which clotting factor can be released from being bound to endothelial cells by DDAVP/desmopressin?

A

factor 8
VIII

195
Q

What is a normal result for the international normalised ratio (INR), when on Warfarin but with no heart valve replacements or DVT?

A

2-3

196
Q

Dental aspects of Adrenal Dysfunction:

A

STEROID precautions may be needed
liase with physician for infections/illness
candidiasis in Cushings
oral pigmentation in Addison’s/Cushings

Crisis can occur in Addison’s Disease:

Crisis:

hypotension
vomiting
eventual coma

Absence of MINERALOCORTICOID and mineralocorticoid effects of GLUCOCORTICOIDS
CRISIS takes time to develop
hypovolaemic shock
Hyponatraemia

197
Q

Which of the following has the lowest endocarditis risk?

A

Atrial septal defect:
Patient with atrial septal defect will not show central cyanosis as oxygenated blood still pumped into aorta (but will increase workload)
Can cause atrium hypertrophy due to workload
Low endocarditis risk

198
Q

In an individual with Addison’s disease, which of the following combinations will be seen following adrenal disease investigations?

A

High ACTH & Low cortisol

199
Q

Which is the correct order of secretion of hormones?

A

Cortisol releasing hormone > Adrenocorticotrophic hormone > Cortisol, Aldosterone, Dehydroepiandrosterone

200
Q

What is the name for the disease that describes the destruction of adrenal tissue, above the kidneys (renal glands)?

A

addison’s disease

201
Q

excess adrenal function

A

cushing’s

202
Q

avoid sedatives in which thyroid problem

A

hypo

203
Q

Which of the following may be found in the family history of someone with hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Type 1 diabetes
Vitiligo
Addisons disease

204
Q

anterior pituitary

A

TSH - Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
ACTH - Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
GH - Growth Hormone
LH, FSH, Prolactin

205
Q

posterior pituitary

A

ADH - Anti Diuretic Hormone
Oxytocin

206
Q

thyroidism values

A

Hypothyroid (pituitary cause): Low TSH and low T4

Hypothyroid (gland failure): High TSH and low T4

Hyperthyroid (pituitary cause) High TSH and high T3

Hyperthyroid (Graves or adenoma) Low TSH and high T3

207
Q

Which of the following zones of the adrenal gland produce Cortisol?

A

zona fasicularis

zona glomerulosa
ALDOSTERONE (Renin/Angiotensin)

zona fasicularis
CORTISOL (Hypothalamus/Pituitary)

zona reticularis
ADRENAL ANDROGENS

208
Q

What disease is associated with hyperkalaemia?

A

addison’s

(high potassium due to absence of aldosterone)

209
Q

Which condition more commonly causes a goitre?

A

hypothyroidism

A goitre is an enlarged/swollen thyroid gland.

Hypothyroidism is the result of an underactive thyroid gland. When the gland produces too little thyroid hormone, it is stimulated to produce more, leading to swelling.

210
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of primary adrenal hypofunction/Addison’s disease, rather than a symptom of primary adrenal hyperfunction/Cushing’s disease?

A

hyperpigmentation

211
Q

Which of the following treatments for hyperthyroidism gives the risk of hypothyroidism over time?

A

radioiodine

212
Q

What is the definition of a D3 lesion

A

Clinically detectable lesions into dentine

213
Q

Which strength of fluoride toothpaste should be given to a high risk patient under the age of 10?

A

1500 ppm

214
Q

consent

A

Valid:

Current: patient hasnt changed mind
Recent: obtained recently enough
Specific: specific to proposed treatment
Legal:

Informed: Patient has enough info to give consent
Ability: Patient has ability to make an informed decision
Voluntary: Patient has made the decision themselves

215
Q

which of the following is not a cause for dysphagia

A

oral apthous ulcer

coeliac disease

216
Q

Why would GI absorption of vitamin b12 not be possible

A

Gastric parietal cell antibodies
Gastric disease or atrophy
Terminal ileal Crohns disease
Ile-caecal malignancy

217
Q

hich of the following explains how paracetamol toxicity is reached when taken too frequently

A

zero order kinetics

218
Q

What best describes a stage 3 lymphoma?

A

Two or more lymph node regions affected, above and below the diaphragm

219
Q

platelet values for dental treatment

A

Lower than 100x109/L = primary care
Lower than 50x109/L = HOSPITAL CARE
Higher than 500x109/L = primary or hospital care

220
Q

la

A

Local anaesthetics decrease the duration of the action potential

221
Q

Which of these bacteria is known to be a cause of cellulitis?

A

s.pyogenes

222
Q

Vaccinating for hepatitis B will also prevent you getting which other hepatitis virus?

A

D

Hepatitis D requires hepatitis B to be present in the blood already in order to replicate itself, therefore if there is vaccination of hep B, it won’t be present and therefore hepatitis D won’t be able to replicate in the blood

223
Q

which virus is DNA virus?

A

hep b

Hep B is a DNA virus (partially double stranded)

Hep C is an RNA virus (single stranded)

HIV is also an RNA virus

224
Q

Which type of hepatitis virus is commonly treated with direct-acting antiviral agents (DAA’s)?

A

hep C

225
Q

socrates

A

S - site
O - onset
C - character
R - radiation
A - associated symptoms
T - time
E - exacerbating factors
S - severity

226
Q

Which statement is incorrect about burs?

A

Coarser burs have a lighter colour band around the neck of a bur.

The incorrect statement is C.

Coarser burs have a darker colour band around the neck of a bur.

The general colour coding for burs is as follows:
White = Super Fine
Yellow = Extra Fine
Red = Fine
Blue = Standard
Green = Coarse
Black = Super Coarse

227
Q

What is the elastic modulus of hybrid composite?

A

14 GPa

228
Q

Which statement about primary teeth is false?

A

There is some posterior spacing desired if there is to be no crowding in the permanent dentition

Occlusion
* Some ANTERIOR spacing in the primary dentition is desired if there is to be no crowding in the permanent
dentition.
* Leeway space is extra mesio-distal space occupied by the primary molars which are wider than the premolars which will replace them. Usually equates to 1.5mm per side on the upper arch and 2.5mm per side in the lower arch.
* Deciduous incisors are upright, which permanent incisors are ‘proclined’ leading to an increase in A-P arch length.

229
Q

Which primary teeth can be called replicas/copies of permanent teeth?

A

2nd primary molars

230
Q

In deciduous eruption, Teeth of the same series normally erupt within _______ months of their contra-lateral tooth.

A

3 months

231
Q

What is also known as antrophoid space?

A

primate space

Antrophoid space is also known as primate space in primary teeth to avoid crowding of the permanent dentition.
Spacing mesial to upper canine
Spacing distal to lower canine

232
Q

In deciduous tooth eruption, apexogenesis is complete around ________ years after eruption.

A

1,5 years

233
Q

What is a contra indication for pulp treatment among children?

A

there is a root resorption

234
Q

What is considered rapid attachment loss over a 5-year period?

A

> 2 mm

235
Q

staging of perio

A

Bone loss at worst site

grading = age/worst site

bds 2 (38 decks)

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