Random knowledge to review 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In what condition is donepezil CI?

A

Bradycardia

Donepezil can cause insomnia as well

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2
Q

Centor criteria?

A

CENTor criteria:

Cough absent
Exudates on tonsils
Nodes- tender cervical lymphadenopathy
Temperature>38

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3
Q

Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt problem?

A

Last line for upper variceal bleed- bypasses the liver so can cause a build up of toxins that cause confusion

Causes the exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy

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4
Q

What should all men with ED have checked?

A

Their testosterone levels

Also screen for underlying diabetes and cardiovascular disease

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5
Q

Treatment for benzodiazepine overdose?

A

Flumazenil

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6
Q

TB drugs memory aid?

A

RIPE ONGO
Rifampicin: Orange secretions
Isoniazid: Neuropathy
Pyrazinamide: Gout
Ethambutol: Optic Neuritis

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7
Q

How do you prevent the peripheral neuropathy from Isoniazid?

A

Pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

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8
Q

Ethambutol before treatment?

A

Check visual acuity before and during treatment as can cause optic neuritis

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9
Q

Osteoporosis blood derangement?

A

None

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10
Q

When are Howell-Jolly bodies found?

A

Post-splenectomy

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11
Q

At what fasting glucose should insulin be offered straight away for gestational diabetes?

A

> 7mmol/l

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12
Q

Is iron deficiency anaemia a cause of pruritis?

A

Yes

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13
Q

ADPKD drug treatment?

A

Tolvaptan

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14
Q

Letrozole vs Tamoxifen?

A

Tamoxifen for oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

Letrozole/anastrozole for oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in those after the menopause

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15
Q

What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

Fever, rash, chills and headache following antibiotic administration for syphillis, also tachycardia and myalgia

Due to the rapid killing of Treponema pallidum and release of its endotoxins

Supportive management with antipyretics and it resolves within 24 hours

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16
Q

What is the first line treatment for syphillis?

A

IM benzathine benzylpenicillin

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17
Q

Treatment for septic arthritis?

A

Flucloxacillin or clindamycin for penicillin allergic

IV

4-6 weeks overall switch to oral antibiotics after 2 weeks

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18
Q
A
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19
Q

<3 months with fever over 38?

A

Refer for paediatric assessment

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20
Q

Visual hallucinations + dementia?

A

Lewy body dementia

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21
Q

Squint in child?

A

Refer to secondary care

Means eyes pointing in different directions

Can lead to amblyopia and uncorrects (brain prefers one eye)

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22
Q

How many tetanus jabs to be immune lifelong?

A

5

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23
Q

Is anus spared in UC?

A

Yes

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24
Q

Secretions treatment in palliative care?

A

Hyoscine hyrobromide or hyoscine butylbromide

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25
Q

What are the side effects of tamsulosin (alpha-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist)?

A

Dizziness and postural hypotension

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26
Q

What precipitiates lithium toxicity?

A

Dehydration

Renal failure

Drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACEi/ARBs, NSAIDs and metronidazole

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27
Q

Features of lithium toxicity?

A

Coarse tremor
Hyperreflexia
Acute confusion
Polyuria
Seizure
Coma

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28
Q

Lithium toxicity management?

A

Mild-moderate toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline- IV fluids with isotonic saline

Haemodialysis may be needed if severe toxicity

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29
Q

HF management?

A

1st line: ACEi + BB
2n line: Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone, eplerenone) or SGLT-2 (ie dapagliflozin) if HFrEF
3rd line: Ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan (EF<35%), Digoxin (for symptomatic relief), Hydralizine + Nitrate (Afro-Caribbean)
Cardiac resynchronisation if wide QRS (LBBB)

+ Annual flu vaccine and one-off Pneumococcal vaccine

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30
Q

Warfarin interactions?

A

General factors that may potentiate warfarin-
Liver disease
P450 ezyme inhibitors
Cranberry juice
Drugs- NSAIDs

Inducers of the P450 system will decrease INR

Inhibitors will increase the INR

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31
Q

P450 inducers (decrease INR)?

A

Antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine

Barbiturates: phenobarbitone

Rifampicin

St John’s Wort

Chronic alcohol intake

Griseofulvin

Smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)

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32
Q

P450 inhibitors (increase INR)?

A

antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, clarithromycine/erythromycin
isoniazid
cimetidine,omeprazole
amiodarone
allopurinol
imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
ritonavir
sodium valproate
acute alcohol intake
quinupristin

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33
Q

Can diabetic foot ulcers/diabetes lead to osteomyelitis?

A

Yes

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34
Q

Diverticular disease management?

A

Increase dietary fibre intake

Mild attacks managed conservativley with antibiotics

Absecess drained

Reccurrent episodes are indication for a segmental resection

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35
Q

Horner’s features?

A

Miosis

Ptosis

Anhidrosis (loss of sweating on one side)

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36
Q

Hip fracture treatments?

A

Intracapsular-
Undisplaced- internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty

Displaced- total hip replacement (arthroplasty) to all patients, sometimes hemiarthroplasty if not able to do much before injury

Stable intertrochanteric- dynamic hip screw

Subtrochanteric, reverse oblique or transverse- intermedullary device

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37
Q

Adrenaline doses?

A

Age Adrenaline dose
< 6 months 100 - 150 micrograms (0.1 - 0.15 ml 1 in 1,000)
6 months - 6 years 150 micrograms (0.15 ml 1 in 1,000)
6-12 years 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000)
Adult and child > 12 years 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000)

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38
Q

What does india ink stain on CSF analysis in meningitis point towards?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

Most common fungal infection of CNSWh

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39
Q

What is co prescribed when starting a GnRH agonists (Goserelin) for prostate cancer?

A

Anti-androgen- cyproterone acetate- prevent a rise in testosterone causing a tumour flare

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40
Q

RUQ pain?

A

RUQ pain only –> biliary colic
RUQ pain + fever –> acute cholecystitis
RUQ pain + fever + jaundice –> ascending cholangitis (Charcot’s triad)
Charcot’s triad + confusion + hypotension = Reynold’s pentad (more severe ascending cholangitis)

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41
Q

When should parents call an ambulance in febrile convulsions?

A

If it lasts longer than 5 minutes

Febrile convulsions occur between the ages of 6 months and 5 years

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42
Q

What is prescribed if recurrent febrile convulsions occur?

A

Benzodiazepine rescue medication

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43
Q

Palliative care- severe pain with CKD treatment?

A

Buprenorphine or fentanyl are the opioids of choice for pain relief in pallaiative care patients with severe renal impairment

Oxycodone is preferred in mild-moderate renal impairment

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44
Q

Hepatitis C investigation?

A

HCV RNA

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45
Q

Which thyroid treatment worsens thyroid eye disease?

A

Radioiodine treatment

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46
Q

Lower GI bleeding cause paeds?

A

Neonates- NEC or malrotation

Infants/young children- intussusception

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47
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonist examples?

A

Bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, apomorphine

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48
Q

MAO-B inhibitors example?

A

Selegiline

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49
Q

COMT inhibitors?

A

Entacapone, tolcapone

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50
Q

VTE prophylaxis in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)

Things like DOACs and Warfarin bind to proteins in the blood- decrease in these proteins in nephrotic syndrome

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51
Q

When must a culture (MSU) be sent for non-pregnant women in UTI?

A

If there is visible or non-visible haematuria

Or over 65

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52
Q

Vision loss associated with Charles-Bonnet?

A

Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD)

Distortion of straight lines/ reduced acuity are symptoms

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53
Q

When to start dapagliflozin?

A

QRISK over 10%, cardiovascular risk factors

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54
Q

HbA1c target for any drug which may cause hypoglycaemia?

A

53

Example drug would be a sulfonylurea

Also 53 for patients already on one drug but HbA1c has risen to 58

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55
Q

How do you assess drug sensitivities in TB?

A

Sputum culture

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56
Q

How is pseudogout also known?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease

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57
Q

Pseudogout presentation?

A

Knee, wrist and shoulders most commonly affected

Joint aspiration- weakly-positive birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

X-ray- chondrocalcinosis

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58
Q

Gonorrhoea cause?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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59
Q

Gonorrhoea treatment?

A

First line- single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g
If sensitivities known and organism sensitive to cirpofoxacin that should be given 500mg orally

If ceftriaxone refused then oral cefixime and oral azithromycin should be used

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60
Q

Disseminated gonococcal infection classic triad?

A

Tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis and dermatitis

Later complications- septic arthritis, endocarditis and perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome)

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61
Q

Subacute unilateral visual loss, eye pain worse on movements?

A

?Optic neuritis

Features:
Unilateral decrease in visual acuity over hours or days
Poor discrimination of colours, ‘red desaturation’
Pain worse on eye movement
Relative afferent pupillary defect
Central scotoma

Investigation- MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast

Management- high-dose steroids

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62
Q

Abdo diseases children?

A

Pyloric stenosis - Projectile, non-bilious vomiting at 4-6 wks old

Malrotation - Bilious vomiting, abdominal pain, acutely unwell

Intestinal atresia - Bilious vomiting if distal to ampulla of Vater, usually hours-days old

Hirschsprung’s disease - Failure to pass meconium >48 hours, abdominal distension, failure to thrive, sometimes bilious vomiting

GORD - Milky vomiting after feeds, crying, arching of back, drawing up of knees into chest, failure to thrive, <8 weeks old

GOR - Physiological, regurgitation but no symptoms or complications (‘happy spitter’)

Intussusception - Colicky abdominal pain, drawing up of knees into chest, pale, RUQ sausage-mass, refusing feeds, red-currant stools late sign, non-bilious vomiting that may become bilious if obstruction, at 6-18 months old

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63
Q

Can the temporal artery biopsy be false negative?

A

Yes as there can be skip lesions in temporal arteritis- continue the treatment

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64
Q

Vision complication in temporal arteritis?

A

Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

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65
Q

Reduced fetal movement investigations?

A

Initially, handheld doppler to confirm fetal heartbeat- if no heartbeat detectable immediate ultrasound should be offered
If fetal heartbeat present on doppler- CTG should be used to monitor for at least 20 mins

Referral if fetal movements not felt by 24 weeks

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66
Q

RA and eye problems?

A

?Scleritis

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67
Q

Scleritis?

A

RA, SLE, Sarcoidosis associations

Features:
Red eye
Classically painful (in comparison to epscleritis)
Watering/photophobia
Gradual decrease in vision

Management- same day assessment by an opthalmologist

Oral NSAIDs first line

Oral glucocoriticoids in severe presentations

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68
Q

Gliptins side effects?

A

Pancreatitis

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69
Q

Pioglitazone contraindication?

A

Heart failure

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70
Q

Symptoms/signs of hypocalcaemia memory aid?

A

CATs go numb- Convulsions, Arrythmias, Tetany, Numbness also Trouseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign

QT prolongation on ECG

Blood transfusions can cause hypocalaemia and hyperkalaemia

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71
Q

Signs/symptoms of hyperkalaemia?

A

Metabolic acidosis, arrythmias, muscle weakness, reduced reflexes, diarrhoea

ECG features- Absent P waves, prolonged QRS, peaked or tall tented T waves, sine wave pattern

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72
Q

Aortic stenosis symptoms?

A

SAD- syncope, angina, dyspnoea

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73
Q

Which UTI medication is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Trimethoprim

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74
Q

Initial emergency treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

IV acetazolamide + timolol, pilocarpine and apraclonidine eyedrops

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75
Q

Definitive management for acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Laser peripheral iridotomy

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76
Q

Typical presentation of coarctation of the aorta?

A

Acute circulatory collapse at 2 days of age, mid systolic murmur maximal over the back

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77
Q

Management of croup?

A

Single dose of dexamethasone to all children regardless of severity

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78
Q

Hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anameia?

A

Red blood cells interfere with circuation to hands and feet- causes pain, swelling and erythema

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79
Q

Colorectal screening age?

A

Every 2 years to all men and women aged 60-74 in England

Patients over 74 may request screening

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80
Q

Tests done in all patients with colorectal cancer for staging?

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis

Entire colon should have been evaluated with a colonoscopy or CT colonography

Patients whose tumours lie below the peritoneal reflection should have their mesorectum evaluated with MRI

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81
Q

Management of colon cancer?

A

Nearly always treated with surgery

Resectional surgery is the only option for cure in patients with colon cancer

Site of cancer Type of resection Anastomosis
Caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon Right hemicolectomy Ileo-colic
Distal transverse, descending colon Left hemicolectomy Colo-colon
Sigmoid colon High anterior resection Colo-rectal
Upper rectum Anterior resection (TME) Colo-rectal
Low rectum Anterior resection (Low TME) Colo-rectal
(+/- Defunctioning stoma)
Anal verge Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum None

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82
Q

Panproctocolectomy?

A

Removes the colon, rectum and anus- often in HNPCC carriers

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83
Q

Caecal, ascending or proximal transverse colon colorectal cancer treatment?

A

Right hemicolectomy- ileo-colic anastomosis

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84
Q

Distal transverse, descending colon?

A

Left hemicolectomy- colo-colon

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85
Q

Sigmoid colon?

A

High anterior resection- colo-rectal

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86
Q

Upper rectum?

A

Anterior resection (TME)- colo-rectal

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87
Q

Low rectum?

A

Anterior resection (Low TME)- colo-rectal (+/- defunctioning stoma)

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88
Q

Anal verge

A

Abdomino-perineal excision of rectum- none

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89
Q

What is the resection of the sigmoid colon and an end colostomy fashioned in the operation called?

A

Hartmann’s procedure

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90
Q

Hypocalcaemia?

A

CATS go numb:

Hypocalcaemia:

Convulsions
Arrhythmia (and long QT)
Tetany
Spasm - Chvostek and Trousseau signs
(go)
Numb - paraesthesia

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91
Q

Imaging for multiple myeloma?

A

Whole-body MRI

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92
Q

Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)?

A

Emotional and physical symptoms in the luteal phase of the normal menstrual cycle- anxiety, stress, fatigue, mood swings- bloating, breast pain

Mild symptoms- lifestyle advice- low alcohol, regular meals, sleep, exercise, no smoking

Moderate- may benefit from a new-generation COCP (example is Yasminu- drospirenone 3mg and ethinylestradiol)

Severe symptoms may benefit from an SSRI

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93
Q

How to tell heart rate/BP in a traumatic injury?

A

Fast and weak- there’s a leak

Slow and strong- something in the head wrong

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94
Q

Cushing’s triad from raised ICP?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia and irregular breathing

Aimed at maintaining cerebral perfusion

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95
Q

Which stomas need to be spouted vs not spouted?

A

Small bowel spouted- so that irritant contents do not come into contact with the skin

Colonic stomas do not need to be spouted as their contents are less irritant

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96
Q

If having a total colectomy which sort of stoma would be formed?

A

Ileostomy

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97
Q

Location of stomas?

A

Ileostomy- right iliac fossa, spouted, output- liquid

Colostomy- varies, more likely on the left side, flushed, output- solid

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98
Q

EBV rash with what?

A

Amoxicillin

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99
Q

EBV triad?

A

Sore throat, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy

Other features:
Malaise, anorexia, headache
Palatal petechiae
Splenomegaly
Haemolytic anaemia secondary to cold agglutins (IgM)
Maculopapular, pruritic rash with amoxicillin

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100
Q

Infectious mononucleosis investigation?

A

Heterophil antibody test (Monospot tet)

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101
Q

When is ECV offered?

A

36 weeks for nulliparous

37 weeks for multiparous

If no contraindications:

where caesarean delivery is required

antepartum haemorrhage within the last 7 days

abnormal cardiotocography

major uterine anomaly

ruptured membranes

multiple pregnancy

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102
Q

Hartmann’s procedure?

A

Sigmoid colectomy and formation of end stoma

Is the emergency operation for things like acute siverticulitis with perforation

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103
Q

Which type of analgesia is best after surgery to reduce the chance of postoperative ileus and promote gastrointestinal motility?

A

Epidural analgesia- opioid/local anaesthetic

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104
Q

Lynch syndrome surgery?

A

Panproctocolectomy- takes the colon sigmoid and rectum- reduce risk of further malignancies

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105
Q

SLE management?

A

Basics- NSAIDs, sun-block

Treatment of choice- hydroxychloroquine

If internal organ involvement- renal, neuro, eye, consider prednisolone or cyclophosphamide

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106
Q

Temporal arteritis eye problem summary?

A

Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy whereby inflammation of the posterior ciliary arteries causes optic nerve infarction and subsequent vision loss

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107
Q

Surgeries for the different aortic dissections?

A

Type A- Aortic route replacement surgery

Type B- bed rest and beta blockers

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108
Q

C-peptide levels in diabetes?

A

Type 1 diabetes- c-peptide levels are low

Type 2 diabetes- c-peptide levels are high

Diabetes specific antibodies point towards type 1

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109
Q

Anticoagulation and head injury?

A

CT head within 8 hours

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110
Q

Exam question fungal nail?

A

If more than 2 nails affected- oral terbinafine

If less than that amorolfine nail lacquer

Trichophyton rubrum is one of the most common dermatophyte nail infections

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111
Q

Which echocardiogram investigation for dissection if too unstable for a CT?

A

Transoesophageal

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112
Q

Causes of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Symptoms- miosis, ptosis, usually anhidrosis

Look on passmed for causes

Some can cause no anhidrosis

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113
Q

Mononeuritis multiplex?

A

RFs for it- diabetes, RA, amyloidosis, sarcoidosis

Distribution of weakness/sensory loss that doesnt make sense

> =2 single nerve lesion

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114
Q

Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Pruritis
Clinically detectable jaundice
Raised bilirubin seen in >90% of cases

Management
Induction of labour at 37-38 weeks
Ursodeoxycholic acid
Vitamin K supplementation

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115
Q

Gingival hyperplasia?

A

CCBs, Phenytoin, Tacrolimus/cyclosporin

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116
Q

Thiazide diuretics electrolytes?

A

Hypokalaemia

Hyponatremia

Hypercalcaemia

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117
Q

Recurrent episodes of otitis externa despite antibiotic treatment?

A

?Candida infection- especially if severe itching/ white, curd-like discharge

Bacterial causes are staphylococcus aureus, pseuomonas aeruginosa

Seborrhoeic dermatitis or recent swimming

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118
Q

Tachycardia peri arrest?

A

Shock/hypotension/instability- Synchronised DC cardioversion

Broad complex- amiodarone infusion

Narrow complex- vagal manouvres then adenosine

If narrow an irregular- follow A-Fib protocol
If broad and irregular- specialist help

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119
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

TSH raised- T3, T4 normal

TSH >10 and free thyroxine in normal range- consider offering levothyroxine if the TSH level is > 10 mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart

TSH between 5.5-10 and free thyroxine in normal range-
if <65 considering offering 6 months levothyrooxine trial if the TSH level is 5.5 - 10mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart,and
there are symptoms of hypothyroidism
In older people watch and wait is often use
If asymptomatic observe and repeat thyroid function in 6 months

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120
Q

First line anticoagulant in reducing stroke risk?

A

DOACs

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121
Q

Should tricyclic antidespressants be stopped in dementia?

A

Yes

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122
Q

When would you start antihypertensives straight away if BP 180/120 or higher?

A

If evidence of target organ damage is identified- do not wait for ABPM or HBPM

Such as blood in urine, vision changes

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123
Q

First line drugs for spasticity in MS?

A

Baclofen

Gabapentin

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124
Q

Reducing the risk of relapses in MS?

A

Natalizumab

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125
Q

Birth defects drug timing?

A

Lungs mature last, heart matures first

For fluoxetine-
First trimester- congenital heart defects
Last trimester- persistent pulmonary HTN

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126
Q

Broad vs narrow tachycardia?

A

Generally speaking-

Broad is ventricular- treat with amiodarone

Narrow is SVT- adenosine

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127
Q

Conservative care for pneumothorax?

A

Primary spontaneous PTX- review every 2-4 days as an outpatient

Secondary spontaneous PTX- monitor as inpatient

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128
Q

MI secondary prevention drugs?

A

DABS

Dual antiplatelet therapy
ACEi
Beta blocker
Statin

Ticagrelor and prausgrel more widely used-

Post ACS medically managed- ticagrelor to aspirin- stop ticagrelor after 12 months

Post PCI- add prausgrel or ticagrelor to aspirin- stop second antiplatelet after 12 months

12 month period can be altered for people at high risk of bleeding or those at high risk of further ischaemic events

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129
Q

Stages of labour?

A

1st stage- onset of labour to full dilation
Latent phase 0-3cm dilation
Active phase 3-7cm dilation
Transition 7-10cm dilation

2nd stage- from full dilation to delivery

3rd stage- from delivery to when the placenta and membranes have been completely delivered

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130
Q

Post menopausal bleeding?

A

Endometrial cancer until proven otherwise

All women over 55 who present with PMB should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway

First investigation is a transvaginal ultrasound

Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy

Treated with surgery

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131
Q

Punched out lesions?

A

Eczema herpeticum- severe primary infection of the skin by HSV 1 or 2

Most commonly seen in children with atopic eczema and presents with a rapidly progressing painful rash

Potentially life-threatening- admit for IV aciclovir

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132
Q

Gastric cancer investigations?

A

Diagnosis- oesophago-gastro-dudenoscopy with biopsy
Signet ring cells may be seen in gastric cancer

Staging- CT scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis

Management-
Surgical- gastrectomy

Chemotherapy

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133
Q

DMD

Kawasaki

heart problems?

A

Duchenne- dilated cardiomyopathy

Kawasaki- coronary artery spasm

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134
Q

DMD?

A

Progressive muscle weakness from 5, calf pseudohypertrophy, Gower’s sign- child uses arms to stand from squatted position

Investigation- raised CK and genetic testing

Management- supportive

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135
Q

Management of essential tremor?

A

Propanolol

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136
Q

What are the heart sounds made by?

A

The valves closing

S1- Mitral and tricuspid closing

S2- aortic and pulmonary closing

(S3 is sometimes normal in athletes, sometimes pathological)- rapid filling of ventricles during diastole

(S4 always pathological- atrial contraction against stiff/non-compliant ventricle)

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137
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in VT?

A

Verapamil- important

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138
Q

Score for prediciting the severity of pancreatitis?

A

Modified Glasgow score

PANCREAS

Pa02 <8kPa
Age >55 years
Neutrophilia WBC >15x10^9
Calcium <2mmol/L
Renal function Urea >16mmol/L
Enzymes LDH >600 ; AST >200
Albumin <32g/L
Sugar Blood glucose >10mmol/L

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139
Q

GET SMASHED?

A

Passmed

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140
Q

Asthma new guidelines

A

Diagnosis and treatment

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141
Q

Which antibiotics can cause torsades de pointes?

A

Macrolides (azithromycin)

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142
Q

Sexual history and knee pain?

A

Septic arthritis from Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Gram negative diplococci

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143
Q

Refractory anaphylaxis?

A

Ongoing anaphylactic reaction that persists despite being given 2 doses of IM adrenaline

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144
Q

How to remember homonymous quadrantanopias?

A

PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior)

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145
Q

Craniopharyngioma vs pituitary tumour visual field defect?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

lesion of optic chiasm

upper quadrant defect > lower quadrant defect = inferior chiasmal compression, commonly a pituitary tumour

lower quadrant defect > upper quadrant defect = superior chiasmal compression, commonly a craniopharyngioma

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146
Q

Surgery prep if a long fasting period of more than one missed meal or whose diabetes is poorly controlled?

A

Variable rate intravenous insulin infusion- (sliding scale)

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147
Q

Difference between posterior MI and NSTEMI?

A

Tall R waves

Posterior MIs cause:
reciprocal changes in V1-3
horizontal ST depression
tall, broad R waves
upright T waves
dominant R wave in V2

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148
Q

Acanthosis nigricans is associated with which type of cancer?

A

Gastrointestinal cancer

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149
Q

What causes acanthosis nigricans?

A

T2DM
GI cancer
Obesity
PCOS
Acromegaly
Cushing’s disease
Hypothyroidism

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150
Q

Management of tension PTX?

A

Decompression of the pleural space

Needle thoracostomy (decompression) second intercostal space mid clavicular line on affected side first as quicker in emergency

Place a chest drain in the triangle of safety

Tension PTX should be diagnosed clinically

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151
Q

Head CT within 1 hour?

A

GCS < 13 on initial assessment
GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury
suspected open or depressed skull fracture
any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign).
post-traumatic seizure.
focal neurological deficit.
more than 1 episode of vomiting

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152
Q

CT head within 8 hours?

A

CT head scan within 8 hours of the head injury - for adults with any of the following risk factors who have experienced some loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury:
age 65 years or older
any history of bleeding or clotting disorders including anticogulants
dangerous mechanism of injury (a pedestrian or cyclist struck by a motor vehicle, an occupant ejected from a motor vehicle or a fall from a height of greater than 1 metre or 5 stairs)
more than 30 minutes’ retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury

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153
Q

Bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and fever after dodgy food?

A

Campylobacter

Crampylobacter

Usually self limiting

First line antibiotic would be clarithromycin

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154
Q

Most common cause IE?

A

S.aureus- especially in IVDUs

Staph epidermis is common after surgery due to indwelling lines

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155
Q

In which MI complication is ESR elevated?

A

Dressler’s syndrome

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156
Q

RIPE ONGO?

A

RIPE ONGO
Rifampicin: Orange secretions
Isoniazid: Neuropathy- prevent with pyridoxine (Vit B6)
Pyrazinamide: Gout
Ethambutol: Optic Neuritis

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157
Q

Gonorrhoea management?

A

Gram negative diplococcus

1st- Ceftriaxone
If sensitive to ciprofloxacin- give that instead

If refuse needle- cefixime oral and azithromycin oral

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158
Q

What causes Lyme disease?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

Early features-
Erythema migrans- bullseye rash- develops on 1-4 weeks
Systemic- headache, lethargy, fever, arthralgia

Later features-
Cardio- heart block, myocarditis
Neuro- meningitis, facial nerve palsy

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159
Q

Lyme disease investigation?

A

If erythema migrans is present- start antibiotics

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi is first line

If negative but still suspected or positive and immunoblot test should be done

It is a spirochaete (like syphilis)

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160
Q

Management of lyme disease?

A

Doxycycline

Ceftriaxone if disseminated disease

Jarisch-Herxheimer may be seen (also seen in syphilis)- fever, rash, tachycardia after first dose of antibiotic

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161
Q

Only two BBs with evidence in heart failure?

A

Bisoprolol, carvedilol, nebivolol

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162
Q

Rare but important side effect of DPP4-inhibitors such as sitagliptin?

A

Pancreatitis

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163
Q

What should patients with MI secondary to cocaine be given?

A

Benzodiazepine first line

If chest pain- benzo + glyceryl trinitrate

BB poor evidence but arguements for/against

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164
Q

Adverse effects of cocaine?

A

Cardiovascular- coronary artery spasm, hypertension

Neurological- seizures

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165
Q

Impetigo return to school?

A

48 hours after treatment

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166
Q

Impetigo treatment?

A

Hydrogen peroxide 1% cream if systemically well

Topical fusidic acid

Extensive disease- oral flucloxacillin

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167
Q

Legionella treatment?

A

Macrolides such as clarithromycin

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168
Q

Diagnostic investigation for Legionella?

A

Urinary antigen

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169
Q

Legionella symptoms?

A

Flu-like symptoms including fever
Dry cough
Relative bradycardia
Confusion

Mid-lower zone patchy consolidation

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169
Q

Epilepsy treatment?

A

Generalised- M- Sod Val F- Lam/leve

Focal- Both- Lam/leve 2nd- Carbamazepine

Absence-Both- Ethosuximide 2nd- F- Lam/leve M- Sod Val

Atonic- F- Lam M- Sod Val

Myclonic- F- Leve M- Sod Val

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169
Q

In acute mitral regurgitation (rupture of the papillary muscle) what else can occur?

A

Acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema

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169
Q

Status epilepticus definition?

A

Single seizure lasting >5 mins or

> =2 seizures within a 5-minute period without the person returning to normal between them

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169
Q

Which drug reduces the risk of calcium oxalate stones recurring?

A

Bendroflumethiazide

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169
Q

Status epilepticus treatment pathway?

A

ABC- airway adjunct, oxygen, check blood glucose

First-line- benzodiazepines
Pre-hospital- PR diazepam or buccal midazolam
In hospital- IV lorazepam, repeated once after 5-10 mins

If ongoing status epilepticus appropriate to start a second-line agent such as levetiracetam, phenytoin or sodium valproate

If no response within 45 minutes- refractory status- best way to achieve rapid control of seizure activity is induction of general anaesthesia or phenobarbital

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170
Q

COCP cancer risks?

A

Increased risk of breast and cervical

Protective against ovarian and endometrial

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171
Q

What can cause ascites?

A

History of alcohol excess, cardiac failure can

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172
Q

Women with breast cancer and no palpable lymphadenopathy, if pre-operative axillary ultrasound negative, management?

A

Sentinel node biopsy to assess nodal burden

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173
Q

Which infection can cause lactose intolerance and foul smelling floating stool?

A

Giardia lamblia- giardiasis

RFs- foreign travel

Features:
often asymptomatic
non-bloody diarrhoea with steatorrhoea
Bloating, abdo pain
Lethargy
Malabsorption and lactose intolerance

Stool microscopy for trophozoite and cysts

Treatment is with metronidazole

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174
Q

Can myocarditis have ST elevation?

A

Yes, myocarditis can have ST elevation and it can be in a specific area of the heart- in contrast to pericarditis where the ST elevation is usually more widespread (affects the pericardial sack which is around the whole heart)

Myocarditis can also caused raised troponin/cardiac enzymes

Suspect it as more likely than MI in younger patients

Preceding flulike illness is characteristic and most common cause is viral

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175
Q

Myocarditis?

A

Inflammation of the myocardium- paticularly consider it in younger patients with chest pain

Causes- viral- cocksakie
(bacterial, spirochaetes (lyme disease)

Presentation- young patient with chest pain, SOB, arrythmias

Raised inflammatory markers, raised cardiac enzymes, ST elevation on ECG

Tx cause- supportive or antibiotics if bacterial

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176
Q

Rough/sandpaper/course rash?

A

Scarlet fever

Caused by streptococcus pyogenes

ORal penicllin V for 10 days

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177
Q

MDMA (ecstasy) poisoning?

A

Hyponatremia

Neuro- agitation, anxiety, confusion, ataxia
Cardio- tachycardia, hypertension
Hyperthermia
Rhabdomyolysis

Supportive
Dantrolene for hyperthermia if simple measures fail

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178
Q

PSC positive finding?

A

p-ANCA (also found in UC and autoimmune hepatitis)

Some others
Anti-dsDNA- SLE
Anti-CCP- RA

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179
Q

What do all cases of pneumonia get?

A

Repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks after clinical resolution- ensure consolidation resolved and no underlying pathologies (such as a lung tumour)

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180
Q

Breast cancer screening age?

A

50-70 years (mammogram every 3 years)

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181
Q

What should be co prescribed when starting allopurinol for gout prevention?

A

Colchicine

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182
Q

Aplastic crisis in sickle cell?

A

Pancytopenia- severe drop in haemoglobin

Decreased reticulocyte count

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183
Q

Haemolytic crisis in sickle cell?

A

Rare- severe anaemia and jaundice

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184
Q

Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?

A

Chest pain, cough, wheeze, SOB, tachypnoea

Pulmonary infiltrates

Vaso-occlusive crisis of the lungs

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185
Q

Sequestration crisis?

A

This would present with abdominal pain, signs of haemodynamic compromise and hepatomegaly/splenomegaly. Pooling of blood in the spleen occurs, leading to severe anaemia and haemodynamic collapse

Increased reticulocyte count

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186
Q

Vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

These could affect different organs, but would typically present with the development of acute pain due to microvascular occlusion. Other presentations include dactylitis, cerebral infarction, mesenteric ischaemia, avascular necrosis of the femoral head or priapism

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187
Q

Is doxycycline contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

Yes

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188
Q

What is considered early menarche?

A

Before age 12

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189
Q

Does HRT increase cancer risk?

A

If progestogen is added- it increases the risk of breast cancer

Increased risk of endometrial cancer if oestrogen given without progestogen- adding progestogen lowers the risk but not completely

Increased risk of VTE

Transdermal HRT does not increase the risk of VTE

Increased risk of stroke

Increased risk of ischaemic heart disease

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190
Q

Polycythemia vera associated with which mutation?

A

JAK2

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191
Q

Anticoaglation to prevent stroke in AF?

A

DOACs

Warfarin 2nd line

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192
Q

Actinic keratoses management?

A

Avoid sun

Fluorouracil cream

Topical diclofenac

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193
Q

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

Anaemia
Reticulocytosis
Raised LDH
Low haptoglobin
Blood film- spherocytes and reticulocytes

Specific to autoimmune haemolytic anaemia- positive direct antiglobulin test (Coomb’s test)

Most common type of AIHA- warm AIHA- idiopathic, SLE, neoplasia

Management
Treat underlying disorder
Steroids (+/- rituximab) used 1st line

In cold AIHA usually IgM

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194
Q

PULSELESS ELECTRICAL ACTIVITY?

A

NOT A SHOCKABLE RHYTHM

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195
Q

Investigations for pericarditis?

A

ECG- Saddle shaped ST elevation, PR depression- most specific ECG marker for pericarditis

All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have TRANSTHORACIC ECHOCARDIOGRAPHY

Elevated inflammatory markets and possibly troponin

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196
Q

Treatment of pericarditis?

A

Combination of NSAIDs and colchicine

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197
Q

Sites for venous and arterial ulcer?

A

Venous- above medial malleolus- painless
Compression bandaging

Arterial- occurs on the toes and heel
Punched out appearance
Painful

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198
Q

Difference between somatisation disorder and illness anxiety disorder (hypochondriasis)?

A

Somatisation- worrying about symptoms present for at least 2 year

Illness anxiety disorder- persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease

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199
Q

SSRI and NSAID?

A

GI bleeding risk give a PPI

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200
Q

Rickets vs osteomalacia?

A

Rickets is vitamin D deficiency in children, osteomalacia is vitamin D deficiency in adults

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201
Q

Osteomalacia?

A

Features-
Bone pain
Bone/muscle tenderness
Fractures- especially femoral neck
Proximal myopathy- may lead to waddling gait

Ix-
Low vitamin D levels
Low calcium/phosphate
Raised ALP

X-ray- translucent bands

Vit D supplementation
Calcium supplementation

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202
Q

Retinal detachment?

A

Presence of darkening or shadows in peripheral vision

New flashes and floaters

No pain

Straight lines appear curved

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203
Q

Key features of frontotemporal dementia?

A

Disinhibition- socially inappropriate behaviour
Apathy/inertia
Loss of sympathy/empathy
Perseverative/compulsive behaviours
Hyperorality
Executive dysfunction with relative sparing of memory and visuospatial functions

Onset before 65
Insidious onset
Relatively preserved memory/ visuospatial skills
Personality change and social conduct problems

Not recommended to use AChE inhibitors or memantine in people with frontotemporal dementia

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204
Q

T score interpretation?

A

-1 to -2.5 indicates osteopenia

-2.5 or lower indicates osteoporosis

T score compares to mass of young reference population- Z score is adjusted for age, gender and ethnic factors

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205
Q

Chicken pox complications?

A

Secondary bacterial infections:

NSAIDs may increase the risk

Small area of cellulitis- some patients may have invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections resulting in nec fasc

Rare:
Pneumonia
Encephalitis
Disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox
Arthritis, nephritis and pancreatitis

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206
Q

Can you get anosmia in Parkinson’s?

A

Yes often an early sign

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207
Q

Do you have to have protein urea for pre-eclampsia?

A

No,

The current formal definition is as follows
new-onset blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, AND 1 or more of the following:
proteinuria
other organ involvement (see list below for examples): e.g. renal insufficiency (creatinine ≥ 90 umol/L), liver, neurological, haematological, uteroplacental dysfunction

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208
Q

Upper GI bleed/ ulcer with peritonitis?

A

? Perforated peptic ulcer

Epigastric pain later becoming more generalised

Diagnosis largely clinical

Upright CXR is required with acute upper abdo pain
Many with perforated ulcer will have free air under diaphragm

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209
Q

Insulin sick day rules?

A

Carry it on as normal

Make sure to maintain good fluid intake

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210
Q

Sick day rules for oral hypoglycaemics?

A

Temporarily stop most of them

Metformin
Sulfonylureas
SGLT-2 inhibitors
GLP-1

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211
Q

Impulse control disorders are linked with which type of Parkinson’s medication?

A

Dopamine receptor agonists

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212
Q

Cervical screening?

A

25-49- 3 yearly

50-64- 5 yearly

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213
Q

Chronic alcohol electrolyte disturbance?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

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214
Q

Patient on warfarin/DOAC/bleeding disorder with suspected TIA?

A

Imaging immediately to exclude a haemorrhage

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215
Q

TIA further investigation?

A

Carotid duplex ultrasound if elegible for carotid intervention

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216
Q

CTPA vs V/Q scan?

A

CTPA is preferred

V/Q scan is investigation of choice in renal impairment

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217
Q

Food poisoning organisms?

A

Staph Aureus- Short incubation

Bacillus cereus- rice

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218
Q

Traveller’s diarrhoea cause?

A

E.Coli- watery stools, abdo cramps and nausea

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219
Q

Prolonged bloody diarrhoa?

A

Incubation period > 7 days

Giardiasis- prolonged and NON-bloody

Amoebiasis- gradual onset bloody diarrhoea, abdo pain and tenderness which may last for several weeks

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220
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

May be a discrpancy between peripheral oxygen saturations but they may have low oxygen on a blood gas

Aim for sats of 100%

Questions hint at badly maintained houses

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221
Q

Sepsis catagorisation score?

A

Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA)

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222
Q

When is the lactational amenorrhoea method effective?

A

<6 months post-partum, the women is fully breastfeeding and amenorrhoeic

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223
Q

Screening tool for malnutrition?

A

Malnutrition Universal Screening Tool (MUST)

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224
Q

Positive D-dimer, negative ultrasound in DVT?

A

Stop antigcoagulation, US again in a week

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225
Q

SLE investigations?

A

ANA positive
Anti-dsDNA

ESR to monitor, CRP usually normal unless inefection

Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease

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226
Q

eGFR and opioids in palliative care?

A

<10 = fentanyl/buprenorphine

10-50 = oxycodone

> 50 = morphine

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227
Q

Risk factors for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Female sex
Breech presentation
Positive family history
First born
Oligohydraminos
Birth weight >5kg

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228
Q

DDH screening?

A

Following require routine ultrasound examination:

First-degree family hip problems in early life

Breech presentation at or after 36 weeks, irrespective of presentation at birth or mode of delivery

All infants also screened at newborn and six week check using barlow and ortolani

If infant over 4.5 months then x-ray if first line to look for DDH

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229
Q

Barlow/Ortolani?

A

Balow- attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head

Ortolani- attempts to relocate a dislocated femoral head

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230
Q

DDH management?

A

Most unstable hips spontaneously resolve by 3-6 weeks

If not a Pavlik harness in children younger than 4-5 months

Older children may require surgery

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231
Q

Amiodarone in advanced life support?

A

300mg give after 3 shocks

Further dose of 150mg given after 5 shocks

For those who are in VF/pulseless VT

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232
Q

Is there raised calcium in Paget’s?

A

No

ALP is raised

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233
Q

Reasons for raised calcium in malignancy?

A

PTHrP (PTH related protein) from the tumour

Bone metastases

Myeloma

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234
Q

Two main causes of hypercalcaemia?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Malignancy

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235
Q

What cancer is associated with an unresolving left sided varicocele?

A

Renal tract cancer

Triad of- haematuria, loin pain and abdominal mass

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236
Q

Management renal cell carcinoma?

A

Nephrectomy- maybe partial if T1 tumour

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237
Q

Migraine prophylaxis?

A

Topiramte or propanolol

Propanolol CI in asthmatics

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238
Q

Absent ankle jerks but brisk knee jerks?

A

Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

Also has a positive Romberg’s sign

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239
Q

Monitoring in HSP?

A

BP and urinalysis to detect progressive renal involvement

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240
Q

Nephritic syndrome triad?

A

Oedema, hypertension and haematuria

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241
Q

Meniscal tear key features?

A

Twisting, knee instability, giving way and locking due to displaced meniscal fragments

Thessaly’s test- weigh bearing at 20 degrees of knee fexion, positive if pain on twisting knee

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242
Q

Difference between episcleritis and scleritis?

A

Scleritis is painful wheras episcleritis is not

Scleritis is associated with RA and SLE

Red eye, watering and photophobia are common, gradual decrease in vision

Same day assessment by opthalmologist
NSAIDs may be used first line

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243
Q

Animal bite antibiotic?

A

Co-amoxiclav

If penicillin allergic- doxycycline and metronidazole

Co-amoxiclav also for human bites

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244
Q

Kawasaki disease?

A

High grade fever > 5 days

Conjunctival infection

Bright red, cracked lips

Strawberry tongue

Cervical lymphadenopathy

Red palms on the hands/soles of feet

Clinical diagnosis

Management:
High-dose aspirin
IV immunoglobulin
Echocardiogram

Complications-
Coronary artery syndrome

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245
Q

Raised ICP and LP in meningitis?

A

Contraindicated

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246
Q

Exacerbating factors for myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta blockers
Penicillamine
Lithium
Quinidine
Phenytoin
Antibiotics- gentamicin, macrolides, quinolones, tetracyclines

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247
Q

Meningitis LP?

A

From a comment on another question:
1) Is CSF glucose < half of serum glucose? Yes = bacteria, no = viral
2) Are lymphocytes or polymorphs predominant? Lymphocytes = TB (if bacterial), viral, or fungal. Polymorphs = non-TB bacteria

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248
Q

Most likely cause of irregular broad complex tachycardia in an unstable patient?

A

Atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block

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249
Q

What is penicillamine used for?

A

Wilson’s

Chelates copper

Alternatively- trientine hydrochloride

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250
Q

Causes of erythema nodosum?

A

NO - idiopathic
D - drugs (penicillin sulphonamides)
O - oral contraceptive/pregnancy
S - sarcoidosis/TB
U - ulcerative colitis/Crohn’s disease/Behçet’s disease
M - microbiology (streptococcus, mycoplasma, EBV and more)

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251
Q

RA initial investigations?

A

Antibodies-
Rheumatoid factor

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody (Anti-CCP)- may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of arthritis, much more specific than rheumatoid factor

X-ray of the hands and feet

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252
Q

ANA positive condition?

A

SLE

Also Anti-dsDNA

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253
Q

When do you have to stop drinking clear fluids before surgery?

A

You are allowed to drink up until 2 hours before the operation

Non-clear liquids/fluids is 6 hours before the operation

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254
Q

UTI in the third trimester?

A

Use amoxicillin or cefalexin

Nitrofurantoin CI in the third trimester

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255
Q

Presenting features of biliary atresia?

A

Presents in the first few weeks of life with:

Jaudice- extending beyond the physiological two weeks

Dark urine, pale stools

Appetite and growth disturbance, although may be normal in some cases

Signs-
Jaundice
Hepatomegaly with splenomegaly
Abnormal growth

Conjugated bilirubin is abnormally high

Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment

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256
Q

Massive painless bleed in infant?

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

Congenital diverticulum

Usually asymptomatic- can have abdo pain mimicking appendicitis, rectal bleeding, intestinal obstruction

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257
Q

Urine osmolality after fluid deprivation: Low

Urine osmolality after desmopressin: Low

?

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insupidus

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258
Q

Anticoagulation even after a single episode of resolved AF?

A

Yes- calculate CHADSVASC

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259
Q

A key investigation for acute mesenteric ischaemia?

A

Venous blood gas- would show raised lactate

Also a CT angiogram abdo and pelvis with contrast is needed

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260
Q

Drugs that cause gynaecomastia?

A

DISCO

Digoxin
Isoniazid
Spironolactone
Cimetidie
Oestrogen

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261
Q

COPD not controlled with SABA, LABA and ICS?

A

Triple therapy- LAMA, LABA and ICS

Keep on SABA, switch to SABA if it is a SAMA

Basically add tiotropium- LAMA

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262
Q

What to do before starting azithromycin prophylactically in COPD?

A

ECG to exclude QT prolongation as azithromycin can prolong thw QT interval

Also- CT thorax and sputum culture

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263
Q

Third nerve palsy pupil dilated?

A

Surgical cause- CT head/refer to neurosurgery

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264
Q

What causes Hand, Foot and Mouth disease?

A

Coxsackie, enterovirus

Features:
Mild systemic upset- sore throat, fever
Oral ulcers
Followed by vesicles on the palms and soles of feet

Symptomatic treatment only- no school exclusion

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265
Q

What does fetal fibronectin (fFN) detect?

A

Labour

Highly sensitive, not very specific

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266
Q

Why give steroids if looking like premature labour?

A

To mature the foetal lungs

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267
Q

Marker for neuropaenic sepsis?

A

Known cause of neutropenia and a temperature of >38 degrees

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268
Q

Triad for reactive arthritis?

A

Urethritis, conjunctivitis and arthritis

Post-STI, post-dysenteric

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269
Q

Breast eczema starting at the nipple?

A

If it starts at the nipple- it is Paget’s disease of the breat

If it doesn’t start at the nipple just areola- it is eczema

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270
Q

Differentiate between ductal or lobular carcinoma in situ?

A

Calcification is seen more in ductal than lobular- means it is visible on a mammorgram

Invasive ductal carcinoma are the most common type of breast cancer

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271
Q

Severe hepatitis in pregnany women?

A

Think hepatitis E

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272
Q

Seizure by location?

A

Temporal- rising epigastric sensation, deja vu, jamais vu, (less common auditory, olfactory hallucinations), automatisms are common- lip plucking/smacking/grabbing

Frontal- head/leg movements, posturing, post-ictal weakness, Jacksonian march

Parietal lobe- parasthesia

Occipial lobe- floaters/flashes

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273
Q

When to give baby vaccines in hospital environment?

A

If born before 28 weeks

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274
Q

Characteristic biochemistry for tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcaemia and elevated renal markers- (AKI)

Symptoms- Nausea, vomiting, weakness, muscle cramps

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275
Q

LP findings in Guillain-Barre?

A

Rise in protein with a normal WCC

Also, nerve conduction studies, decresed motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination

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276
Q

Women between 16-32 weeks pregnant vaccine?

A

Whooping cough

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277
Q

Cyanaotic heart diseases and what to give before surgery?

A

Prostoglandin E1- maintains the ductus arteriosus

It is useful to remember the 5 T’s for cyanotic congenital heart diseases (CHD):
Tetralogy of fallot
Transposition of great vessels (TGA)
Tricuspid atresia
Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Truncus arteriosus

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278
Q

What closes the ductus arteriosis?

A

NSAIDs- indomethacin

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279
Q

Test to differentiate normal neonatal cyanosis from cardiac causes?

A

The nitrogen washout test

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280
Q

Chlamydia key symptoms?

A

Discharge, bleeding, dysuria

Investigation- vulvovaginal swab for NAAT

Men- urine first void sample

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281
Q

Perthe’s under 5?

A

No treatment usually resolves

If over 5- surgery

Hip pain over a few weeks, limp, stiffness and reduced range of movement

X-ray- early changes

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282
Q

Most common neurological infection seen in HIV?

A

Cerebral toxoplasmosis

2nd is CNS lymphoma

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283
Q

Cerebral toxoplasmosis symptoms?

A

Constitutional symptoms, headache, confusion, drowsiness

CT usually shows single or multiple ring enhancing lesions, mass effect may be seen

Management: sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

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284
Q

CNS lymphoma (related to HIV and EBV)?

A

Single lesion, solid (homogenous) enhancement
Thallium SPECT positive (cerebral toxoplasmosis is negative)

Treat with dexamethasone, chemotherapy with or without whole brain irradiation

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285
Q

Other neuro diseases in HIV?

A

Encephalitis

Cryptococcus- most common fungal infection of CNS

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

AIDS dementia complex

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286
Q

X-ray for osteoarthritis?

A

LOSS-
Loss of joint space (joint space narrowing)

Osteophyte formation

Sclerosis

Subchondral cysts

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287
Q

What is the SAAG calculation to get the SAAG number?

A

Serum albumin- ascites albumin

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288
Q

Different types of shock?

A

Septic

Haemorrhagic

Neurogenic

Cardiogenic

Anaphylactic

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289
Q

EVAR or Open surgery for AAA?

A

Seems to be

Open surgery- emergency or if no other major risk factors

EVAR- if have risk factors for surgery

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290
Q

Treatment of methotrexate toxicity?

A

Folinic acid

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291
Q

Cremaster reflex absent on affected side, pain worsens on elevation?

A

Testicular torsion

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292
Q

Elevation of testes relieves the pain + urinary symptoms?

A

Epididymyitis

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293
Q

How to remember the effects of changing sodium rapidly?

A

Sodium high to low- the brain will blow- cerebral oedema

Sodium low to high- the pons will die- central pontine myelinosis/osmotic demyelination syndrome

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294
Q

Raised bilirubin, raised reticulocytes, anaemia with low MCV

A

Beta-thalassaemia

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295
Q

Orbital cellulitis?

A

Unilateral swelling of the eye accompanied by proptosis and reduced eye movements

May also be pain and other visual changes

Medical emergency- admission to hospital, senior review and IV antibiotics

CT with contrast sometimes used
FBC
Clinical examination mainy
Swab for culture

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296
Q

Treatment for otitis media with effusion (Glue ear)?

A

First presentation- active observation for 3 months

Grommets

Adenoidectomy

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297
Q

Organic corneal foreign body?

A

If an organic thing is stuck in the eye- refer to opthalmology

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298
Q

When does HIV seroconversion occur?

A

3-12 weeks

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299
Q

Pneumonia causative organisms?

A

Klepsiella (KlepSTELLA) - alcoholics

Streptococcus pneumoniae - most common cause for CAP.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae - atypical, associated with erythema multiforme, haemolytic anaemia, ITP, diagnose with serology.

Legionella pneumophila - another atypical, lymphopenia and hyponatraemia, recent holiday (air conditioning units), diagnose with urinary antigen.

Staphylococcus aureus - most common in people after recent influenza infection

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300
Q

Can essential tremor affect your voice?

A

Yes it can, soft and shaky with rhythmic changes

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301
Q

Things that SLE causes?

A

SOAP BRAIN MD

Serositis - Pleurisy, pericarditis
Oral ulcers
Arthritis
Photosensitivity
Blood disorders
Renal involvement
Antinuclear antibodies
Immunologic phenomena
Neurologic disorder
Malar rash
Discoid rash

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302
Q

Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test in syphilis?

A

How many times a solution has to be diluted so that the syphillis is undetectable
1 in 2
1 in 8 etc

If it goes up on the repeat test- more dilutions needed- syphilis not treated successfully

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303
Q

Anion gap calculation?

A

(Sodium + Potassium - (Chloride + Bicarbonate)

Normal anion gap is 8-14

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304
Q

Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

GI bicarb loss- diarrhoea
Renal tubular acidosis
Drugs- acetazolamide
Addison’s

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305
Q

Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

Lactate- shock, hypoxia
Ketones- DKA, alcohol
Urate- renal failure
Acid poisoning- salicylates, methanol

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306
Q

Way to tell if NG tube positioned correctly on a CXR?

A

If below diaphragm- if where lung is not positioned correctly probably

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307
Q

Are children with minimal change disease likely to have another episode?

A

2/3 do

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308
Q

First line analgesia for shingles?

A

Paracetamol and NSAIDs

Amitriptyline if not responding

Oral corticosteroids may be considered in first 2 weeks if pain is severe and not responding to other treatments

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309
Q

Guillain-Barre LP?

A

High protein with a normal WCC

Other investigations:

Nerve conduction studies- decreased motor nerve conduction velocity (due to demyelination)

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310
Q

What needs to be done in patients starting long term steroids (over 3 months)?

A

First- correct any hypocalcaemia/ vitamin D deficiency

Then give a bisphospohonate when the above has been done if needed

Hypocalcaemia/vitamin D deficiency needs to be corrected before starting a bisphosphonate

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311
Q

First line for campylobacter treatment?

A

Usually self limiting

Treatment if severe symptoms (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day), symptoms have lasted more than 1 week or immunocompromised

First line is clarithromycin

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312
Q

Placenta praevia what is CI?

A

If it is a possible diagnosis (previous scan shows low placenta, high presenting part on abdominal examination or the bleed had been painless)

Digital vaginal examination should not be performed until an ultrasound has excluded placenta praevia

You can however do a speculum however this is not diagnostic for placenta praevia

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313
Q

Placenta praevia management?

A

If low-lying at 20-week scan:
Rescan at 32 weeks
No need to limit activity/intercourse unless they bleed
If still presentat 32 weeks then scan every 2 weeks
Final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks to determine the method of delivery
Elective caesarean for grades III/IV between 37-38 weeks, if grade I then can trial vaginal

I know PP goes into labour prior to elective caesarean do an emergency caesarean

PP with bleeding
Admit
ABC
Not stable- emergency caesarean
In labour/term reached- emergency caesarean

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314
Q

Do they screen for Hep B in pregnancy?

A

Yes

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315
Q

Vaginal candidiasis treatment?

A

Oral fluconazole for single dose

Clotrimazole intravaginal pessary single dose if oral therapy contraindicated

If pregnant only local treatments

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316
Q

Infantile colic vs spasms?

A

Colic- child distressed during spasms

Spasms- distressed between spasms- EED- hypsarrhythmia commonly found in West’s syndrome

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317
Q

X-ray findings in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and squaring of vertebrae

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318
Q

Leukaemias?

A

ALL- most common in children
AML- mostly adults, auer rods, ATRA
CLL- Most common leukaemia overall, can transform to Non-hodgkin lymphoma (Richter transformation), smudge cells
CML- Philadelphia chromosome, Imatinib

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319
Q

Drugs exacerbating psoriasis?

A

Beta blcokers
Lithium
Alcohol
NSAIDs
ACEi
Antimalarials (Quines)

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320
Q

Which drugs can cause hypomagnesaemia?

A

Diuretics

Proton pump inhibitors

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321
Q

Most common organism generally in UK and in IVDUs in infective endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus

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322
Q

Tricyclic vs SSRI overdose ECG?

A

Tricyclic- widening of the QRS

SSRIs- prolongation of the QT

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323
Q

Opening snap?

A

Mitral stenosis

Operating System is MicroSoft

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324
Q

Fragility fracture in those over 75 years old?

A

Start bisphosphonate without the need for a DEXA scan

Wait until fracture healed to start bisphosphonate and check vit D/ calcium levels/correct them before starting

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325
Q

Chronic insomnia?

A

Trouble falling or staying asleep at least three nights per week for 3 months or longer

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326
Q

What is fostair and trimbow?

A

Fostair- inhaler with LABA and ICS

Trimbow- inhaler with LABA + LAMA + ICS

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327
Q

Alcohol withdrawl with liver cirrhosis?

A

Lorazepam not chlordiazepoxide

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328
Q

Why does an alcohol binge lead to polyuria?

A

ADH suppression in the posterior pituitary gland

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329
Q

Conducive hearing loss?

A

Anything stopping the sound getting to the ear- could be earwax

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330
Q

Allopurinol and ACEi?

A

Contraindicated

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331
Q

Oesophageal cancers?

A

Upper 2 thirds- squamous cell carcinoma (smoking, achalasia, alcohol)

Lower third- adenocarcinoma- Barrett’sn GORD

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332
Q

Open angle glaucoma management?

A

360 selective laser trabeculoplasty 1st line to people with IOP 24 or more

Prostaglandin analogue eyedrops should be used next-line

Next:
Bet-blocker eyedrops
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor eye drops
Sympathomimetic eye drops

Surgery- trabeculectomy in refractory cases

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333
Q

Prostoglandin analogues?

A

Latanoprost

Increases uveoscleral outflow

Adverse effects- brown pigmentation of the iris, increased eyelash length

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334
Q

Beta-blockers- eye drops?

A

Timolol, betaxolol

Reduces aqueous production

Avoided in asthmatics or heart block

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335
Q

Sympathomimetics- eye drops?

A

Brimonidine

Reduces aqueous production and increases outflow

Avoid if taking MAOI or tricyclic

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336
Q

Haematuria malignancies?

A

Renal cell carincoma- painful or painless

Urothelial malignancies- 90% are transitional cell carcinoma- can occur anywhere along the urinary tract- painless haematuria

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337
Q

Symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A

Hypertension, tachycardia, flushing and sweating, hyperflexia, clonus and muscle rigidity, fever, change in mental status- agitation

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338
Q

Drugs causing serotonin syndrome?

A

Tramadol, SSRIs, MAOIs, triptans and St Johns wort

Discontinue drugs and can give a benzodiazapine for agitation

5-HT antagonists- cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine are sometimes administered

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339
Q

Can tramadol cause serotonin syndrome?

A

Yes

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340
Q

What is PCP related to HIV?

A

Pneumocyctic jiroveci pneumonioa

All patients with CD4 count under 200 should recieve PCP prophylaxis

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340
Q

PCP features?

A

Dyspnoea
Dry cough
Fever
Very few chest signs

Pneumothorax common

CXR typically bilateral interstitial pulmonary infliltrates
Exercise-induced desaturation

Management- co-trimoxazole

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341
Q

C-peptide?

A

Made with insulin in the pancreas

C-peptide levels low in T1DM

High/normal in T2DM

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342
Q

Investigation for T2DM for over 40 who respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents?

A

C-peptide levels

Diabetes-specific autoantibodies

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343
Q

Neoplastic spinal cord compression?

A

(Cancer symptoms)

Back pain- progressive, not relieved when lying down, worse when straining
Reduced lower limb power and diminshed pinprick sensation

Give dexamethasone and urgent MRI within 24 hours

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344
Q

Child with hip pain and fever?

A

Refer for same-day assessment- potential for septic arthritis

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345
Q

Dementia diagnosis?

A

Blood screen

Neuroimaging- MRI

Both before a diagnosis can be made

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346
Q

If hypomagnesemia and hypokalaemia?

A

Treat/replace the magnesium first before the potassium

Hypomagnesemia prevents potassium absorption

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347
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism most common cause?

A

Solitary adenoma

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348
Q

Can statins cause rhabdomyolysis?

A

Yes

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349
Q

Rhabdomyolysis treatment?

A

IV fluids

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350
Q

Symptoms of oesophageal candidiasis?

A

Dysphagia can be a symptom

Hisotry of HIV or steroid inhaler use

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351
Q

Levodopa adverse effects from dosage?

A

End-of-dose wearing off- symptoms worsen towards the end of dosage interval

On-off phenomenon- large variations in motor performance

Dyskinesias at peak dose- dystonia, chorea and athetosis

Do not stop levodopa acutely- if you do dopamine agonist patch as rescue medication if cannot take orally

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352
Q

DVLA and psych?

A

Generally cannot drive during acute illness

Can drive again if well and table for at least 3 months
Adheres adequately to any agreed treatment plan
Free from medication that would impair driving
Subject to a suitable specialist report being favourable

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353
Q

Angiodema medication?

A

ACEi

A- Angiodema
C- Cough
E- Elevated potassium

i- 1st dose hypertension

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354
Q

Drugs making psoriasis worse?

A

BLANQ

B- beta-blockers
L- Lithium
A- ACEi
N- NSAIDs
Q- Quinines

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355
Q

Can smokers have a raised carboxyhaemoglobin without CO poisoning?

A

Yes- up to 10%

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356
Q

Optic neuritis?

A

CRAP
Central scotoma
Relative afferent pupillary defect
Acuity- unilateral decrease in visual acuity over hours/days
Pain worse on eye movement

Poor discrimination of colours- red desaturation

Ix- MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is diagnostic in most cases

Management- high dose steroids

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357
Q

Hip fracture management?

A

Intracapsular hip fracture:

Undisplaced- fit- internal fixation, unfit- hemiarthroplasty

Displaced- Arthroplasty if fit, hemiparthroplasty if unfit

Extracapsular hip fracture
Stable interrochanteric fractures- dynamic hip screw
If reverse oblique, transverse or subtrochanteric- intramedullary device

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358
Q

Croup emergency treatment?

A

High-flow oxygen

Nebulised adrenaline

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359
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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360
Q

When do you have to stop eating non-clear liquids/food before surgery?

A

6 hours before

Clear liquids is 2 hours before

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361
Q

Unilateral glue ear in adult?

A

Refer on 2 week wait

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362
Q

Correction of sodium pneumonic?

A

From High to Low your brain will blow = Cerebral oedema
From Low to High your brain will die = Central pontine myelinolysis

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363
Q

Anti- HBs

Anti-HBc

In hepatitis B?

A

Anti-HBs = Safe (Have immunity so either immunised or previously exposed, -ve in chronic disease)

Anti -HBc = Caught (acquired infection at some point rather than immunised)

HBsAg- Ongoing infection

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364
Q

Anion gap?

A

↑AG → basically when you have added some acid (lactate, ketones, urate, aspirin, methanol)
↔AG → ABCD: Addisons; Bicarb loss (GI, RTA); Chloride (e.g. saline); Drugs (acetazolamide)

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365
Q

Bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia treatment?

A

Aldosterone antagonist- Spironolactone

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366
Q

FeverPAIN?

A

Fever
P- Purulent tonsils
A- Adenopathy and comes on quick <3days
I- Inflamed tonsils
N- No cough or coryza

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367
Q

Headaches worst in the morning and when lying down?

A

Raised ICP

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368
Q

Treatment for MRSA positive on surgical screening?

A

Nasal mupirocin + chlorexidine for the skin

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369
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease treatment?

A

IM ceftriaxone stat + 14 days of oral doxycycline + oral metronidazole

2nd- Oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole

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370
Q

How do pancoast tumours cause a hoarse voice?

A

They suppress the recurrent laryngeal nerve

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371
Q

Gonorrhoea organism?

A

Gram-negative diplococci

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372
Q

CBT for schizophrenia?

A

Yes

Schizophrenia management-
Oral atypical antipsychotics are first -line

CBT offered to all patients

Close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to high rates in schizophrenic patients

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373
Q

When to send a urine culture in non-pregnant women wit hUTI?

A

Over 65

Visible or non-visible haematuria

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374
Q

Does psoriatic arthritis need to have skin changes?

A

No

Often precedes the development of skin lesions

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375
Q

Psoriatic arthritis vs ankylosing spondylitis?

A

DIP joint involvement + dactylitis + enthesitis = Think Psoriatic Arthritis.

Back pain and sacroiliitis without peripheral joint involvement = Think Ankylosing Spondylitis.

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376
Q

First line treatment for PAD?

A

Statin- if established CVD

Antiplatelet- clopidogrel is first-line in patients with PAD

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377
Q

Stable angina investigations?

A

1st- contrast-enhanced CT coronary angiography

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378
Q

Good way to check whether blurred vision is retractive or not?

A

Pinhole occluders

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379
Q

What suggests a recently passed stone if not one on scan?

A

Periureteric fat stranding

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380
Q

Menorrhagia treatment?

A

Doesn’t need contraception: mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid- both started on first day of period

Requires contraception- IUS- mirena first line
COCP
Long-acting progestogens

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381
Q

Hoffman and Hoover tests?

A

HoFFman- finger flick- to see if reflex of index finger is exaggerated or not

hOOver- differentiates between organic and non-organic paresis of the leg

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382
Q

LESS vs LOSS- RA and OA?

A

Radiological features of RA: LESS
L: loss of joint space
E: erosions (late sign) as eroded something takes a while
S: soft tissue swelling
S: soft bones (osteopenia) (early sign)

Radiological features of OA: LOSS
L: loss of joint space
O: osteophytes
S: subchondral cysts
S: subchondral sclerosis

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383
Q

When fluid restriction in ascites?

A

If the sodium is <125mmol/L

Spironolactone- especially if liver cirrhosis

Drainage if tense ascites- large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover

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384
Q

Drug of choice in palliative care for reducing the discomfort of a painful mouth?

A

Benzydamine hydrochloride (mouthwash or spray)

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385
Q

Post MI- left ventricular aneurysm?

A

Persistent ST elevating and left ventricular failure

Thrombus may form within the aneurysm increase stroke risk- patient must be anticoagulated

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386
Q

Features of serotonin syndrome?

A

Sweating, tremor, confusion and hyperreflexia

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387
Q

Blood stained nipple discharge?

A

Intraductal papilloma

Common in younger patients

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388
Q

Thick, green nipple discharge, non-bloody?

A

Mammary duct ectasia

Most common in menopausal women

Smokers

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389
Q

FSH/LH in developmental disorders?

A

KALLman- FALL (Low FSH & LH)

TURNer- TURNed up (High FSH/LH)

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390
Q

HIV diagnosis?

A

HIV antibodies
p24 antigen

Combination tests- (HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody) are now standard for HIV diagnosis and screening

Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure

After an initial negative result when testing for HIV in an asymptomatic patient, offer a repeat test at 12 weeks

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391
Q

Vision colour change after drugs?

A

Sildenafil- blue tinge to vision called cyanopsia

Digoxin- can cause visual disturbances such as blurry vision, halos around lights and yellow-greeen colour perception

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392
Q

Treatment for legionella?

A

Erythromycin/clarithromycin

Diagnostic test of choice- urinary antigen

May be a hyponatremia present

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393
Q

Woman over 30 with unexplained breast lump?

A

Urgent referral using suspected cancer pathway

If under 30 it would be a non urgent referral

Refer if over 50 with discharge, retraction or other changes in one nipple

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394
Q

Oral or IV aciclovir for chickenpox in pregnancy?

A

Oral aciclovir

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395
Q

PMS managment?

A

Mild- lifestyle advice

Moderate- new generation COCP- Yasminu (drospirenone 3mg and ethinylestradiol)

Severe- SSRI- continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle

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396
Q

Two key investigations for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Rheumatoid factor

Anti-CCP

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397
Q

First line for muscle spasticity in multiple sclerosis?

A

Baclofen, Gabapentin

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398
Q

First line for reducing risk of relapse in MS?

A

Natalizumab

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399
Q

Specific drugs in MS?

A

Fatigue- exclude other problems- amantadine

Spasticity- baclofen and gabapentin first line

Bladder dysfunction- ultrasound first to assess bladder emptying
If significant residual volume- intermittent self-catheterisation
If no significant resifual volume- anticholinergics may improve frequency

Oscillopsia (visual fields appear to oscillate)- gabapentin is first line

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400
Q

Amiodarone in ALS?

A

300mg after 3 shocks

Further dose of 150mg for after 5 shocks

For patients in VF/pulseless VT

Lidocaine is an alternative if amiodarone is not available

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401
Q

Drugs causing torsades de points (long QT and polymorphic ventricular tachycardia)?

A

ABCDE

A- AntiArrythmetics
B- AntiBiotics
C- AntiCychotics
D- AntiDepressants
E- AntiEmetics

Basically
Tricyclics
Antipsychotics
Erythromycin
Hypothermia
Subarachnoid haemorhage
Chloroquine

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402
Q

Pre-eclampsia tirad?

A

New-onset hypertension

Proteinuria

Oedema

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403
Q

How is osteomyelitis diagnosed?

A

MRI

Osteomriitis

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404
Q

Remember diabetic foot ulcer can lead to osteomyelitis

A

/

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405
Q

First line antiemetic for nausea and vomiting due to raised ICP?

A

Cyclizine

Dexamethasone can also be used

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406
Q

How long c.diff stay in a side room?

A

Until at least 48 hours after last episode of diarrhoea

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407
Q

Developmental dysplasia of the hip?

A

Ultrasound- unless over 4.5 months and then x-ray

Management-
Most spontaneously stabilise by 3-6 weeks of age

Pavlik harness- children younger than 4-5 months

Older children my require surgery

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408
Q

Diagnostic investigation for lymphoma?

A

Excisional node biopsy- Burkitt’s starry sky appearance

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409
Q

Thiazides side effects?

A

HyperGLUC

High glucose
High lipids
High uric acid
High calcium (but low in urine so can be used for stones)

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410
Q

Lung cancers and paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

SCLC
ADH
ACTH
Lambert-Eaton syndrome

SCC
Parathyroid hormone-related protein

Adenocarcinoma
Gynaecomastia

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411
Q

Does the malar rash spare nasolabial folds in SLE?

A

Yes

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412
Q

Most important opioid conversions to remember?

A

PO morphine to SC- divide by 2

PO codeine to PO morphine- divide by 10

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413
Q

Heart failure and hypertension?

A

Cannot give CCBs such as nifedipine

Only amlodipine

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414
Q

Under 3 with a limp?

A

Specialist referral

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415
Q

When to refer for carotid endarterectomy in TIA/stroke?

A

Within the distribution of the carotid artery

50-99% stenosis evaluated for possible enarterectomy

The endarterectomy should be performed on the side of the brain that had the stroke- so if symptoms on the right hand side do it on the left

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416
Q

TIA preferred investigation?

A

MRI- including diffusion-weighted and blood-sensitive

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417
Q

Side effects of lithium?

A

LITHIUM

Lethargy
Insipidus (diabetes)
Tremor
Hypothyroidism
Insider (gastrointestinal)
Urine (increased)
Metallic taste

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418
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Purple papules or plaques on the skin or muscosa

Caused by HHV-8

Link to HIV

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419
Q

Side effects of levothyroxine therapy?

A

Hyperthyroidism- overtreatment

Reduced bone mineral density

Worsening of angina

AF

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420
Q

Levothyroxine interactions?

A

Iron, calcium carbonate

Absorption of levothyroxine is reduced, give at least 4 hours apart

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421
Q

Loop and end stoma difference?

A

Loop has two openings

End has one

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422
Q

Malnutrition criteria?

A

BMI less than 18.5

Unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months

BMI of less than 20 and unintentional weight loss greater than 5% within the last 3-6 months

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423
Q

Puerperal pyrexia?

A

Causes:

Endometritis- most common
UTI
Wound infections- perineal tears + caesarean section
Mastitis
VTE

If endometritis suspected patient should be referred to hospital for IV antibiotics (clindamycin and gentamicin) until afebrile for greater than 24 hours

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424
Q

HIV and adrenal insufficiency?

A

Adrenal insufficiency affects around 10% of HIV patients

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425
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis other name?

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis

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426
Q

After the menopause breast cancer?

A

Anastrozole/Letrozole

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427
Q

Haemorrhageg after tonsillectomy?

A

Primary haemorrhage- occurs within the first 6-8 hours folowing surgery- immediate return to theatre

Secondary haemorrhage- 5-10 days after surgery- associated with wound infection- admission and antibiotics

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428
Q

Lower lobe fibrosis causes? (everything else assume upper zone)

A

DAIM
Drugs- amiodarone + bleomycin + methotrexate
Asbestosis
Idiopathic
Most connective tissue disorders except ankylosing spondylitis

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429
Q

Occupational asthma investigation?

A

Serial measurements of peak expiratory flow at and away from work

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430
Q

Is abnormal head impulse test in HiNTs exam vestibular neuronitis or posterior circulation stroke syndrome?

A

Vestibular neuronitis

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431
Q

Impaired fasting glucose/impaired glucose tolerance?

A

Impaired fasting clucose- 6.1-7

Impaired glucose tolerance- OGTT 2-hour value 7.8-11.1

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432
Q

Aspirin or no aspirin in TIA?

A

Aspirin

If on blood thinners get a CT head first to rule out haemorrhage even though symptoms have resolved

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433
Q

Malaria symptoms?

A

Intermittent fevers, myalgia and headaches

Thrombocytopenia and presence of trophozoites on a blood film

If falciparum malaria give aresunate

If not falciparum can also give chloroquine

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434
Q

Hypocalcaemia ECG?

A

Prolonged QT

Rememver Trousseau’s and Chvostek’s sign

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435
Q

Different types of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Most common- nodular sclerosing

Best prognosis- lymphocyte predominant

Worst prognosis- lymphocyte depleted

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436
Q

Hypercalcaemia ECG?

A

Shortening of the QT interval

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437
Q

Haemophillia and factors?

A

Haemophilia A- VII (8)

Haemophilia B- IX (9)

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438
Q

PITS and optic radiations?

A

PITS refers to the visual field- Parietal inferior, temporal superior.

Optic radiatons are opposite so it would be a superior optic radiation in the parietal lobe

439
Q

Coarse crackles, haemoptysis, clubbing, persistent productive cough, SOB, wheezing?

A

Bronchiectasis

Permanent dilatation of the airways secondary to chronic infection or inflammation

440
Q

Back pain with bilateral leg neurological symptoms?

A

Lumbar discitis or abscess

On a background of fever/sepsis

441
Q

Gluttae psoriasis?

A

After an infection

‘Tear drop’, scaly papules on trunk and limbs

Most cases resolve spontaenously within 2-3 months

Reassure and topical agents if symptomatic

442
Q

Anticoagulants in STEMI?

A

Always aspirin

If PCI, then prasugrel (the Ps)

If thrombolysis, then ticagrelor (the Ts)

If on anti-coagulants then clopidogrel (the Cs)

443
Q

Neuropathic pain?

A

Do not stack drugs

Switch from one monotherapy to another

(diabetic neuropathy, post-herpatic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, prolapsed intervertebral disc)

First line- amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin

If first line doesn’t work tey one of the other three- switch don’t add

Tramadol can be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain

444
Q

Most common cancer for tumour lysis ayndrome?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

Starry sky appearance on microscopy

Linked to Epstein-Barr virus

445
Q

Traveller’s diarrhoea?

446
Q

Antivirals for shingles?

A

Yes, for the majority of patients within 72 hours unless under 50 with mild pain and rash and no underlying features

Antivirals reduce the incidence of post-herpatic neuralgia

447
Q

Bipolar types?

A

Type I disorder- mania and depression- most common

Type II disorder- hypomania and depression

448
Q

Test for squint?

A

Corneal light reflection test

Screening test for squint

449
Q

What is amblyopia?

A

The brain fails to fully process inputs from one eye and over time favours the other eye

450
Q

Types of squint?

A

Concomitant- imbalance in extraocular muscles- convergent more common than divergent

Paralytic- due to paralysis of extraocular muscles

451
Q

BV treatment?

A

Oral metronidazole 5-7 days- even throughout pregnancy

Topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin are alternatives

452
Q

Eczema herpeticum?

A

Worsening of eczema that requires IV antivirals

Severe primary infection with HSV 1 or 2

Children with history of atopic eczrema and a rapidly progressing painful rash

453
Q

How does myoglobinuria cause renal failure?

A

Tubular cell necrosis

454
Q

How much to increase morphine by each time?

455
Q

Disease with symptoms that mimic peripheral arterial disease but pain gets better/worse when walking uphill/downhill?

A

Lumbar spinal stenosis

Claudication symptoms- sitting bettwe than standing and easier to walk uphill rather than downhill

456
Q

Aspirin overdose?

A

Ringing in ears

Starts as a respiratory alkalosis- simulation of resp centre- turns into a metabolic acidosis- salicylic acid

457
Q

Peptic ulcer disease with perforation?

A

No OGD

Do an erect chest x-ray to look for air under the diaphragm

458
Q

Critical limb ischaemia vs acute limb-threatening ischaemia?

A

Critical limb ischemia- more chronic comes on over time

Acute limb-threatening ischaemia- more sudden onset

459
Q

Raised CRP and white cells after surgery?

A

Generally to be expected

460
Q

Common pneumonia after influenza infection?

461
Q

Painful genital ulceration vs painless genital ulceration?

A

Painful- genital herpes

Painless- syhphilis

462
Q

Investigation for genital herpes?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

Painful genital ulceration- primary infection more severe than recurrent episodes

Management-
Saline, analgesia, topical anaesthetic agents
Oral aciclovir

463
Q

ROSIER socre?

A

-1- loss of conciousness/syncope
-1 seizure activity

+1- asymmetric facial weakness
+1- asymmetric arm weakness
+1- asymmetric leg weakness
+1- speech disturbance
+1- visual field defect

464
Q

Bell’s palsy where facial paralysis shows no sign of improvement after 3 weeks?

A

Refer urgently to ENT

465
Q

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis?

A

Sheath containing extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons are inflamed
Affects females 30-50 years old

Pain on radial side of the wrist
Tenderness over the radial styloid process
Abduction of the thumb against resistance is painful

Finkelstein’s test- the examiner pulls the thumb of the patient in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction. Patient with tenosynovitis pain over radial styloid process and along the length of extensor pollisis brevis and abductor pollicis longus

Management-
Analgesia
Steroid injection
Immobilisation with thumb splint
Surgical treatment

466
Q

Herpes 1 and 2?

A

HSV 1- most likely oral (cold sores)

HSV 2- most likely genital herpes

467
Q

What to screen for when starting rituximab?

A

Could be for lymphoma treatment

Screen for hepatitis B

468
Q

Which drugs do you screen for TB before starting?

A

Infliximab

Etanercept

469
Q

Which cranial nerves are affected by vestibular schwannomas?

A

Cranial nerves V, VII and VIII

Vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus
Absent corneal reflex
Facial palsy

470
Q

Pott’s fracture?

A

Bimalleolar ankle fracture

Forced foot eversion

471
Q

How long to be a depressive episode?

472
Q

Recurrent episode of C.difficile within how long give oral fidaxomicin?

A

Recurrent episode within 12 weeks- initially treated with oral vancomycin

473
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome?

A

Complication of pelvic inflammatory disease

Liver capsure becomes inflamed causing right upper quadrant pain

Occurs in chlamydia or gonorrhoea

474
Q

Gluttate psoriasis?

A

Can be triggered by streptococcal throat infection

475
Q

CLL and new B-symptoms?

A

Richter’s transformation- change from CLL to large cell lymphoma

476
Q

Way to remember the salter classification?

A

SALTR

S- straight through
A- above
L- lower
T- through all three
R- rammed (crush or something)

477
Q

Schistosomiasis is associated with which type of cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

478
Q

Tests important when starting TB drugs?

A

Liver funcion test

Optic and renal tests for ethambutol

Other drugs can all cause hepatitis

479
Q

Ankle fratures management?

A

Weber A- CAM boot with weight bearing
Weber B- radiograph to assess syndesmosis + mortis for ankle stability. If instability- surgery. If not, CAM boot
Weber C- fracture will most likely involve syndesmosis and ankle instability- requires surgery- ORIF

480
Q

Ottawa ankle rules?

A

X-rays only necessary if there is pain in the mallleolar zone and- inability to weight bear for 4 steps
Tenderness over the distal tibia
Bone tenderness over the distal fibula

481
Q

Hand preference before what age is abnormal?

482
Q

Milestone referral points?

A

No smile at 10 weeks
Cannot sit unsupported at 12 months
Cannot walk at 18 months

Hand preference before 12 months abnormal- may indicate cerebral palsy

483
Q

Epididymo-orchitis?

A

Infection of the epididymis +/- testes resulting in pain and swelling
Subacute onset of testicular pain and swelling associated with dysuria
Pain relieved by elevating testes (positive Prehn’s sign) which would be negative in torsion

Unilateral testicular pain swelling
Urethral discharge may be present but often urethritis is asymptomatic

Investigations- in younger adults assess for STI, in older adults with low-risk sexual history- send a mid-stream urine for microscopy and culture

Management-
If STI urgent referral to sexual heealth clinic- ceftriaxone and doxcycline

If enteric organisms ssend MSU- treat with oral quinolone (ofloxacin) for 2 weeks

484
Q

Pleural effusion- chest drain or aspirate first?

A

Aspirate first then chest train

Resulting management determined by aspirate-
If exudate/empyema then drain
If transudate then can be medially managed without chest drain

Pleural fluid that is purulent or turbid/cloudy or clear with a pH less than 7.2 a chest drain should be placed

485
Q

Campylobacter antibiotic management?

A

Often self limiting

But clarithromycin

If you want to get rid of camper, put some mycin their tent

Clarithromycin for atypical bacteria

486
Q

6 Ps of acute limb ischaemia?

A

Pale
Pain
Pulseless
Perishingly cold
Paraesthesia
Paralysis

487
Q

Management of acute limb-threatening ischaemia?

A

Initial management-
ABC approach
Analgesia - IV opioid often used
IV unfractionated heparin is usually given to prevent thrombus propagation, paticularly if patient unsuitable for immediate surgery
Vascular review

Definitive management:
Intra-arterial thrombolysis
Surgical embolectomy
Angioplasty
Bypass surgery
Amputation- for patients with irreversible ischaemia

488
Q

What would q waves in lead II, III, aVF indicate?

A

Previous inferior MI

(Q waves are a sign of previous myocardial infarction)

489
Q

Wellen syndrome?

A

Critical stenosis of LAD- chest pain resolves but still need immediate coronary angiography or PCI

Deep T wave inversion or biphasic T waves in V2-V3

490
Q

Many characteristic circular target lesions?

A

Erythema multiform- target lesions initially seen on the back of hands/feet before spreading to the torso

Causes- viruses
Idiopathic
Bacteria- mycoplasma
Drugs- penicillin, sulphonamides, carbamazepine, allopurinol
CTD
Sarcoidosis
Malignancy

491
Q

Oral cancer virus association?

A

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

492
Q

PCOS hormone results?

A

Raised LH:FSH ratio
Testosterone normal or mildly elevated
SHBG is normal to low

493
Q

Rotterdam criteria for PCOS?

A

2 of 3:

Infrequent or no ovulation

Clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, acne or elevated levels of total or free testosterone)

Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan (presence of more than 12 follicles) in one or both ovaries and/or increased ovarian volume

494
Q

3 days fever, then 3 days rash?

A

6th disease- roseola infantum

Caussed by human herpes virus 6 (HHV6)

495
Q

CKD mineral bone disease?

A

CKD causes low vitamin D and high phosphate

High phosphate causes osteomalacia
Low calcium due to the lack of vit D, high phosphate

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

Management:
Reduce dietary intake of phosphate is first-line
Phosphate binders
Vit D
Parathyroidectomy in some cases

Phosphate binders- sevelamer

496
Q

Osteomalacia presentation?

A

Lack of bone mineralisation- most common cause is a lack of vitamin D- malabsorption/lack of sunlight/poor diet

Diffuse bone pain and tenderness, proximal myopathy and a waddling gait

Termed rickets in children, osteoamlacia in adults

Bloods- low vit D, low calcium, raised ALP

Vit D supplementation

497
Q

Ocular trauma?

A

Hyphema (blood in the anterior chamber of the eye) warrants urgent referral to an opthalmic specialist

Main risk is raised intraocular pressure- blockage of angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes

Assessment for orbital compartment syndrome
Eye pain/swelling
Proptosis
Rock hard eyelids
Relevant afferent pupillary defect

Management- urgent lateral canthotomy to decompress the orbit

498
Q

Drug treatment for stroke?

A

Aspirin for first 14 days

Clopidogrel after that lifelong

499
Q

What blood marker rises after an acute episode of anaphylaxis?

A

Serum tryptase

500
Q

PTSD drug treatment?

A

Venlafaxine or SSRI

501
Q

Markers for cancer?

A

CA-125- Ovarian
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)- colorectal
Alpha-fetoprotein- Testicular and hepato
CA19-9- Pancreas
CA15-3- Breast

502
Q

Unilateral polyps in the nose?

A

Refer to ENT

503
Q

Nasal polyposis associations?

A

Samter’s triad

Asthma, aspirin sensitivity and nasal polyposis

Unilateral or bleeding refer

Topical corticosteroids can shrink polyp in size

504
Q

Which hepatitis strains increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Strains B, C, D

505
Q

Management for hepatitis A and E

A

Supportive- complications rare

506
Q

Limits for orthostatic hypotension to be diagnosed?

A

A drop in systolic BP of 20mmHg or more (with or without symotoms)

A drop to below 90mmHg on standing even if the drop is less than 20mmHg (with or without symptoms)

A drop in diastolic BP of 10mmHg with symptoms

507
Q

Difference between vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC) for warfarin reversal?

A

PCC for rapid temporary reversal of warfarin’s effect- within minutes- use in emergency situations

Vitamin K- takes longer to act but is necessary for a longer term warfarin reversal

508
Q

Tetralogy of fallot hand symptoms?

A

Finger clubbing

509
Q

Type of heart condition that can remain symptomless in childhood but progess to symptoms in adulthood?

A

Atrial septal defect

Causes an ejection systolic murmur

510
Q

Hypokalaemia symptoms?

A

Muscle weakness, fatigue, ECG findings- reduced t-wave amplitude, PR prolongation and QT prolongation

511
Q

After how many weeks do you need anti-d prophylaxis in women who are resus D negative?

A

After 10 weeks gestation

512
Q

Glaucoma screening age for those with a positive family history?

A

From 40 years old

513
Q

ITP?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia

Typically follows an infection or vaccination

Features
Bruising
Petechial or purpuric rash
Bleeding less common

Bloods- isolated thrombocytopenia

Usually no treatment

If platelet count very low or significant bleeding-
Corticosteroids
IV immunoglobulins
Platelet transfusions

514
Q

Double duct sign?

A

Pancreatic cancer

515
Q

Opioids in renal failure?

A

Mild to moderate- oxycodone

More severe- alfentanil, buprenorphine and fentanyl

516
Q

Crohn’s and gallstones?

A

Yes

Crohn’s gives you stones

517
Q

CRABBI for myeloma?

A

Calcium
Renal- could lead to protein urea?
Anaemia
Bleeding
Bones
Infection

518
Q

Open angle glaucoma vs closed angle glaucome definitive management?

A

Closed angle- laser peripheral iridotomy

Open angle- Laser trabeculoplasty

519
Q

Pioglitazone contraindinications?

A

Bladder cancer

Heart failure

520
Q

SGLT-2 and recurrent UTIs?

A

Contraindication

521
Q

Delirium drug management?

A

Haloperidol if criteria met

Careful in Parkinson’s- sometimes atypical antipsychotics quetiapine or clozapine if they require urgent treatment

522
Q

New BP >180/120 and retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema?

A

Admit for specialist assessment

523
Q

How to cause pain in a scaphoid fracture?

A

Longitudinal compression of the thumb (telescoping of the thumb)

Tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox/ schapoid tubercle and ulnar deviation of the wrist

524
Q

Investigation of choice for an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

Generally transvaginal if gynae and early pregnancy

Transabdominal ultrasound after 12 weeks pregnancy

525
Q

Can SGLT-2 inhibitors cause foot ulcers?

A

There is an incrased risk of lower-limb amputation

526
Q

Prevention of thrombotic events in polycythaemia vera?

A

Aspirin

Venesection first line treatent to keep the haemoglobin in the normal range

Chemotherapy- hydroxyurea

527
Q

When can you not use IV dexamethasone in meningitis?

A

Septic shock, meningococcal septicaemia or if immunocompromised or in meningitis following surgery

528
Q

Presentation for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Affects younger patients- atypical pneumonia

Presents with a dry cough, mild fever, malaise and
classically an erythema multiforme rash

Diagnosis- mycoplasma serology

Treatment- doxycycline or a macrolide

Also associated with cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

529
Q

Difference between critical limb ischaemia and acute limb-threatening ischaemia?

A

Acute- sudden and out of nowhere (thrombus)

Critical- at the end of a process, slowly getting worse- atherosclerosis etc

530
Q

Unstable braod-complex tachycardia?

A

Instable ventricular tachycardia- synchronised cardioversion

531
Q

Checking for diabetic foot disease?

A

Ischaemia- palpate for dorsalis pedis pulse and posterior tibial artery pulse

Neuropathy- 10g monofilament used on various pars of the sole of the foot

532
Q

Which tablets can affect levothyroxine absorption?

A

Iron and calcium carbonate

Think of this if newly tired and recently started on these as a new medication

533
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy/Korsakof’s syndrome?

A

COAT RACK

Coat for Wernicke’s
Rack for Korsakoff’s

Confusion
Opthalmoplegia/nystagmus
Ataxia
Thiamine deficiency

Retrograde amnesia
Anterograde amnesia
Confabulations
Korsakoff’s psychosis

534
Q

Fibroadenoma excision?

A

If >3cm surgical excision is usual

535
Q

Osteoporosis drgus?

A

Anastrazole and omeprazole can cause it

Inhaled corticosteroids less likely than systemic

536
Q

Somatisation vs conversion disorder (functional neurological disorder)?

A

Somatistaion is multiple symptoms patient refusing to accept reassurance or negative results

Conversion disorder- neurological deficit possible in response to a traumatic experience

537
Q

Status epilepticus treatment?

A

Oh My Lord Phone the Anaesthetist
Oxygen
Midazolam (PR diazepam or buccal midazolam)
Lorazepam
Phenytoin
Anaesthesia- rapid sequence induction

Now generally levetiracetam before phenytoin

538
Q

NSAIDs in AKI?

A

NSAIDs stopped apart from aspirin at a cardio-protective dose- aspirin 75mg

DIANA
D- Diuretics
I- iodinated contrast
A- ACEi/ARB
N- NSAIDs
A- aminoglycosides

539
Q

Kawasaki disease features?

A

High-grade fever for >5days +
CRASH
Conjunctival injection
Rash
Adenopathy
Strawberry tongue
Hands and feet swelling/desquamation

540
Q

GnRH and gynae?

A

Yes- goserelin. buserelin

541
Q

Treatment for venous ulceration?

A

Compression banding

Important to check ABPI for arterial flow

542
Q

Most common cause of very raised ALT/AST in the 10,000s, transaminitis?

A

Paracetamol overdose

543
Q

Stop metformin if critically ill?

A

Yes- due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis

544
Q

Which foods are ok to eat in coeliac?

A

Corn, potatoes, rice

All gluten free

545
Q

Staghorn stone compisition?

A

Struvite

Associated with urinary tract infections caused by Proteus

546
Q

Most common stone composition?

A

Calcium oxolate

547
Q

Papillary muscle rupture associations?

A

After posterior MI usually

Acute mitral regurgitation- but with a early-to-mid systolic rather than pansystolic

Acute hypotension and pulmonary oefema may occur

548
Q

Continue anticoagulation in AF even if have had successful catheter ablation?

A

Yes- as per CHADS-VASc

If 0- 2 month anticoagulation ecommended

If over 1- longterm anticoagulation reccomended

549
Q

GnRH agonists for fibroids?

A

Goserelin etc- same as prostate cancer management

Side-effects
Menopausal symptoms- hot flushes, vaginal dryness
Loss of mineral bone density

550
Q

Investigations for Guillain-Barre?

A

LP- rise in protein with a normal white cell count

Nerve conduction studies- decreased motor nerve conduction velocity (due to demyelination)

551
Q

Hyper or hyponatraemia with MDMA?

A

HYPOnatraemia

Either due to excessive water consumption or SIADH

SSRI also causes hyponatraemia

552
Q

Contraindications to LP in meningitis?

A

Signs of raised ICP
Signs of severe sepsis or rapidly evolving
Meningiococcal sepsis

553
Q

Lhermitte’s sign?

A

Tingling in hands when flexing neck

Associated with MS

554
Q

Paraneoplastic features for renal cell carcinoma?

A

EPO- polycythaemia
ACTH- Cushingoid body habitus and hypertension
Renin- hyperaldosteronism (hyperNa, hypoK, HTN)
PTHrP- hypercalcaemia

Cannonball metastses are characteristic of renal cell carcinoma

555
Q

Management for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Partial or total nephrectomy depending on tumour size

556
Q

Urea proportionally higher than creatinine?

A

Dehydration

557
Q

Is Lewy-body dementia fluctuating?

558
Q

Differentiating brain abscess from meningitis/encephalitis?

A

Brain abscess- causes more focal neurology whereas meningitis/encephalitis causes more generalised neurological defecit

An example of this could be weakness of the left hand

559
Q

Subacute degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

Progessive unsteadiness, tingling sensation, ataxic gate, distal sensory loss, positive Romberg’s, absent ankle jerks

Lack of vitamin B12- can result from bariatric surgery etc

560
Q

Drug that causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

561
Q

Herpes management in pregnancy?

A

If over 28 weeks and first episode- caesarean

If recurrent episode- low risk of transmission

(still give aciclovir in both anyway?)

562
Q

Primary, secondary, tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Primary- High PTH (or inappropriately normal), high Ca, low phosphate- solitary adenoma

Secondary- High PTH, low calcium, elevated phosphate- parathyroid glad hyperplasia due to chronically low calcium (renal disease)

Tertiary- High PTH, high calcium, low phosphate- corrected underlying renal problem but still the parathyroid gland hyperplasia

563
Q

ITP treatment?

A

Children- no treatment self resolving

Adults- oral prednisolone

Bruising, petechial rash following an infection

564
Q

Is nitrofurantoin contraindicated in breast feeding?

565
Q

Should you examine throat in croup?

A

No for same reason as normal epiglotitis

Stridor can be a feature of croup

566
Q

Causes of gingival hyperplasia?

A

PANIC

Phenytoin
AML
Nifedipine/amlodipine- both CCBs
Inherited, idiopathic
Ciclosporin

567
Q

Does postoperative ileus have bowel sounds?

568
Q

Management of BP over 180/120

A

If signs of end organ damage/ life threatening symptoms- refer for a specialist assessment

If none of the above apply- urgent tests for end organ damage

569
Q

Most important prognostic factor in paracetamol overdose?

A

Arterial pH

570
Q

Weber’s test meaning?

A

Conductive hearing loss- lateralises to the affected ear

Sensorineural hearing loss- lateralises to the unaffected ear

(Rinnies- air better than bone is normal/sensorinueiral
Bone better than air is conductive)

571
Q

Blood gas disturbance caused by aspirin?

A

Salicylate overdose can cause a mixed primary respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis

Causes hyperventilation then as lactate increases causes the metabolic acidosis

572
Q

HNPCC genes involved?

573
Q

Hand preference before when is abnormal?

574
Q

COPD LTOT?

A

O2 of 7.3-8 kPa
and one of the following:

Secondary polycythaemia
Peripheral oedema
Pulmonary hypertension

575
Q

Hypercalcaemia treatment?

A

Rehydration with normal saline

Bisphosphonates potentially after rehydration

576
Q

Can you see a false lumen on CXR?

A

No

But you can see a widened mediastinum

577
Q

Aortic dissection investigations?

A

CXR- widened mediastinum

CT angiography- investigation of choice- false lumen

Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE)- More suitable for unstable patients who are too risky to take to CT scanner

578
Q

Acne oral antibiotic?

A

Try an oral antibiotic before referring if only a topical has previously been used?

579
Q

Even if TSH in normal range still could be secondary hypothyroidism as inappropriately normal for example if cannot produce as much as needd due to a non-functional adenoma?

A

Generalised hypopituitarism etc think pituitary adenoma

580
Q

Difference between type 1 and type 2 respiratory failure?

A

Type 1- O2 low, CO2 normal or low

Type 2- O2 low, CO2 high

581
Q

Thrombosed haemorrhoids treatment?

A

Significant pain and tender lump

Purplish, oedematous, tender subcutaneous perianal mass

If patient presents within 72 hours then referral for consideration for excision
Otherwise if over 72 hours then manage with stool softners, ice packs and analgesia

582
Q

Prostate cancer investigation?

A

Multiparametric MRI is first-line

583
Q

Hypothyroidism electrolyte disturbance?

A

Euvolaemic hyponatraemia

584
Q

Gestation diabetes treatment?

A

> 7 at diagnosis- start on insulin straight away

If not then diet exercise, then metformin then ADD insulin if still not controlled

585
Q

What is included in the combined test for antenatal testing?

A

Nuchal translucency measurement + serum B-HCG + pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

Quadruple test- alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, human chorionic gonadotrophin, inhibin A

586
Q

Combined test results?

A

Down’s- HCG up, PAPP-A down, thickened nuchal translucency

Patau (13) and Edward’s (18) similar result but HCG lower

587
Q

Quadruple test results?

A

Down’s- everything down apart from HI- HCG and Inhibin A raised

Edward’s- Everything down inhibin A normal

NTD- AFP up rest normal

588
Q

Further test if higher chance of Down’s on combined or quadruple tests?

A

Non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT)

589
Q

Renal stones management?

A

Treatment:
Stone <5mm- expectant treatment
Stone <2cm- lithotripsy
Stone <2cm + pregnant- uteroscopy
Stone complex- nephrolithotomy (invasive)
Hyydronephrosis/infection- nephrostomy

Imaging:
Non-contrast CTKUB

Pain reliever
IM Diclofenac

590
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis for household members?

A

Ciprofloxacin or rifampicin

591
Q

Lamotrigine potential adverse effect?

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

592
Q

Is right heart failure associated with hepatomegaly?

A

Yes- firm, smooth, tender liver edge that may be pulsatile

593
Q

Common causes of hepatomegaly?

A

Cirrhosis- if early disease, later liver decreases in size, associated with a non-tender, firm liver

Malignancy- metastatic spread or primary hepatoma- hard, irregular liver edge

Right heart failure- firm, smooth, tender liver edge that may be pulsatile

594
Q

In which type of lung cancer are cavitating lesions more common in?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

595
Q

Kyphoscoliosis?

A

A restrictive lung disease linked to ankylosing spondylitis

Ankylosing spondylitis can also cause pulmonary fibrosis

596
Q

What to give for headache caused by raised intracranial pressure due to brain cancer (or metastases)?

A

Dexamethasone

This would be palliative treatment

597
Q

Are hepatitis viruses DNA or RNA?

A

All RNA apart from Hep B which is DNA

598
Q

VTE 3 or 6 months PE with cancer?

A

6 months- not an easily reversible cause (unlike stopping COCP or post surgery)

599
Q

Pleural effusion management?

A

Diagnostic aspiration with 21G needle- send fluid for pH, protein etc to work out the cause

Chest drain for symptomatic relief

If infection- do a chest tube

Might need to treat underlying cause

600
Q

First step in asthma age 11 and under?

A

Twice- daily paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) + short-acting beta2 agonist (SABA) as needed

if MART pathway

Paediatric low-dose MART + SABA as needed

Paediatric moderate-dose MART + SABA as needed

601
Q

Sodium correction?

A

Sodium low to high the pons will die (osmotic demyelination syndrome which can cause a spastic quadriparesis)

Sodium high to low the brain will blow- cerebral oedema

602
Q

What can you use for acute hyponatraemia?

A

Hypertonic saline (3% NaCl)

But be careful can correct sodium too quickly

603
Q

Varices treatment?

A

To prevent bleeding in varices that are not currently bleeding- propranolol

To treat bleeding oesophageal varices- terlipressin

604
Q

Immunosuppression skin cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

605
Q

Subacute degeneration of the spinal cord symptoms?

A

Hyperreflexia, loss of proprioception and loss of vibration sense

Distal sensory loss/tingling + absent ankle jerks/extrensor plantars + gait abnormalities/Romberg’s positive

606
Q

Anorexia G’s and C’s?

A

Most things low, Gs and Cs raised:
Growth hormone
Glucose
Salivary glands
Cortisol
Cholesterol
Carotinaemia

607
Q

Damage to radial nerve?

A

Wrist drop

608
Q

Horner’s syndrome?

A

Can be due to compression from pancoast tumour of the lung

Miosis (small pupil)
Ptosis
Enopthalmos (sunken eye)
Anhidrosis (loss of sweating on one side)

Central lesions cause anhidrosis of the face, arm and trunk- stroke, syringomyelia, MS

Pre-ganglionic just face- Pancoast’s tumour, thyroidectomy, trauma

Post-ganglionic lesions- no anhidrosis- carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, cluster headache

609
Q

How long after COCP to start ulipristal?

610
Q

Cervical cancer management that best preserves fertility?

A

Cone biopsy

Gold standard generally is a hysterectomy +/- lymph node clearance

More advanced tumours might have radiotherapy/chemotherapy

611
Q

PITS pneumonic extra big?

A

PITS- Parietal inferior, temporal superiors

AND

PITS- PITuitary Superior

Pituitary superior visual loss as tumour is below/ affects lower nerve fibres which recieve from upper visual dield

Craniopharyngioma is lower visual field problems

612
Q

Posterior vitreous detatchment vs retinal detatchment?

A

PVD- floaters

RD- curtain over vision

613
Q

Heart failur esymptoms with new AF?

A

Cardiovert

614
Q

Psoriasis management?

A

Regular emollients

First-line-
Potent corticosteroid applied once daily plus a vitamin D analogue once daily
Applied seperatley- morning/evening

Second line- vitamin D analogue twice daily

Third-line- a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 3 weeks
or
A coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily

615
Q

Common side effect of nexplanon implantable?

A

Most effective form of contraception

Common side effect is irregular bleeding
Can be managed using a co-prescription of the COCP

616
Q

Does positive Rinne’s mean healthy or not?

A

Yes positive Rinne’s means normal

617
Q

Raised ICP investigations?

A

DO NOT do an LP- only can do those for things like IIH when other causes ruled out

Non-contrast CT head first to rule out any mass lesions that could cause brain herniation

Tip is if asking for most appropriate next step it is rarely something complicated if a first line investigation

618
Q

Pupil dilation in CN3 palsy?

A

Something compressing the nerve

Such as a posterior communicating artery aneurysm

619
Q

Biliary colic vs cholecystitis?

A

Biliary colic just the RUQ without fever- no LFT/inflammatory marker derangement

Cholecystitis- RUQ + fever

620
Q

Moat common complication of thyroid eye disease?

A

Exposure keratopathy

621
Q

Do you give antibiotics in preterm labour?

A

Seems to be only if membranes have broken- avoid NEC

Tocolytics and steroids to mature lungs if in labour

622
Q

Under what CD4 count in HIV for pneumocytis jiroveci prohylaxis?

A

200

HAART- highly active anti-retroviral therapy is started on diagnosis

Oral co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for pneumocytis jiroveci pneumonia

623
Q

Lots of problems to do with pituitary?

A

TSG, LH, FSH- potentially HIGH prolactin

Think a non-functioning pituitary adenoma

624
Q

Nephrotic syndrome complication?

A

Increased risk of thromboembolism related to loss of antithrombin III

Can cause a renal vein thrombosis

625
Q

Most common cause of endocarditis following valve surgery?

A

Staph epidermis

626
Q

CT finding in aortic dissection?

A

CT ANGIOGRAPHY

False lumen

X-ray would be a widened mediastinum

627
Q

Rapidly progressive painful rash?

A

Potentially on a background of atopic dermatitis

Eczema herpeticum- IV antivirals

628
Q

Glasgow score for pancreatitis?

A

Components of Glasgow score for pancreatitis (PANCREAS)
PaO2 (<8kPa)
Age (>55)
Neutrophilia (WCC > 15 x 109/L)
Ca2+ (<2mmol/L)
Renal function (urea >16mmol/L)
Enzymes (LDH >600 iu/L or AST >200 iu/L)
Albumin (<32g/L)
Sugar (blood glucose >10mmol/L)

629
Q

Management of aortic stenosis for low/medium risk vs high operative risk?

A

Surgical aortic valve replacement for medium-low risk

Transcatheter aortic valve replacement for high operative risk patients

630
Q

Syphilis stages?

A

Primary- penis, secondary- systemic

Primary- localised features

Secondary- Systemic symptoms- fevers, lymphadenopathy
Rash on trunk, palms, soles, buccal snil track ulcers, condylomata lata (painless, warty lesions on the genitalia)

Teriatry features
Gummas
Ascending aortic aneurysms

Congenital syphilis treatment-
Blunted upper incisor teeth
Keratitis
Saber shins
Rhagades (linear scars at the angle of mouth)
Saddle nose
Deafness

631
Q

Propylthiouracil?

A

Antithyroid drug- second line to carbimazole if that is not tolerated

632
Q

BP targets?

A

Less than 80- clinic- 140/90, ABPM- 135/85

Over 80- clinic- 150/90, ABPM- 145/85

633
Q

Gold standard investigation for TB?

A

Sputum culture

634
Q

Hyperdense vs hypodense on CT?

A

HYPOdense is dark- old on CT

HYPERdense is light- new on CT

Acute blood is bright (hyper)

Dry blood is old (hypo)

635
Q

Can amylase be raised in small bowel obstrution?

636
Q

If choosing between abscess and cyst?

A

Remember abscess infective/raised temp etc

Acute pancreatitis complications- pseudocysts/pancreatic abscess

637
Q

Tangentiality vs circumstantiality?

A

Circumstantiality- circle- comes back round to answer just excessive detail

Tangentiality- goes on a tangent without returning to the topic or question

638
Q

Is it safe for a mother to breastfeed with hepatitis B?

A

Yes

Hep B for breastfeeding

639
Q

Myeloid leukaemias?

A

Granulocytes may be seen on blood film

640
Q

CML vs CLL key feature?

A

CML- massive splenomegaly

CLL- lymphadenopathy

641
Q

Acute vs chronic leukaemias on bloods?

A

If only blasts- immature cells- acute

If all stages are present/developed ones- chronic

642
Q

Epilepsy and contraception?

A

Lots of epilepsy medications are enzyme inducers- carbamazepine, phenytoin etc

Lamotrigine

CI things like COCP, POP, Nexplanon

Use copper IUD, Mirena

643
Q

Is creatine kinase raised in polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

No it is normal

It is ESR that is raised

644
Q

Cancers associated with asbestos exposure?

A

Mesothelioma

Most common is lung cancer, especially is with smoking history as well

645
Q

Where is the caecum?

A

Start of the large intestine

Right hemicolectomy if tumour there

646
Q

Hyponatraemia after SAH most common cause?

647
Q

Tocolytics examples?

A

Terbutaline, nifedipine, Mg2+

648
Q

Psoriatic arthritis?

A

Symmetric polyarthritis
Asymmetrical oligoarthritis

DIP joint disease (spared in RA)

Psoriatic skin lesions
Periarticular disease- tenosynovitis, enthesitis, dactylitis

Nail changes- pitting, onycholysis

X-ray- pencil in cup

Treatment by rheumatologist-
mild- NSAID
Moderate- methotrexate

649
Q

What are mirror image nuclei?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

Hodgkin’s lymphoma more likely to have systemic B symptoms

650
Q

CKD and anaemia?

A

Could be reduced EPO- usually normochromic normocytic anameia- eGFR commonly less than 35

Also could be reduced absorption of iron

651
Q

Antibodies in Graves?

A

IgG antibodies to the TSH receptor causing thyrotoxicosis

652
Q

Corneal abrasion investigation?

A

Fluorescein staining

Topical antibiotic used to prevent secondary bacterial infection

Features:
Eye pain
Lacrimation
Photophobia
Foreign body sensation and conjunctival injection
Decreased visual acuity in the affected eye

653
Q

Get the antibodies the right way round in thyroid issues

654
Q

Globus pharyngis/hystericus?

A

Dysphagia- history of anxiety- intermittent symptoms- painless

655
Q

Courvoisier’s law?

A

In the presence of painless obstructive jaundice, a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones

656
Q

Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals?

A

Pseudogout

657
Q

What causes psudogout?

A

Raised calcium pyrophosphate

RFs-
Increasing age
Hyperparathyroidism
Low magnesium, low phosphate
Haemochromatosis
Wilson’s disease
Acromegaly

658
Q

Pseudogout x-ray?

A

Chondrocalcinosis

659
Q

Gold standard investigation for diagnosis of mesothelioma?

A

Thoracoscopic biopsy

Other lung cancers- bronchoscope and biopsy

660
Q

Amaurosis fugax that resolves- is it a stroke or is it a TIA?

A

If vision loss truly monocular- ipsilateral internal carotid artery or retinal artery pathology- not a TIA

If visiion loss affects both eyes or is hemianopic (same side of vision on both eyes)- TIA/stroke affecting the posterior circulation or occipital cortex

661
Q

Most important investigation in venous ulceration?

A

Ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI)- assess for poor arterial flow which could impair healing

Compression banding is the main management- need a good enough arterial flow for this

662
Q

What type of anal fissure is concerning and needs to be referred?

A

A lateral one

663
Q

PAD vessels and presentation?

A

Iliac stenosis- claudication causing buttock pain

Femoral stenosis- claudication causing calf pain

664
Q

Stopping medications before OGD?

A

1 day- gaviscon
2 weeks- PPIs
3 days- ranitidine
4 weeks- antibiotics

1, 2, 3, 4

665
Q

Classification for hip fractures?

A

Garden classification

666
Q

CK 2-4 times normal?

A

Less likely to be rhabdomyolysis as massively raised

Exercise can induce CK elevation- and cause haematuria too

667
Q

Contrast or no contrast for CT looking for ureteric stone?

A

No contrast- can’t see the stone

In urology generally only use contrast if suspecting cancer

668
Q

Diarrhoea within 6 hours- quick onset?

A

Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus

669
Q

How long contraceptions take to become effective?

A

Instant- IUD

2 days- POP

7 days- COCP, injection, implant, IUS

670
Q

Most common reason for hip replacement revision?

A

Aseptic loosening of the hip replacement

671
Q

Beta thalassemia?

A

Microcytic anaemia, HbA2 raised

Major- first year of life with failure to thrive, severe anaemia

Trait- often asymptomatic, diagnosed later potentially- reticulocytosis less common than in major

672
Q

Pneumothorax- no symptoms?

A

Conservative care regardless of pneumothorax size

673
Q

Felty’s syndrome?

A

Triad of RA, spelenomegaly and neutropenia- patients present with recurrent and severe infections

674
Q

Which lymph nodes does ovarian cancer spread to first?

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

675
Q

Be careful with auscletation zones?

676
Q

Parvovirus infection causing aplastic crisis reticulocytes?

A

Causes a reticulocytopenia rather than a reticulocytosis

Aplastic crisis in sickle cell sudden fall in haemoglobin and reduced reticulocytes

High reticulocyte count suggests sickle cell anaemia- sequestration crises cause increased reticulocytes (precipitated by high altitude eg going on a plane)

677
Q

CKD anaemia?

A

FIX iron before giving EPO

678
Q

Patient presenting with stroke even if within the 4.5 hour period?

A

Non-contrast CT head to rule out haemorrhagic stroke

Before aspirin

Before thrombolysis/thrombectomy

679
Q

Salicylate (aspirin) poisoning metabolic acidosis/alkalosis?

A

1st- respiratory alkalosis

2nd- metabolic acidosis

680
Q

BV pH?

A

High vaginal pH >4.5

Clue cells on microscopy

Positive whiff test (addition of potassium hydroxide results in fishy odour)

681
Q

What distinguishes scleritis from episcleritis?

A

Pain in scleritis- associated with RA also SLE/sarcoidosis

No pain in episcleritis

682
Q

Short incubation period severe vomiting?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

683
Q

Before a PSA test people should not have?

A

Ejaculated in the previous 48 hours

Exercised vigorously, for example cycling, in the pervious 48 hours

Had a urological intervention such as a prostate biopsy in the previous 6 weeks

Had a UTI in the previous 6 weeks

684
Q

Thymomas associated with which condition?

A

Myasthenia gravis

685
Q

Ix patients with suspected septic arthritis?

A

Synovial fluid sampling

686
Q

Prostate cancer most common ethnicity?

A

Afro/caribbean

687
Q

Palivizumab?

A

Prophylaxis of bronchiolitis in high risk patients

688
Q

Magnesium treatment duration pre-eclampsia?

A

Until 24 hours after last seizure or 24 hours after delivery

689
Q

Magnesium sulphate respiratory depression treatment?

A

Calcium gluconate

While giving magnesium sulphate measure urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate and oxygen saturations

690
Q

Persistent air leak or insufficient lung reexpansion despite chest drain insertion or recurrent pneumothoraces?

A

Referral to a thoracic surgeon

Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS)

691
Q

Mydriasis and sudden eye pain?

A

Acute glaucoma?

692
Q

RA treatment?

A

Give DMARD monotherapy straight away +/- a short course of bridging prednisolone

Methotrexate (sulfasalazine, lefunomide, hydroxychloroquine)

Monitoring response to treatment with CRP and DAS28

RA flares managed with corticosteroids

TNF inhibitors if an inadequate response to at least 2 DMARDs- incuding methotrexate- etanercept (reactivation of TB risk) and infliximab are options

693
Q

How much atropine in symptomatic bradycardia before pacing?

A

6 bolus in total (up to 3mg)- 5 more after initial one

External/transcutaneous pacing

Adrenaline infusion

Transvenous pacing if no response- specialist help

694
Q

Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding?

A

Contraindication to HRT

695
Q

HRT contraindications?

A

Current or past nreast cancer

Any oestrogen-sensitive cancer

Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

Untreated endometrial hyperplasia

696
Q

Vaccines commonly offered to pregnant women in the UK?

A

Influenza and pertussis

697
Q

When can insert IUD/IUS after pregnancy?

A

Within 48 hours or after 4 weeks

POP anytime post partum

Women require contraception after day 21 after giving birth

COCP do not use in first 21 days due to the increased risk of VTE
UKMEC 4 if breastfeedig <6 weeks post partum

698
Q

Skin condition associated with reactive arthritis?

A

Keratoderma blennorrhagica

Also possible to get circinate balanitis

699
Q

Bishop’s score interpretation?

A

Score of <5 indicates labour is unlikely to start without induction

Score of > or equal to 8 indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour

If Bishop’s score < or equal to 6- vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol

If Bishop’s score over 6- amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion

Remember membrane sweep can be done first

700
Q

Signet ring cells in which type of cancer?

A

Gastric cancer

701
Q

Gold standard test/screening for HIV?

A

HIV p24 antigen
HIV antibody

702
Q

Epididymo-orchitis organism if low risk sexual history?

A

E.coli

If STI- chlamydia/gonorrhoeae

703
Q

Patients with type 1 and a BMI over 25 drug in addition to insulin?

704
Q

Hypoglycaemia management?

A

In the community:
Initially- oral glucose in liquid, gel or tablet form 10-20g
Maybe a HypoKit- injection of glucagon

In a hospital setting-
Quick acting carbohydrate
If patient unconcious or unable to swallow, subcutaneous or intramuscular injection glucagon may be give
Or IV glucose 20% through a large vein

705
Q

Does Bell’s palsy spare the upper face?

A

No
It is lower motor neurone- BeLL’s palsy

UMN lesions spare the forehead- a stroke etc

IN BELLS FOREHEAD AFFECTED- UNABLE TO RAISE EYEBROWS

706
Q

Symphysis-fundal height?

A

Measured from the top of the pubic bone to the top of the uterus in centimetres

It should match the gestational age in weeks to within 2cm after 20 weeks

For example, if 24 weeks then a normal SFH would be 22 to 26 cm

707
Q

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

A

Severe systemic reaction to staphylococcal endotoxins related to infected tampon use

Diagnostic criteria-
Fever- high
Hypotension
Diffuse erythematous rash
Desquamation of rash, especially palms and soles
Involvement of three or more organ systems- GI, mucous membrane erythema, renal failure, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia, CNS involvement

Management:
Removal of infection focus- retained tampon
IV fluids
IV antibiotics

708
Q

Investigation to do if stroke under the age of 55 with no obvious cause?

A

Autoimmune and thrombophilia screening

709
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy investigation?

A

Genetic testing now used rather than a muscle biopsy for diagnosis

Features:
Progressive proximal muscle weakness
Calf pseudohypertrophy
Gower’s sign- child uses arms to stand up from a squatted position

There is a raised CK

710
Q

Classification system used to stratify risk post myocardial infarction?

A

Killip class

711
Q

Reccomended times in a day for diabetics to monitor capillary blood glucose?

A

Before each meal and before bed

712
Q

Why no insulin first in HHS?

A

Risk of central pontine myelinolysis due to the rapid increase in sodium concentration as, even though the patient is dehydrated, insulin will send glucose into cells, taking water with it, so sodium will rise quickly as it is now in a more concentrated vasculature

713
Q

What is used to stage COPD?

A

FEV1

COPD severity (FEV1): 20-30-20-30

Stage 1 (Mild): >80%
Stage 2 (Moderate): 50-79%
Stage 3 (Severe): 30-49%
Stage 4 (Very severe): <30%

714
Q

High risk symptoms in paediatrics?

A

Pale/mottled/ashen/blue

No response to social cues
Appears ill to a healthcare professional
Does not wake or stay awake if roused
Weak, high-pitched or continuous cry

Grunting
Resp rate over 60
Moderate or severe chest indrawing

Reduced skin turgor

Age less than 3 months with temp over 38
Non-blanching rash
Bulging fontanelle
Neck stiffness
Status epilepticus
Focal neurological signs
Focal seizures

715
Q

Itchy, purple, papular rash?

A

Lichen planus

Potent topical steroids

716
Q

Viral meningitis management?

A

Self limiting

If any suspicion of bacterial meningitis or encephalitis- IV antibiotics and antivirals

717
Q

Weight gain on steroids? ESPECIALLY WITH BRUISING ETC

A

CUSHING’S SYNDROME

Hypokalaemia, metabolic alkalosis

Same disturbance present in primary hyperaldrostronism

Opposite present in addisons
Hyperkalaemic, metabolic acidosis

718
Q

How long do symptoms have to be present to diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome

719
Q

Itchy vagina cream?

A

Epaderm or diprobase

720
Q

Liver transplant in paracetamol overdose criteria?

A

Arterial pH <7.3, 24 hours after ingestion

Or all of the following
Prothrombin time >100 seconds
Creatinine >300
Grade III or IV encephalopathy

721
Q

Calculation for serum osmolality?

A

2xsodium + glucose + urea

722
Q

Carotid investigation after TIA?

A

Carotid doppler (duplex ultrasound)

723
Q

AMA (anti-mitochondrial antibodies) positive

Raised serum IgM?

A

Primary biliary cholangitis

Use ursodeoxycholic acid

724
Q

Pulse oximetry and carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Falsely high due to similarlities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin

725
Q

Airway problems with ?c-spine problems?

A

Jaw thrust

If no c-spine concern- head tilt chin lift

726
Q

Drug associated wit a significant increase in mortality in dementia patients?

A

Antipsychotics

727
Q

When IV isotonic normal saline and when IV 3% sodium chloride in hyponatremia?

A

Use the 3% if Na less than 120- acute presentation

728
Q

What type of laxative is movicol paediatric plain?

729
Q

Differentiating between osteomalacia and Paget’s?

A

Osteomalacia- decreased Ca, increased PTH, increased ALP

Paget’s- normal Ca, normal PTH, increased ALP

Typically an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP in Paget’s

730
Q

COCP cancer risk?

A

COCP increases the risk of cancers you screen for (cervical and breast)

COCP is protective for cancers common in older age (ovarian and endometrial)

731
Q

Tetanus and wounds?

A

If a patient has had 5 doses of tetanus vaccine, with the last dose < 10 years ago, they don’t require a booster vaccine nor immunoglobulins, regardless of how severe the wound is

If over 10 years
If tetanus prone wound- reinforcing dose of vaccine

High-risk wound- reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

If vaccine history unknown- reinforce vaccine all wounds

Tetanus prone or high risk- vaccine + immunoglobulin

732
Q

Upper zone fibrosis?

A

CHARTS
C - Coal Worker’s Pneumoconiosis
H - Histiocytosis
A - Ankylosing Spondylitis
R - Radiation
T - TB
S - Sarcoidosis/Silicosis

733
Q

Learn centor and FEVERpain?

734
Q

Varicose veins?

A

Occur due to incompetent venous valves- RFs- increasing age, female gender, pregnancy, obesity

May present for cosmetic reasons, aching, throbbing or itching

Also-
Skin changes- varicose eczema, haemosiderin deposition causing hyperpigmentation, hard/tight skin, hypopigmentation
Bleeding
Superficial thrombophlebitits
Venous ulceration
DVT

Investigation:
Venous duplex ultrasound- will demonstrate retrograde venous flow

Management-
Majority do not require surgery:
Leg elevation
Weight loss
Regular exercise
Graduated compression stockings

Reasons for referral:
Pain, disco,fort, swelling
Skin changes secondary to chronic venous insufficiency (pigmentation and eczema)
Superficial thrombophlebitis
Active or healed venous ulcer

Treatments:
Endothermal ablation
Foam sclerotherapy
Surgery

735
Q

Causes of postpartum haemorrhage?

A

Tone (uterine atony)- vast majority of cases

Trauma (e.g. perineal tear)

Tissue (retained placenta)

Thrombin (e.g. clotting/bleeding disorder)

736
Q

How much blood is defined as postpartum haemorrhage?

A

Loss of >500ml of blood after a vaginal delivery

737
Q

Management PPH?

A

A to E approach- cannulae, lie the woman flat, bloods, warmed crystalloid infusion

Mechanical- palpate the uterine fundus and rub it to stumulate contractions
Catheter to prevent bladder distension and monitor urine output

Medical
IV oxytocin
Ergometrine (unless history of hypertension)
Carboprost IM (unless history of asthma)
Misoprostol
Potential for tranexamic acid

Surgical
RCOG state intrauterine balloon tamponade is first line ‘surgical’ where uterine atony is only or major cause
B-lynch suture
Ligation of the uterine arteries or internal iliac arteries

If severe- hysterectomy sometimes performed as life-saving procedure

738
Q

RA and carpal tunnel?

A

RA causes it

739
Q

Patients with high blood glucose on bloods but asymptomatic?

A

Must be high on two seperate occasions to diagnose T2DM so remeasure

740
Q

Mitral stenosis?

A

Loud S1 as the valve closes

Opening snap in diastole as the mitral valve opens

741
Q

Does hyperaldostronism always cause a raised sodium?

A

Not always

But hypokalaemia and hypertension are the one to look for

Renin down aldosterone up- check aldosterone:renin ratio

742
Q

Definitive vs first line for obstruction?

A

X-ray first line

CT definitive

743
Q

CKD cutoffs?

A

CKD clock

120-90- stage 1 if physical signs of CKD
90-60- stage 2- only if physical signs of CKD
60-45- stage 3a
45-30- stage 3b
30-15- stage 4
15-0 stage 5

744
Q

Omeprazole and clopidogrel?

A

Omeprazole reduces the effectiveness of clopidogrel

745
Q

One, two– buckle my shoe.
Three, four– kick the door.
Five, six– pick up sticks.
Seven, eight– shut the gate.
S1,2 = ankle jerk
L3,4 = knee jerk
C5,6 = biceps and brachioradialis
C7,8 = triceps

A

Learn innervations

L5 does everything

Check lower back pain- prolapsed discs

746
Q

Femoral vs inguinal hernia?

A

Femoral inferolateral to the pubic tubercle
Inguinal hernia above and medial to the pubic tubercle

MILF
Medial- Inguinal
Lateral- Femoral

747
Q

Femoral hernia management?

A

Urgent surgical repair- higher risk of strangualtion

748
Q

Urinary incontinence first line treatment?

A

Urge incontinece?

749
Q

Schizoid?

A

Schizoid avoid people

750
Q

When is whole breast radiotherapy offered in breast cancer management?

A

After wide local excision

751
Q

What are the two surgeries for breast cancer?

A

Wide local excision- small tumour in large breast, solitary lesion, peripheral tumour, under 4cm

Mastectomy- large tumour in small breast, multifocal lesion, peripheral tumour, over 4cm

Whole breast radiotherapy reccomended in wide local excision to prevent recurrence

752
Q

When is FEC-D chemotherapy used in breast cancer?

A

If axilary nodal disease

753
Q

Angina management?

A

Management of angina:
1. Start everybody on statin + aspirin for 2ndry prevention
2. Also begin monotherapy with B blocker or CCB (verapamil) - depending which one more sensible
3. Dual therapy (B blocker and CCB) - but can’t use rate limiting verapamil, have to switch to long acting CCB like amlodipine
4. Get PCI or CABG assessment (can give a 4th drug whilst waiting, eg nicorandil, ivabradine etc)

754
Q

Angina still not controlled on BB and CCB?

A

Refer for PCI/CABG- add third drug whilst waiting

a long-acting nitrate
ivabradine
nicorandil
ranolazine

Also add one of those if on monotherapy and cannot tolerate the other drug (for example BB and asthma)

755
Q

Do you give DC shocks in bradycardia?

A

No even if in shock, syncope, heart failure

Try raise heart rate

Atropine up to 3mg (500mcg at a time)
Transcutaneous pacing
Adrenaline/isoprenaline

Transvenous pacing

756
Q

Epididymo-orchitis investigation?

A

Guided by age of the patient (STI likelihood)-

Under 35- NAAT- looking for chlamydia/gonorrhoea- if unknown ceftriaxone and doxycycline

Over 35- Mid stream urine culture- looking for E.Coli- treat with quinolone (ofloxacin)

757
Q

Sarcoidosis and calcium

A

Hypercalcaemia

758
Q

Do you do PCI if symptoms present for over 12 hours?

A

No

If the patient presents within 12hrs and PCI can be achieved within 120 mins = management is PCI

If the patient presents with sx longer than 12hrs or PCI is not achievable within 120 mins (e.g. PCI centre is 3hrs away) = Fibrinolysis is management

PCI still considered if evidence on ongoing ischaemia

759
Q

Mitral regurgitation post MI?

A

Ventricular septal defect

760
Q

How to cardiovert if AF presenting within 48 hours of symptom onset?

A

DC cardioversion

Unless contraindicated them amiodarone

761
Q

Amiodarone/flecainide contraindications?

A

Amiodarone- hypothyroidism

Flecainide- heart failure

762
Q

Cushing’s syndrome vs Cushing’s disease

A

Cushing’s syndrome- adrenal adenomas

Cushing’s disease- pituitary adenoma causing excess ACTH secretion

763
Q

IUS mechanism of action?

A

Prevents endometrial proliferation

764
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis second line?

A

First line- oral NSAIDs

Second line- Anti-TNF- etanercept

765
Q

Should urine osmolarity mirror urine osmolarity?

A

Yes, if they are very different there is a problem- could be SIADH or diabetes insipidus

Sodium down is SIADH, raised in diabetes insipidus

766
Q

Most common cause of viral meningitis?

A

Enteroviruses- coxsackie virus

767
Q

Acute limb threatening ischaemia investigation?

A

Handheld arterial doppler

Then ankle-brachial pressure index (ABI) if signs present on doppler

768
Q

Positive head impulse test?

A

Not a stroke

769
Q

DIC bloods?

A

Platelets- low
Prothrombin time/APTT- raised
Bleeding time- raised

770
Q

ITP bloods?

A

Platelet count decreased

PT/APTT- normal

771
Q

CML and leukocyte alkaline phosphotase?

A

Leukocyte alkaline phosphotase is decreased in CML

Also in CML-
Fatigue, sweats, weight loss
Splenomegaly

772
Q

Do BB make myasthenia gravis worse?

773
Q

Scar turning into a cancerous lesion?

A

SCC

Non-healing, painless ulcer
Rapidly enlarging

774
Q

Bacteria responsible for acne?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

775
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics before appendicectomy?

A

Yes- reduces wound infection rates

776
Q

Pseudo-Cushing’s causes?

A

Alcohol excess/ severe depression

777
Q

LArge bowel obstruction most common cause?

A

Colorectal cancer

778
Q

Egg shell calcification of hilar nodes?

A

SIlicosis- upper zone fibrosis associated with mining

779
Q

Secondary prevention of CVD in peripheral arterial disease?

A

Statin 80mg

Clopidogrel 75mg

780
Q

IgG vs IgM haemolytic anaemia?

A

IgG- warm (Greece)
IgM- cold (Moscow)

781
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae association?

A

Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

782
Q

General features of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Anaemia
Reticulocytosis
Low haptoglobin
Raised lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Blood film: spherocytes and reticulocytes

Specific featres of autoimmune harmolytic anaemia- positive direct antiglobulin test (Coombs test)

783
Q

Warm AIHA treatment?

A

Treat any underlying disorder

Steroids (+/- rituximab)

784
Q

Samter’s triad for patients with aspirin sensitivity?

A

Aspirin sensitivity, asthma and nasal polyps

785
Q

Nail bed melanoma more likely in Afro-Caribbean?

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma

786
Q

Legionella pneumonia antibiotic and other atypical bacteria?

A

Atypical bacteria (not strep, steph etc) is treated with clarithromycin/doxycycline

Give those if atypical

787
Q

Inactivated vaccines?

A

HAIR

Hep A
IM influenza
Rabies

788
Q

Pulsus paradoxus?

A

Abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration

Seen in tamponade

789
Q

Hormonal therapy for prostate cancer?

A

GnRH agonists- Goserelin
Cause a testosterone flare initially then reduce to lower levels

Need to be covered with an anti-androgen when starting due to a tumour flare

Cyproterone acetate, bicalutamide

790
Q

Age when following a fragility fracture a DEXA scan is not required?

A

Women over 75

Or if postmenopausal/ man over 50 with a vertebral fracture

791
Q

Access site for PCI?

A

Radial artery preferred over femoral artery

792
Q

Other names for Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Large multinucleate cells with eosinophillic nucleoli

Mirror image nucleoli

793
Q

Do you get an eosinophilia in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

794
Q

Hypothermia ECG findings?

A

Jeez Its Bloody Freezing

  • J waves (osborne waves)
  • Irregular rhythms
  • Bradycardia
  • First degree heart block
795
Q

Avoid verapamil in which condition?

A

Heart failure

Also don’t give with beta-blockers

796
Q

SCLC paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

ADH- causes SIADH- low sodium

ACTH- hypertension, hyperglycaemia, hypokalameia, alkalosis, muscle weakness

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

797
Q

Driving and diabetes?

A

All patients on insulin must inform the DVLA

Legal to drive if hypoglycaemic awareness + 12 months no severe hypos

798
Q

HPV testing process remember?

A

Positive hrHPV- tests for cytology first

THEN colposcopy if abnormal

If normal- repeat at 12 months

799
Q

Can spinal stenosis present with unilateral leg pain?

A

Yes- pain improving on sitting down or crouching down
Weakness of the leg
Lack of smoking history
Lack of cardiovascular history

800
Q

Periorbital vs orbital cellulitis?

A

In periorbital- absence of painful movements, diplopia and visual impairment

801
Q

Middle loss vs peripheral loss in vision?

A

Middle loss- macular degeneration (can be age related)

Peripheral loss- primary glaucoma

802
Q

Can you get hyperlipidaemia in nephrotic syndrome?

A

Yes

Remember to give VTE prophylaxis in nephrotic syndrome

803
Q

Haptoglobin in haemolytic anaemias?

A

In haemolysis, free haemoglobin is released which then binds to haptoglobin

This means that in haemolytic anaemias haptoglobin is reduced

804
Q

Most common cause of vaginal itching?

A

Pruritus vulvae

Irritant contact dermatitis
Other dematitits
Lichen planus
Lichen sclerosis
Psoriasis

805
Q

Differentiate between L5/S1 problems?

A

Big toe- L5 (largest of the 5)
Little toe- S1 (smallest 1)

806
Q

Where is the S1 sensory loss?

A

Posterolateral aspect of the leg, lateral aspect of foot
Weakness in plantar flexion of foot
Positive sciatic nerve stretch test (also positive L5)

807
Q

Are relfexes in tact in L5 nerve route compression?

A

Yes

L3.4- knee reflex
S1, S2- ankle reflex

808
Q

When to send a urine culture in female non-pregnant UTI?

A

Urine culture if

Aged > 65

Visible or non-visible haematuria

809
Q

Rheumatic fever?

A

Follows an infection with Streptococcus pyogenes

Characterised by fever, rash, arthralgia and ejection systolic murmur

Rash, arthritis, murmur

Management-
Oral penicillin V
NSAIDs
Treatment of complications- HF

810
Q

Major/minor criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

Major:
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham’s chorea- late feature
Polyarthritis
Carditis and valvulitis
Subcutaneous nodules

Minor:
Raised ESR/CRP
Pyrexia
Arthralgia
Prolonged PR interval

811
Q

Live attenuated vaccines?

A

MI BOOTY
MMR
Intranasal influenza

BCG
Oral rotavirus
Oral polio
Typoid
Yellow fever

812
Q

Which vaccines can you not give in HIV positive patients?

A

Live attenuated vaccines- such as BCG, MMR, intranasal influenza

813
Q

How to work out SAAG?

A

Serum albumin - ascitic albumin

814
Q

Appendicitis bloods?

A

Neutrophil predominant leucocytosis seen in 80-90% of people

815
Q

Puberty order?

A

Boys- grapes, drapes, grow , blow

Girls- boobs, pubes, grow, flow

816
Q

Only cranial nerve to act contralateral?

A

Trochlear CN4

817
Q

STI + joint problems?

A

Could either be septic or reactive arthritis

Temperature could be the differentiator

(Gonorrhoea classically with septic, chlamydia in reactive)

818
Q

What characteristics are associated with Legionella?

A

Lymphopenia, hyponatraemia and deranged LFTs

819
Q

Hyperkalaemia ECG?

A

Tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS

820
Q

REMEMBER VESTIBULAR NEURONITIS

A

Vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis both present after recent illnesses

Differentiated by vestibular neuronitis not being associated with hearing loss and tinnitus whereas labyrinthitis is

821
Q

SLE invstigations?

A

99% ANA positive

Anti-dsDNA

Can monitor with ESR

Complelent levels (C3,C4) are low during active disease

822
Q

Vomiting in Addison’s disease?

A

Potenitally take the hydrocortisone IM

If intercurrent illness hydrocortisone doubled with fludrocortisone staying the same

823
Q

ORBIT?

A

Assessing bleeding risk in Afib from anticoagulation

O- older >75 (1point)
R- reduced Hb (2 points)
B- bleeding history (2 points)
I- insufficient renal function eGFR <60 (1point)
T- treatment with a nanti platelet agent (1 point)

824
Q

Women at high risk of pre-eclampsia?

A

75mg aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby

825
Q

L5 route compression movement problem?

A

Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion

Reflexes intact

826
Q

When can external cephalic version be performed?

A

For transverse lie if the amniotic sac has not ruptured

After 36 weeks

If doesn’t work caesarian

827
Q

Nuclear scintigraphy reveals patchy uptake?

A

Toxic multinodular goitre

Thyroid gland that contains a number of autonomously functioning thyroid nodules- causes hyperthyroidism

Treatment is radioiodine therapy

828
Q

Rosacea with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia?

A

Brimonidine gel can be considered

Generally for rosacea:
Topical ivermectin first line
Combination of topical ivermectin + oral doxycycline for moderate-to-severe papules and/or pustules

829
Q

Difference between drug-induced parkinsonism and Parkinson’s disease?

A

Motor symptoms are generally rapid onset and bilateral

Rigidity and rest tremor uncommon

830
Q

Intestinal angina (chronic mesenteric ischaemia) triad?

A

Severe, colicky post-prandial abdominal pain

Weight loss

Abdominal bruit

831
Q

Needing blood in acute setting?

A

Group and save- for if you require blood at later date, saves the blood type as reference- not for an acute setting

Crossmatch x(6) units- crossmatch allows for blood now or in the near future- for acute settings

Prothrombin complex concentrate- for the reversal of warfarin- not indicated if the patient is not on warfarin

832
Q

If cannot get above a testicular swelling on examination?

A

Inguinal hernia

Cough impulse may be present, may be reducible

833
Q

Difference between sigmoid volvulus and caecal volvulus?

A

Sigmoid presents with large bowel obstruction, caecal with small bowel obstruction

Sigmoid coffee bean sign

Sigmoid more common 80% of cases

834
Q

Pontine haemorrhage presentation?

A

Reduced GCS, paralysis and bilateral pin point pupils

Pin point pupils point to pons

835
Q

Investigations for Wilson’s disease?

A

Slit lamp examination- Kayser-Fleischer rings

Reduced serum caeruloplasmin

Reduced total serum copper

Increased 24 hour urinary copper excretion

Management: penicillamine

836
Q

Keloid scar treatment?

A

Intra-lesional steroids

KelOID, sterOID

837
Q

Aortic regurgitiation features?

A

Early diastolic murmur
Collapsing pulse
Quinkie’s sign- nailbed pulsation
Wide pulse pressure
De Musset’s sign- head bobbing

838
Q

TRALI vs TACO?

A

Can differentiate TRALI from TACO

TRALI- hypotension

TACO- hypertension

839
Q

Summary transfusion reactions?

A

Just fever- non-haemolytic febrile reaction- slow infusion and paracetamol

Just itch and urticaria- mild allergic- pause transfusion + antihistamine

Anaphylaxis- stop + adrenaline

Fever + hypotension- either acute haemolytic (abdo pain) or TRALI- stop and fluids

Hypertension, fluid overload signs (TACO)- stop infusion + furosemide

840
Q

FIrst step if a patient had a urine output <0.5ml/kg/hour postoperatively?

A

Consider a fluid challenge- 500ml bolus

Hypovolaemia most common cause of post-operative oliguria

841
Q

IgG vs IgM hepatitis serology?

A

IgG- chronic

IgM- acute

842
Q

Can obstructive sleep apnoea cause hypertension?

843
Q

Iliotibial band syndrome?

A

Common cause of lateral knee pain in runners

Tenderness 2-3cm above the lateral joint line

Activity modification and iliotibial band stretches

Physiotherapy referral

844
Q

Vaginal candidiasis treatment?

A

SINGLE dose oral fluconazole

845
Q

Management of alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Glucocorticoids
Maddrey’s discriminant function used to determine who would benefit from glucocorticoid therapy- calculated using prothrombin time and bilirubin concentration

Pentoxyphylline sometimes used

GGT characteristically raised

Ratio of AST:ALT is normally >2, a ratio of >3 is strongly suggestive of acute alcoholic hepatitis

846
Q

Newborn positive heel prick for CF?

A

If they have a raised immunoreactive trypsinogen (IRT)

They then get a sweat test which will be high in CF

Abnormally high sweat chloride

847
Q

Tear drop poikilocytes?

A

Myelofibrosis

848
Q

Myelofibrosis?

A

Myeloproliferative disorder- thought to be caused by hyperplasia of abnormal megakaryocytes

849
Q

Cholesteatoma?

A

Conductive hearing loss

Chronic smelly ear discharge with recurrent glue ear

850
Q

Chronic smelly ear discharge?

A

Cholesteatoma

851
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Caused by HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8)

Presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa

852
Q

Organophosphate insecticide poisoning treatment?

A

Atropine

There is features of accumulation of acetylcholine- SLUD

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation/diarrhoea

853
Q

Other name for endometrioma?

A

Chocolate cyst

Rupture causes acute abdo pain and free fluid in the pelvis

854
Q

Do you need to recheck for H.pylori after symptoms have resoled?

A

No need to check for H.pylori eradcation if symptoms have resolved

855
Q

Right sided tenderness on PR exam?

A

Think appendicitis

856
Q

Mesenteric adenitis?

A

Inflamed lymph nodes in the mesentery. Similar symptoms to appendicitis. Often follows recent viral infection- needs no treatment. More common in children.

857
Q

When to add metformin in T1DM?

A

If the BMI is over 25

858
Q

Can you use NSAIDs for gout in stage 4 kidney disease?

A

No- would have to use oral steroids if both NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated

859
Q

Which area of the brain does Alzheimer’s disease affect?

A

Hippocampus in the medial temporal lobe

860
Q

Sudden onset unilateral sensorineural hearing loss?

A

ENT emergency- same day discussion with the on call ENT specialist, along with the initiation of treatment with high dose corticosteroids- typically prednisolone

861
Q

Is Meniere’s constant or episodic?

A

Recurrent episodes

862
Q

Complication of cataracts surgery?

A

Endophthalmitis

Painful, red eye following cataract surgery- inflammation of the aqueous and/or vitreous humour

One of the reasons you don’t do bilateral cataract surgeries

863
Q

Rocuronium vs suxamethonium method of action?

A

Both neuromuscular blocking rugs

Act in different ways

Rocuronium- non-depolarising, antagonist leaving fewer receptors available for acetylcholine

Suzamethonium binds to and activates the receptor first causing muscle contraction then paralysis

864
Q

SALTER?

A

SALTER
Type 1 - S- Straight across/Slipped (growth plate)
Type 2 - A- Above (growth plate and methaphysis)
Type 3 - L- Lower (growth plate and epiphysis)
Type 4 - T- Through (metaphysis, growth plate, and epiphysis)
Type 5 - ERasure of growth plate or cRush (compression injury)

865
Q

Nail changes and arthritis?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

866
Q

Innocent murmurs?

A

Innocent murmurs heard in systole as blood flows rapidly, diastolic murmurs more indicitive of pathology

Venous hums- continuous blowing nous heard just below the clavicles

Still’s murmur- low-pitched sound at the lower left sternal edge

867
Q

If neutropenic sepsis suspeected (recent chemo + fever)?

A

IV antibiotics started immediatley- not not wait for WBC count

Start Tazocin

868
Q

Normal FEV1/FVC ratio in an adult?

A

0.7

Restrictive lung disease- normal or increased

Obstructive lung disease reduced

869
Q

Osteomalacia low phosphate?

A

Yes, low phosphate, low calcium, raised ALP

Low vit D

Give vit D

870
Q

DPP-4?

A

Sitagliptin

Seem to be quite ok to start as have not many side effects

871
Q

In STEMI when going for PCI- Prasugrel?

A

Yes- give BEFORE the PCI

Clopidogrel if already on an anticoagulant

Ends up being dual antiplatelet therapy as they will already have been given aspirin

872
Q

Delirium causes?

A

PINCH ME

Pain
Infection
Nutrition
Contipation
Hydration

Metabolism
Environmental changes

873
Q

Primary vs secondary dysmenorrhoea?

A

Primary- no underlying pathology- pain starts at menarche- pain starts with or within a few hours of the period starting- give NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid, COCP second line

Secondary dysmenorrhoea- develops many years after the menarche- result of underlying pathology- pain typically starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period- endometriosis, adenomyosis, PID, IUDs, fibroids

Refer all patient with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynae for investigation

874
Q

Do not miss compartment syndome- tip?

A

Any neurovascular defecit in trauma cases- refer to an orthopedic surgeon

875
Q

Key dates antenatal care timetable?

A

Booking visit- 8-12 weeks

Down’s screening with nuchal scan- 11-13+6 weeks

Anomaly scan- 18-20+6 weeks

Anti-D given at 28 and 34 weeks

876
Q

HSP symptoms?

A

Palpable purpuric rash
Abdo pain
Polyarthritis
Features of IgA nephropathy- haematuria, renal failure

Treatment- analgesia

Monitor BP and urinalysis

877
Q

Unilateral glue ear (otitis media with effusion)?

A

Refer in adult

Glue ear in children

Active observation 1st- 3 months
Grommit insertion
Adenoidectomy

Otitits media with effusion is different from acute otitis media

878
Q

URTI symptoms + amoxicillin causing a rash?

A

?Glandular fever

Classic triad of sore throat, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy

879
Q

Over what age for PMB and referral on 2ww?

880
Q

For primary prevention of CVD, what should you aim for reduction in non-HDL?

A

40% reduction- if it does not reduce by 40% or more consider increasing the dose of atorvastatin to 80mg

881
Q

Chronic pancreatitis?

A

Pain
Steatorrhoea
DM

CT pancreas

Faecal elastase can be used to assess exocrine function if imaging inconclusive

Management:
Pancreatic enzyme supplements
Analgesia
Antioxidants

882
Q

When to take aspirin during pregnancy to prevent pre-eclampsia?

A

1 or more high risk factor
2 or more moderate risk factors

High risk factors
Hypertensive in previous pregnancy
CKD
Autoimmune: SLE/antiphospholipid
DM
Chronic HTN

Moderate RFs
First pregnancy
Age 40+
Pregnancy interval of >10 years
BMI over 35
FH pre-eclampsia
Multiple pregnancy

883
Q

AS valvular gradient to consider valve replacement?

884
Q

Incomplete miscarrige management if evidence of infection/increased risk of haemorrhage?

A

Vacuum aspiration

885
Q

Ankle fracture managment?

A

Prompt reduction- closed reduction quickly

Can then do an ORIF- open reduction internal fixation if required

?

886
Q

HINTS test outcomes?

A

Peripheral-

Head impulse test- abnormal
Nystagmus- none or unidirectional
Test of skew- no vertical skew

Central

Head impulse test- normal

Nystagmus- bidirectional or vertical

Test of skew- vertical skew

887
Q

Syphilis is painless ulcers. what would be painful ulcers?

A

Herpes simplex

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV) is another cause of painless ulcers caused by Chlamydia, treat wit hdoxycycline

888
Q

Myxoedemic coma?

A

Treat with thyroxine and hydrocortisone

Severe untreated hypothyroidism- obesity, non-pitting oedema, dry skin, hair loss + bradycardia, mild hypotension, hypothermia

889
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

Cutaneous manifestation of coeliac disease

890
Q

Rhabdomyolysis way to tell from bloods?

A

CK is massively raised- over 10,000

891
Q

Radiotherapy or surgical decompression for spinal metastases?

A

If fit for surgery- surgical decompression of the spinal cord

If not fit for surgery- external bean radiotherapy

892
Q

Opioid in repiratory disease after surgery?

A

Probably avoid- epidural might be best

893
Q

Increased ratio of LH:FSH?

894
Q

Inflammatory back pain vs mechanical back pain?

A

Inflammatory back pain not improved with rest and is improved with activity

Mechanical back pain is worse with activity and relieved by rest

895
Q

Lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

Another flashcard as well, endemic in MSM- proctitis, ulcer and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy

896
Q

ST elevation vs tall tented t waves?

A

Seems to be that T waves are seperate entities to the QRS

Whereas ST elevation the lot is raised

897
Q

Respiratory acidosis in COPD exacerbation treatment? (type 2 respiratory failure)

A

Non- invasive ventilation

898
Q

pH for an NG tube to be safe to use?

A

If the aspirate is less that 5.5

899
Q

Beta-thalassaemia trait?

A

Mild hypochromic, microcytic anaemia- microcytosis is characteristically disproportionate to the anaemia- e.g. blood cells are much smaller but not that much anaemia

HbA2 raised > 3.5%

900
Q

Renal replacement therapy (haemodialysis) indications?

A

Uraemia (pericarditis, encephalopathy), acidosis, pulmonary oedema, hyperkalaemia

901
Q

What happens if you drain a pneumothorax too quickly?

A

Reexpansion pneumothorax

902
Q

Anomaly scan dates?

A

18-20+6 weeks

903
Q

Alcoholic hepatitis treatment?

A

Prednisolone- can use Maddrey’s formula to determine

Pentoxyphylline also sometimes used

904
Q

Arterial vs venous ulcer location?

A

Arterial- lateral malleolus

Venous- medial malleolus

905
Q

Tracheo-oesophageal fistula?

A

Complication of long term ventilation

Abnormal connection between the trachea and oesophagus leading to choking episodes during feeding, recurrent aspiration and pneumonia

Requires surgical correction

906
Q

Imaging that can be done for acute pancreatitis?

A

US- looks for gallstones etc

Potentially contrast-enhanced CT

907
Q

CHICKENPOX Exposure?

A

Any doubt about mother previously having chicken pox- check maternal varicella antibodies

Give antivirals 7-14 days post exposure

If get chickenpox- oral aciclovir within 24 hours

908
Q

Prominent U wave on ECG?

A

Hypokalaemia

Also ST depression and T wave flattening

909
Q

Sildenafil and nitrates?

A

Contraindicated

Another side effect if sildenafil is blue discolouration to vision

910
Q

SBA rules for penile ulcers?

A

Painful ulcer + Painful lymph nodes in LEDC: Chancroid
Painful ulcer(s) + Painful lymph nodes: Genital Herpes
Painless ulcer + Painful lymph nodes in LEDC: LGV
Painless ulcer + Painless lymph node: Syphilis (Tropenema)

Key is multiple painful ulcers in genital herpes

911
Q

Recent sore throat, rash, arthritis, murmur?

A

? Rheumatic fever

Treat with one off dose of IV benzylpenicillin or a course of oral penicillin V

912
Q

Bloods for post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis?

A

Raised anti-streptolysin O titre

913
Q

Pain on radial side of wrist, tenderness over radial styloid process, abduction of thumb against resistance painful?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis

Do Finkelstein’s test- pull thumb in ulnar deviation

914
Q

What counts as raised intraocular pressure?

915
Q

Which drugs should all patients be offered after MI?

A

Aspirin
Clopidogrel (or another needs dual anti platelet therapy)
ACEi
BB
Statin

916
Q

Heart attack in which territory most likely to cause arrythmias?

A

Inferior

II, III and aVF

Right coronary arteries supply blood to the AV node so infarction can cause arrythmias

917
Q

Hypercalcaemia?

A

Hypercalcaemia- Bones, stones, moans, thrones and groans

Hypocalcemia- Muscle twitching (tetany), perioral paraesthesia, prolonged QT

Hypernatraemia- Thirst + dehydration, weakness, lethargy, irritability, confusion, coma

Hyponatraemia- Anorexia, nausea & malaise (followed by) headache, irritability, confusion, weakness, decreased GCS and seizures

Hyperkalaemia- ECG changes (Tall tented T waves, small P waves, wide QRS, VF, potentially sinewave like ECG); symptoms are therefore cardiac-like (rapid pulse, chest pain, headache)

Hypokalaemia- Muscle weakness, hypotonia, ECG changes(U wave, long PR, long QT, small or absent T waves)

918
Q

Spider naevi vs telangiextasia?

A

Spider naevi refill from the centre

Telangiectasia fill from the edge

919
Q

Chronic hep B with sudden deterioration?

A

?Hepatocellular carinoma

920
Q

Transudates vs exudates?

A

Transudates are systemic

Exudates are local to the lung

921
Q

Pleural effusion fluid to serum protein ratio?

A

Pleural effusion fluid/serum protein ratio is >0.5 in an exudate

Light’s criteria

Pleural fluid protein/serum protein >0.5

Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH >0.6

PPleural fluid LDH more than two-thirds the upper limits of normal serum LDH

922
Q

SNRI monitoring?

A

BP as they can cause hypertension

923
Q

Electrolyte disturbance with SSRIs?

A

Hyponatraemia

924
Q

Is HIV a notifiable disease in the UK?

A

No it is not

925
Q

Hypomagnesaemia?

A

Presents similar to hypocalcaemia

Can be caused by PPIs, alcohol, diarrhoea

Features-
Paraesthesia
Tetany
Seizures
Arrhythmias
Decreased PTH- hypocalcaemia

926
Q

Caesarean and speed?

A

Cat 1- within 30 minutes
Cat 2- within 75 minutes
Cat 3- required but mother and baby stable
Cat 4- elective carsarean

927
Q

Croup- what is given regardless of the severity?

A

A single dose of dexamethasone

928
Q

AFP and HCG in seminomas?

A

Usually normal

929
Q

Optic neuritis?

A

Optic neuritis = CRAP
Central scotoma, RAPD/Red desaturation, Acuity decreased, Painful eye movements

930
Q

Which hepatitis are spread through the faecal oral route?

A

Hepatitis A and E

A and B are vaccinated

You can only get D if you have B

931
Q

Ruddy complexion
Gout
Peptic ulcer disease
Pruritus after a warm bath?

A

Polycythaemia

932
Q

Varicose veins/ chronic venous insufficiency investigation?

A

Venous duplex ultrasound

May demonstrate retrograde flow

933
Q

Calcimimetic for hyperparathyroidism?

A

Cinacalcet

934
Q

Paediatric constipation?

A

MSO

Movicol
Stimulant
Osmotic

935
Q

Vestibular neuronitis treatment?

A

Prochlorperazine

If does not resolve symptoms- vestibular rehabilitation exercises

936
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis Ms?

A

IgM
Anti-Mitochondrial antibodies
Middle aged females

937
Q

Umbilical vs inguinal hernia in children?

A

Inguinal- repair ASAP

Umbilical- manage conservatively

938
Q

Triad for renal cell carcinoma?

A

Haematuria, loin pain, abdominal mass

939
Q

Is a CXR recommended for all patients with a PE?

A

Yes, to exclude other pathology

940
Q

Most common organism in cellulitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

941
Q

Fibrocystic disease (fibroadenosis)?

A

Most common in middle-aged women

Lumpy breasts which may be painful

Symptoms may worsen prior to menstruation

942
Q

Types of burns?

A

Superficial –> blanching erythema
Partial thickness (Superficial dermal) –> blisters
Partial thickness (Deep dermal) –> white; and patches of non-blanching erythema
Full thickness –> painless

943
Q

Most common cause of neutropenic sepsis?

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

944
Q

Pityriasis rosea?

A

Herald patch on trunk that spreads
Erythematous, oval, scaly patches

Potential recent history of viral infection

Self limiting- disappears after 6-12 weeks

945
Q

Magnesium sulfate toxicity (eclampsia)?

A

Low RR is key

Muscle paralysis, absent reflexes

Give calcium gluconate

946
Q

SBO vs LBO?

A

Be careful- if vomiting and no/late constipation- SBO

If constipation but no vomiting/very late vomiting- LBO

SBO- adhesions from previous surgery, hernias

LBO- malignancy, diverticulitis, volvulus

947
Q

White cell casts/sterile pyuria?

A

Acute interstitial nephritis

Will also be an eosinophilia

Look for a cause-
Most common antibiotics- penicillin
Rifampicin
NSAIDs
Allopurinol
Furosemide

948
Q

Muddy brown casts?

A

Acute tubular necrosis

949
Q

Thumb squaring?

A

Osteoarthritis

Bony enlargements such as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s

Heberden’s at DIP, Bouchard’s at PIP

950
Q

Does RA spare the DIPJs?

951
Q

Is adenosine CI in asthmatics?

A

Yes verapamil is preferable

952
Q

Heparins action?

A

Activates antithrombin III

LMWH- inhibits factor Xa

Standard does more

953
Q

Most common meningitis complication?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

Also:
Seizures
Focal neurological defecit
Sepsis/abscess
Raised ICP

954
Q

Are varicoceles associated with infertility?

955
Q

Reduced fetal movements?

A

Refer if not developed by 24 weeks

Initally handheld doppler

If no fetal heartbeat- immediate ultrasound

If fetal heartbeat present- CTG

956
Q

Loin pain, haematuria and pyrexia of unknown origin?

A

?Renal cell carcinoma

957
Q

Systemic onset JIA?

A

Pyrexia
Salmon-pink rash
Lymphadenopathy
Arthritis
Uveitis
Anorexia and weight loss

Pauciarticuar JIA-
Joint and pain swelling- medium sized joints
Limp
ANA may be positive in JIA
4 or more joints affected

958
Q

Indications for urgent surgical valve replacement in infective endocarditis?

A

Congestive cardiac failure

Severe valvular incompetence

959
Q

Hand muscle innervation?

A

LOAF muscles- median, all other muscles- ulnar

LOAF-
Lateral two lumbricles
Opponens pollicis
Abductor policis brevis
Flexor policis brevis

960
Q

Most common type of breast cancer?

A

Invasive ductal carcinoma in situ

961
Q

COPD LTOT?

A

> 7.3kPa of oxygen or

7.3-8kPa and one of-
Secondary polycythaemia
Peripheral oedema
Pulmonary hypertension

962
Q

How to check for leakage after an anastomosis surgery to join the colon?

A

Gastrogaffin enema

963
Q

Adrenaline doses?

A

0.5mg for anaphylaxis- 0.5ml 1:1000

Cardiac arrest 1mg- either 10ml 1:10,000

964
Q

When to consider anaemia of chronic disease?

A

Hb low
Serum iron low
TIBC low
Ferritin riased
Normocytic or maybe microcytic anaemia

IDA would be low ferritin high TIBC

965
Q

How many AKI stages?

A

3

Stage 1- 1.5.1.9- all the 1s
0.5 for 6

Stage 2- 2-2.9- all the 2s
0.5 for 12- another 2

Stage 3- >3x- all the 3s
0.3 for 24 hours- another 3

966
Q

Breech baby investigation?

A

Ultrasound pelvis in every breech baby at 6 weeks

967
Q

Acute pancreatitis systemic complication?

A

Acute respiratory distress syndrome

968
Q

Second line for GAD after sertraline?

A

SNRI- duloxetine or venlafaxine

969
Q

NOF fracture first line analgesia?

A

Iliofascial nerve block

970
Q

Torsades de pointes ECG?

A

Like AM cover Arctic Monkeys

Administer magnesium

971
Q

Do you give fluids for superficial epidermal burns?

A

No- equivalent to a sunburn etc

Give IV fluids for other burns with greater than 15% total body surface area coverage

972
Q

Rubella symptoms?

A

Similar to measles but

Pink rash from the face

Not masses else so put when ruled out other things, some lymphadenopathy present

973
Q

Morphine oral to subcutaneous?

A

Divide by 2

974
Q

Organisms causing post splenectomy sepsis?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilius influenzae
Meningococci

975
Q

Restarting COCP?

A

Breastfeeding- 6 weeks post partum

Not breastfeeding- 3 weeks post partum due to VTE risk

Women only require contraception after day 21

976
Q

VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy?

A

DOACs/warfarin contraindicated

LMWH is the treatment of choice

977
Q

How to investigate AKI with an unclear cause?

A

Renal tract ultrasound within 24 hours

978
Q

Acute vs chronic pancreatitis most common causes?

A

Acute- gallstones

Chronic- alcohol excess- important

979
Q

Chronic pancreatitis symptoms?

A

Pain worse following a meal

Steatorrhoea

Diabetes mellitus- typically 20 years after symptoms begin

CT- pancreatic calcification

Functional tests- faecal elastase to assess exocrine function

Give pancreatic enzyme supplements + analgesia

980
Q

What is inflammatory back pain?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis etc

Mechanical back pain is hurt back

981
Q

Brain abscess treatment?

A

Ceftriaxone (3rd generation cephalosporin) and metronidazole

Seems metronidazole used in all abscesses

Ring enhancing lesions on a CT scan are characteristic of abscesses

982
Q

Causes of false VDRL/RPR (syphilis tests)?

A

SomeTimes Mistakes Happen

SLE, TB, Malaria, HIV

Non-treponemal tests- VDRL/RPR- can give false positives

Treponemal-specific tests- TP-EIA, TPHA- specific for syphilis

Positive non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test
consistent with active syphilis infection

Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test
consistent with a false-positive syphilis result e.g. due to pregnancy or SLE (see list above)

Negative non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test :
consistent with successfully treated syphilis

983
Q

Adrenaline doses?

A

Under 6- 150

6-11- 300

12+- 500

984
Q

Broad complex vs narrow complex timings?

A

Broad >0.12 QRS

Narrow <0.12 QRS

985
Q

ARE PROPHYLACTIC ANTIBIOTICS REQUIRED BEFORE AN APPENDICECTOMY?

986
Q

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Form of peritonitis usually seen in patients with ascites secondary to liver cirrhosis

Features
- ascites
- abdominal pain
- fever

Diagnosis
Paracentesis- neutrophil count over 250
Most common organism is E.coli

IV cefotaxime usually given

987
Q

Antibiotic prophylaxis for ascites?

A

Patients with fluid protein <15 and cirrhosis

Previous spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

Give ciprofloxacin for prohylacis

988
Q

Subacute thyroiditis (de quervains and ESR?)

A

ESR Raised in hypoerthyroidism (phase 1)

Also a painful goitre

989
Q

Bleeding + haemoarthroses?

A

Haemophilia

990
Q

KEY THING TO REMEMBER ABOUT REACTIVE ARTHRITIS?

A

READ ALL THE OPTIONS

REMEMBER REACTIVE ARTHRITIS CAN HAPPEN WITH STIs NOT JUST STOMACH RELATED ILLNESSES

URETHRITIS, ARTHRITIS AND CONJUNCTIVITIS

991
Q

Disseminated gonococcal diseae?

A

Tenosynovitis, migratory poly arthritis and dermatitis

992
Q

Haemophilia overview?

A

Haemophilia A= factor 8 (A=8)

Haemophilia B= factor 9

Prolonged APTT, normal PT and bleeding time

Bleeding into joints- haemoarthroses
Post surgical or post trauma prolonged bleeding

X-linked recessive- only affects men

993
Q

Investigation of choice for polycythemia vera?

A

JAK2 mutation

994
Q

Risk for starting TNF-inhibitors?

A

Reactivation of TB

Do CXR before starting them

995
Q

Severe UC exacerbation investigation?

A

Sigmoidoscopy not colonoscopy due to risk of perforation

996
Q

Transfuse at what Hb?

997
Q

Choice of antiemetic?

A

Generally

Give cyclizine for everything unless the cause is

Gastric motility- metoclopramide

Chemically mediated- ondansetron

Parkinson’s disease- domperidone

998
Q

Sodium valproate causes pancreatitis?

999
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis?

A

Severe inflammation of the large intestine caused by C.difficile

1000
Q

Test for diagnosis and screening in HIV?

A

HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody

At 4 weeks and 3 months

1001
Q

Genital herpes investigation?

A

NAAT- nucleic acid amplification tests

1002
Q

IS IT BIPAP OR CPAP IN COPD EXACERBATION?

A

BIPAP REMEMBER IT

CPAP is for sleep apnoea

7.25-7.35 BiPaP

Less then 7.25 intubate and ventilate

1003
Q

CKD extra medication to take?

1004
Q

Ecstasy poisoning electrolyte imbalance?

A

Hyponatraemia

Can use dantrolene

1005
Q

Alcohol withdrawl symptoms timeline?

A

Alcohol withdrawal
symptoms: 6-12 hours
seizures: 36 hours
delirium tremens: 72 hours

1006
Q

Causes of lithium toxicity?

A

Dehydration
Renal failure
Drugs: diuretics (especially thiazides), ACEi/ARB, NSAIDs and metronidazole

1007
Q

Lithium toxicity features?

A

Coarse tremor
Hyperreflexia
Polyuria
Acute confusion
Seizure
Coma

1008
Q

Is WBC raised in ALL?

A

Not necessarily because immature blasts

1009
Q

ITP?

A

Isolated thrombocytopenia

1010
Q

ALL can present with DIC, what are the signs of DIC?

A

Prolonged PT and APTT
Reduced fibrinogen
Elevated fibrin degradation products (d-dimer)
Thrombocytopenia

Also- anaemia, leukopenia

With systemic symptoms fever, fatigue, pain it raises the suspicion of ALL

1011
Q

ACL vs meniscus?

A

ACL swelling very quickly, pop heard at injury, no locking/catching, feels like it will give way

Meniscus swelling takes longer >24 hours, locking/catching, no true instability

1012
Q

RA joint aspiration?

A

Can be turbid and yellow with a high white cell count- predominatly neutrophils

1013
Q

Glue ear with Down’s or cleft palate?

A

Refer to ENT

1014
Q

Breast lump in under 30?

A

Non-urgent referral

1015
Q

Drug for restless legs syndrome?

A

Dopamine agonists- pramipexole, ropinirole

Exclude iron deficiency

1016
Q

Guillain-Barre management?

A

IV immunoglobulins

VTE prophylaxis

1017
Q

Extra heart sounds?

A

S3 threee → cannot breeeeeath → LVH or cardiomyopathy (dilated)

S4 foooour → drop on flooor → HOCM

S3 normal in under 30, S4 normal in over 40 (3 for 30, 4 for 40)

1018
Q

Orbital compartment syndrome?

A

Secondary to retrobulbar haemorrhage- true opthalmic emergency

Features- history of trauma-
Eye pain/swelling
Proptosis
Rock hard eyelids
Relevant afferent pupillary defect

Management-
Urgent lateral canthotomy to decompress the orbit- before diagnostic imaging

1019
Q

Blood in anterior chamber of the eye (hyphema)?

A

If not orbital compartment syndrome which needs immediate treatment

Urgent referral to opthalmology

1020
Q

Synchonised or unsynchronised shock?

A

Presence of a pulse

If pulse- give synchonised

If no pulse- unsynchronised

Don’t shock an unshockable rhythm such as PEA, asystole

1021
Q

Life threatening asthma criteria?

A

PEFR <33%, O2 sats <92% + CHEST

Cyanosis
Hypotension
Exhaustion
Silent chest, poor respiratory effort
Tachy/brady/arrhythmia

1022
Q

SBP causative organism?

A

Three C’s

e.Coli
Ciprofloxacin for prophylaxis
Cefotaxime IV to treat

1023
Q

Can you get TB after having the TB vaccine?

A

Yes it would seem so- it offers limited protection- it is a live attenuated vaccine- no evidence it works over the age of 35

Features of TB- haemoptysis, night sweats, fever and lymphadenopathy

Travel to high TB areas

SOB, weight loss

Hyponatraemia can be seen- TB associated with SIADH

1024
Q

Placental abruption management?

A

Fetus alive and < 36 weeks
No distress- admit and steroids
Distress- Immediate caesarean section

Fetus alive > 36 weeks
No distress- deliver vaginally
Distress- immediate caesarean

Fetus dead- vaginal delivery

1025
Q

Ureteric obstruction due to stone stone + infection?

A

Urgent decompression

1026
Q

Site of epistaxis?

A

Anterior nasal septum bleeds- more common

Posterior nasal septum bleeds- more severe

Usually an insult to Kiesselbach’s plexus

1027
Q

Open angle glaucoma vs closed angle glaucoma treatment?

A

Open angle- treat if >24 IOP
Laser trabeculoplasty first line

Prostoglandin analogue eye drops next- Latanoprost

Beta-blocker drops- timolol
Carbonic anhydrase drops- dorzolamide

1028
Q

Constrictive pericarditis presentation?

A

SOB
RHF- elevated JVP, oedema
Pericardial knock- loud S3
Kussmaul’s sign positive

CXR pericardial calcification

1029
Q

How long for conttraceptives to become effective?

A

IUD- immediate

2 days- POP

7 days- COCP, injection, implant, IUS

1030
Q

WHEN TO USE PROPHYLACTIC CIPROFLOXACIN FOR SBP?

A

IF THE SAAG IS LESS THAN 15

1031
Q

Amitriptyline and BPH?

A

Contraindicated

1032
Q

Hyponatremia during TURP? TURP syndrome

A

Caused by irrigation with glycine which is hypo-osmolar

Presents with CNS, respiratory and systemic symptoms

1033
Q

Latent autoimmune diabetes of adulthood vs maturity onset diabetes of the young

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes of adulthood- type 1 diabetes presenting later

Maturity onset diabetes of the young- type 2 diabetes presenting in younger people

1034
Q

Hypercalcaemia?

A

Painful bones, psychiatric moans, abdo groans

1035
Q

Uric acid levels in gout measurement?

A

If uric acid level over 360 it supports the diagnosis

If uric acid level <360- repeat the uric acid level measurement at least 2 weeks after the flare has settled

1036
Q

Synovial fluid analysis gout?

A

Needle shaped negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light

1037
Q

How long symptoms present to diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

At least 3 months

1038
Q

Other name for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

Myalgic encephalomyelitis

1039
Q

TIA caused by AF?

A

Give a DOAC- treat the underlying cause
Start it immediately

After stroke DOAC is started after 2 weeks aspirin

If no AF after stroke use clopidogrel after 2 weeks aspirin
Same management for TIA without AF

1040
Q

AST:ALT ratio of 2?

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

AST is higher for spirits- GGT also characteristically raised

ALT is higher for lard- non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)

Glucocorticoids often used during acute episodes of alcoholic hepatitis

1041
Q

Sickle cell- pulmonary infiltrates?

A

Acute chest syndrome

Pain relief, oxygen, antibiotics, transfusion

1042
Q

Can nitrofurantoin cause pulmonay fibrosis?

1043
Q

Most common place for Crohn’s?

1044
Q

Optic neuritis?

A

CRAP
c- central scotoma
r- red desaturation/ RAPD
a- acuity decreased
p- painful eye movement

1045
Q

Insulinoma or?

A

Could be sulfonyl urea overdose- causes increased insulin secretion from the pancreas

1046
Q

Type 1 vs type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

P4tch test: for type IV sensitivity
Pr1ck test: for type I hypersensitivity

1047
Q

TB treatment regime?

A

RIPE for first 2 months

RI for next 4 months

Latent TB is treated with 3 months of RI (with pyridoxine) or 6 months of isoniazid (with pyridoxine)

1048
Q

> 60 with a new onset iron-deficiency anaemia?

A

Urgent colorectal cancer pathway referral

FIT test and refer on 2ww for colonoscopy

FIT test for over 60 with anaemia even without iron deficiency

1049
Q

TIA and referral?

A

Within a week- specialist appointment within 24 hours

Over a week ago- specialist appointment within a week

1050
Q

Potential complication of panretinal photocoagulation

A

A decrease in night vision

1051
Q

Smith fracture?

A

Reverse colles fractures

Hand goes down

1052
Q

Lupus pernio?

A

In sarcoidosis

Similar rash to SLE but purple in colour

Sarcoidosis has a raised serum calcium

1053
Q

Non-falciparum malariua treatment?

A

Plasmodium vivax, plasmodium ovale

Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) or chloroquine

Patients with ovale or vivax malaria should be given primaquine following acute treatment with chloroquine to destroy live hypnozoites and prevent relapse

1054
Q

Felty’s syndrome?

A

Splenomegaly and neutropenia in a patient with arthritis

Anaemia as well

RA + Splenomegaly + low white cell count

1055
Q

Wilson’s disease blood results?

A

Reduced serum caeruloplasmin (carries copped)

Reduced total serum copper
(although free copper increased)

Increased 24hr urinary copper excretion

Management penicillamine (chelates copper)

1056
Q

DDH RFs?

A

Fat, female, first born, foot-first, family history

1057
Q

Hand osteoarthritis affected joints?

A

CMCs and DIPJs more than the PIPJs

Heberden’s nodes at the DIP
Bouchard’s nodes at the PIP

1058
Q

The Levine Scale for murmurs?

A

Grade 1 - Very faint murmur, frequently overlooked
Grade 2 - Slight murmur
Grade 3 - Moderate murmur without palpable thrill
Grade 4 - Loud murmur with palpable thrill
Grade 5 - Very loud murmur with extremely palpable thrill. Can be heard with stethoscope edge
Grade 6 - Extremely loud murmur - can be heard without stethoscope touching the chest wall

1059
Q

Ascending cholangitis causative organism?

A

Most commonly E.Coli

1060
Q

When to do a pregnancy test after a medically managed miscarriage?

A

3 weeks after

1061
Q

Management of RA flares?

A

Corticosteroids- oral or IM

1062
Q

REMEMBER REACTIVE ARTHRITIS!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! ESPECIALLY POST STI!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

A

DIFFERENTIATE IT FROM SEPTIC

REMEMBER- CAN’T PEE, CAN’T SEE, CAN’T CLIMB A TREE

1063
Q

DOAC length in PE/DVT with active cancer?

A

3 to 6 months (could be 6 months as an answer)

1064
Q

Investigation for acute cholecystitis?

A

Ultrasound scan

1065
Q

Cause of extradural haematomas?

A

Fracture of the pterion which is where the middle meningeal artery is located

1066
Q

When to rescan to see if placenta praevia has resolved?

A

At 32 weeks if low lying on the 20 week scan

If still present at 32 rescan ever 2 weeks

Final ultrasound at 36-37 weeks
Grades 3/4 elective caesarean at 37/38

If woman with known placenta praevia goes into labour- emergency caesarean

1067
Q

Brachial plexus injuries?

A

Erb-Duchenne paralysis- damage to C5/6 roots- winged scapula, caused by breech presentation

Klumpke’s paralysis- damage to T1, loss of intrinsic hand muscles
Due to traction

T1 bring in the thumb

1068
Q

Treatment of otitis externa?

A

Topical antibiotic or combined topical antibiotic and steroid are both first line

Second line are oral antibiotics (flucloxacillin) if the infection is spreading

If patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics then the patient should be referred to ENT

1069
Q

What is a FAST scan?

A

Focused assessment eith sonography for trauma

Can detect free fluid in the abdomen and chest

1070
Q

Lacunar stroke?

A

Involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia

Presents with 1 of the following-

Unilateral weakness of face, arm, leg or all three

Pure sensory stroke

Ataxic hemiparesis`

1071
Q

Gential herpes investigation?

A

Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT)

1072
Q

UC flare that is affecting the whole colon (extensive disease)?

A

Both topical and oral aminosalicylate- this is because rectal cannot help the whole of the colon so need an oral agent too

1073
Q

Can alcohol excess cause neuropathy?

1074
Q

Chronic pancreatitis and diabetes?

A

Can cause it although can take a while

1075
Q

What do patients with CKD (especially those on dialysis) have a significantly higher risk of?

A

Cardiovascular diseases- ischaemic heart disease

1076
Q

WHICH IS WORSE CRITICAL LIMB ISCHEMIA OR ACUTE LIMB ISCHEMIA?

A

ACUTE- THIS HAS THE 6 P’s
Pale
Pulseless
Painful
Paralysed
Paraesthetic
Perishingly cold

1077
Q

How to treat severe cellulitis?

A

Co-amoxiclav, clindamycin, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone

1078
Q

B symptoms and Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Associated with a poorer prognosis

Weight loss, fever, night sweats

Hodgkin’s has Reed-Sternberg cells

1079
Q

Severe hepatitis in a pregnant woman?

A

Hepatitis E

A and E spread faecally- vowels and bowels

B, C, D spread by blood

1080
Q

Ureteric stones vs renal stones?

A

Renal stone management is the classic one learnt

Ureteric- shockwave lithotripsy +/- alpha blcokers if under 10mm

If over 10mm- uretoscopy

1081
Q

Aortic transection?

A

Tear through all walls of aorta due to trauma

May be ok for a while due to a haematoma but then sudden death

1082
Q

Testicular fixation surgery name?

A

Orchidopexy

1083
Q

Genital warts management?

A

Caused by HPV 6 & 11

Small fleshy, may bleed or itch

Management-
Topical podophyllum or cryotherapy- depends of the loaction and type of lesion

Multiple, non-keratinised are best treated topically

Solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy

1084
Q

Starting long term steroid therapy?

A

<65 years old- DEXA scan

> 65 years old- bisphosphonate

1085
Q

Should all pregnanct women take vit D?

1086
Q

What should people with heart attack secondary to cocaine be given?

A

IV benzodiazapines

1087
Q

Cocaine toxicity treatments?

A

Generally benzodiazapines

Chest pain- benzos + GTN

Hypertension- benos + sodium nitroprusside

1088
Q

Conduction dysphasia affects which part of the brain?

A

Arcuate fasciculus

1089
Q

Where is osteomyelitis most likely to affect?

A

In children- minors- metaphysis

In adults- elders- epiphysis

1090
Q

PSC investigation?

1091
Q

Do you shock a bradycardia?

A

NO atropine 500 milligrams up to max of 3mg

Transcutaneous pacing
Isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion

Transvenous pacing

1092
Q

De Quervain’s?

A

Painful goitre and globally reduced uptake of iodine-131, raised ESR

Key investigation is the thyroid scintigraphy with the globally reduced uptake of iodine-131

Usually self limiting

1093
Q

Is dialysis ineffective at removing tricyclics?

1094
Q

Key investigation for diagnosing CKD?

A

Albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR)

1095
Q

Rubella distinguisher from measles?

A

Suboccipital and post auricular lymphadenopathy and pink rash

1096
Q

Chalazion vs stye (hordeolum)?

A

Stye painful and caused by s.aureus

Chalazion painless, sterile lymphogranuloma

1097
Q

Standby medication COPD?

A

If had an exacerbation within the last year- keep a short course of oral corticosteroids and oral antibiotics at home

1098
Q

Type 1 vs type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

Type 1 rapid- anaphylaxis- IgE

Type 4- slower no antibodies (dermatitis, scabies)

1099
Q

Tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Whitened skin lesions, nerve damage

TB risk factors potentially

1100
Q

Nec fasc

A

Type 1- mixed anaerobes and aerobes
Type 2- Strep pyogenes

SGLT-2 is a RF

Perineum most common site (Fournier’s gangrene)

Rapidly worsening cellulitis- pain out of keeping with physical features

Management- urgent surgical referral for debridement

IV antibiotics

1101
Q

In pregnancy of unknown location what does a bHCG of over 1500 point to?

A

A diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy

1102
Q

Beta thalassemia?

A

MCV low

In major- Hb very low and MCV very low, symptoms

In trait- Hb slightly low, MCV very and disproportionatley low, often asymptomatic