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1
Q

PEANUT
ADAMTS-13 deficiency is responsible for thrombocytopenia found in:
A. TTP
B. DIC
C. HUS
D. ITP

A

A. TTP

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2
Q

PEANUT
Inadequate fibrinolysis:
a. Bleeding, incomplete wound healing
b. Bleeding and thrombosis
c. Clot extension and thrombosis
d. Clot extension and thrombosis, incomplete wound healing

A

c. Clot extension and thrombosis

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3
Q

RBC with membrane folded over:
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease
D. Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia

A

C. Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease

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4
Q

PEANUT
Uneven pressure on spreader slide:
A. Smear too short
B. Smear too long
C. Ridges or waves in smear
D. Artifacts or unusual cell appearance

A

C. Ridges or waves in smear

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5
Q

PEANUT
Uneven or dirty edge of spreader slide:
A. Ridges or waves in smear
B. Holes in smear
C. Artifacts or unusual cell appearance
D. Smear too thin

A

B. Holes in smear

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6
Q

PEANUT
1. In manual wedge technique, the PUSHER SLIDE is held securely in the dominant hand at about:
A. 15 to 20 degree angle
B. 30 to 45 degree angle
C. 45 to 50 degree angle
D. 50 to 75 degree angle

  1. When the hematocrit is higher than normal (60%), as is found in patients with polycythemia or in newborns, the angle should be:
    A. 15
    B. 25
    C. 35
    D. 50
A

B. 30 to 45 degree angle
B. 25

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7
Q

Increased risk of thrombosis:
Young-old
Old-old
Very old
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3

A

D. 1, 2 and 3

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8
Q

PEANUT
1. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of anaerobes is done by which of the following methods?
A. Broth disk elution
B. Disk agar diffusion
C. Microtube broth dilution
D. β-Lactamase testing

  1. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of Bacteroides and Clostridium sp. anaerobes are done by which of the following methods?
    A. Broth microdilution
    B. Agar dilution
    C. E-test
    D. All of the above
A

C. Microtube broth dilution

D. All of the above

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9
Q

Which of the following is the preferred specimen for the initial compatibility testing in exchange transfusion therapy?
A. Maternal serum
B. Eluate prepared from infant’s red blood cells
C. Paternal serum
D. Infant’s post-exchange serum

A

A. Maternal serum

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10
Q

The K (KEL1) antigen is:
A. Absent from the red cells of neonates
B. Strongly immunogenic
C. Destroyed by enzymes
D. Has a frequency of 50% in the random population

A

B. Strongly immunogenic

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11
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
A. Often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
B. Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C
C. Reacts best at 37°C
D. Is usually lgG

A

B. Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C

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12
Q

What antigens would be found in the saliva of an individual with the genotype Sese Lele AO HH?
A. A, H
B. Le^b, A, H
C. Le^a, Le^b, A, H
D. Le^a

A

C. Le^a, Le^b, A, H

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13
Q

Why does vaccination against hepatitis B virus (HBV) also prevent hepatitis D virus (HDV) infections?
A. An immunogen from HBV in thevaccine is also associated with HDV.
B. The HBV vaccine induces formationof heterophile antibodies that crossreact with HDV.
C. The HBV vaccine stimulates liver cells to produce antiviral molecules active against all hepatitis viruses.
D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV.

A

D. HDV requires the host to be concurrently infected with HBV

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14
Q

The reason that group O individuals have the most amount of H antigen on their red cells compared to other ABO phenotypes is:
A. Group O individuals produce more precursor type I chain
B. Group A, B and AB individuals are heterozygous for the H gene
C. The O gene produces more transferase enzyme, which produces more H antigen
D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

A

D. H antigen is left unchanged by the absence of A and/or B transferase enzymes

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15
Q

Which of the following red cell typings are most commonly found in the African American donor population?
A. Lu (a-b-)
B. Jk (a-b-)
C. Fy (a-b-)
D. K-k-

A

C. Fy (a-b-)

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16
Q

The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:
A. Le (a-b-)
B. Le (a+b+)
C. Le (a+b-)
D. Le (a-b+)

A

C. Le (a+b-)

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17
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following practices has been useful in reducing the incidence of transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)?
A. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors
B. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from female donors
C. Pathogen reduction treatment of Fresh Frozen Plasma
D. Leukocyte-reduced Fresh Frozen Plasma

A

A. Use of Fresh Frozen Plasma from male donors

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18
Q

A ∆A450 value that falls into zone I indicates:
A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis
B. Moderate hemolysis
C. Severe hemolysis
D. high fetal risk

A

A. A normal finding without significant hemolysis

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19
Q

Which of the following diseases results in the production and excretion of large amounts of homogentisic acid?
A. Melanuria
B. Tyrosyluria
C. Alkaptonuria
D. Maple syrup urine disease

A

C. Alkaptonuria

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20
Q

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

A

B. Ketone and leukocytes

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21
Q

Testing specimens that contain high levels of ascorbate may effect the reading of all of these EXCEPT:
A. Bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Nitrite
D. Urobilinogen

A

D. Urobilinogen

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22
Q

Aldosterone is involved in the reabsorption of:
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Bicarbonate
D. Hydrogen ion

A

B. Sodium

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23
Q

Individuals exposed to EBV maintain an asymptomatic latent infection in:
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. All lymphocytes
D. Monocytes

A

A. B cells

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24
Q

The first retrovirus to be associated with human disease was:
A. HCV
B. HIV
C. HTLV-I
D. WNV

A

C. HTLV-I

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25
Q

Which of the following blood groups reacts best with ananti-H or anti-IH?
A. O
B. B
C. A2
D. A1

A

A. O

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26
Q

The blood group involved in the autoantibody specificityin PCH is:
A. P
B. ABO
C. Rh
D. Lewis

A

A. P

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27
Q

Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with infection by:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Group A Streptococcus

A

B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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28
Q

Of the following diseases, which one has the highest relative risk in association with an HLA antigen?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Juvenile diabetes
C. Narcolepsy
D. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

A. Ankylosing spondylitis

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29
Q

The majority of HLA antibodies belongs to what im- munoglobulin class?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

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30
Q

The HLA genes are located on which chromosome?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

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31
Q

What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated sepsis?
A. Plasma
B. Packed red blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Whole blood

A

C. Platelets

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32
Q

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes?
A. DDAVP
B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
C. Immune globulin
D. G-CSF

A

D. G-CSF

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33
Q

RBCs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than ______ and retain at least ______ of original RBCs.
A. 8 × 10^6 / 85%
B. 8 × 10^6 / 90%
C. 5 × 10^6 / 85%
D. 5 × 10^6 / 80%

A

C. 5 × 10^6 / 85%

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34
Q

Congestive heart failure, severe headache and/or peripheral edema occurring soon after transfusion is indicative of which type of transfusion reaction?
A. Hemolytic
B. Febrile
C. Anaphylactic
D. TACO

A

D. TACO

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35
Q

Symptoms of dyspnea, hypoxemia, and pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion is most likely which type of reaction?
A. Anaphylactic
B. Hemolytic
C. Febrile
D. TRALI

A

D. TRALI

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36
Q

Hives and itching are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
A. Febrile
B. Allergic
C. Circulatory overload
D. Bacterial

A

B. Allergic

37
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following transfusion reactions occurs after infusion of only a few milliliters of blood and gives no history of fever?
A. Febrile
B. Circulatory overload
C. Anaphylactic
D. Hemolytic

A

C. Anaphylactic

38
Q

Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions?
A. Allergic
B. Circulatory overload
C. Hemolytic
D. Anaphylactic

A

C. Hemolytic

39
Q

Which of the following transfusion reactions is characterized by high fever, shock, hemoglobinuria, DIC and renal failure?
A. Bacterial contamination
B. Circulatory overload
C. Febrile
D. Anaphylactic

A

A. Bacterial contamination

40
Q

Transfusion of which of the following is needed to help correct hypofibrinogenemia due to DIC?
A. Whole Blood
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
C. Cryoprecipitated AHF
D. Platelets

A

C. Cryoprecipitated AHF

41
Q

PEANUT
In a quality assurance program, Cryoprecipitated AHF must contain a minimum of how many international units of Factor VIII:
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90

A

C. 80

42
Q

What percentage of red blood cells must be retained when preparing Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced?
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 85%
D. 100%

A

C. 85%

43
Q

An important determinant of platelet viability during storage is:
A. Plasma potassium concentration
B. Plasma pH
C. Prothrombin time
D. Activated partial thromboplastin time

A

B. Plasma pH

44
Q

Quality control of Apheresis Granulocytes must demonstrate which of the following granulocyte counts in 75% of units tested:
A. 1.0 X 10^10
B. 2.0 X 10^ 10
C. 3.0 X 10^10
D. 4.0 x 10^10

A

A. 1.0 X 10^10

45
Q

Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37°C water baths because they prevent:
A. The FFP bag from cracking when it contacts the warm water
B. Water from slowly dialyzing across the bag membrane
C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water
D. The label from peeling off as the water circulates in the bath

A

C. The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water

46
Q

Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced must be prepared by a method known to reduce the leukocyte count to:
A. <8.3 X 10^5
B. <5.0 x 10^6
C. <5.5 X 10^10
D. < 3.0 x 10^11

A

B. <5.0 x 10^6

47
Q

Upon inspection, a unit of Apheresis Platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should:
A. Issue without concern
B. Filter to remove the clots
C. Centrifuge to express off the clots
D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

A

D. Quarantine for Gram stain and culture

48
Q

A unit of Red Blood Cells expiring in 35 days is split into 5 small aliquots using a sterile pediatric quad set and a sterile connecting device. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 5 days
D. 35 days

A

D. 35 days

49
Q

PEANUT
The transport temperature for Red Blood Cells Leukocytes Reduced is:
A. 1-6°C
B. 1-10°C
C. 18-20°C
D. 20-24°C

A

B. 1-10°C

50
Q

PEANUT
A donor who has just donated 2 units of Apheresis Red Blood Cells will be deferred from further blood donation for a minimum of how many weeks?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 16
D. 24

A

C. 16

51
Q

A Kleihauer–Betke acid elution test identifies 40 fetal cells in 2,000 maternal red cells. How many full doses of RhIg are indicated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
—
Another formula to compute for FMH
= (Fetal cells divided by 2,000) x 5,000 mL
5,000 ML OR 5 LITERS MATERNAL BLOOD VOLUME

A

D. 4

52
Q

A patient types as AB positive. Two units of blood have been ordered by the physician. Currently, the inventory shows:
No AB units
10 A-positive units
1 A-negative unit
5 B-positive units
20 O-positive units
Which should be set up for the major crossmatch?
A. A-positive units
B. O-positive units
C. B-positive units
D. Call another blood supplier for type-specific blood

A

A. A-positive units

53
Q

What corrective action should be taken when rouleaux causes positive test results?
A. Perform a saline replacement technique
B. Perform an autoabsorption
C. Run a panel
D. Perform an elution

A

A. Perform a saline replacement technique

54
Q

Which genotype usually shows the strongest reaction with anti-D?
A. DCE/DCE
B. Dce/dCe
C. D–/D–
D. -CE/-ce

A

C. D–/D–

55
Q

Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c?
A. r ́r
B. R0R1
C. R2r ́
D. r ́ry

A

D. r ́ry

56
Q

PEANUT
What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are positive?
A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C
B. Retype the sample using a different lot numberof reagents
C. Use polyclonal typing reagents
D. Report the sample as group AB

A

A. Wash the cells with warm saline, autoadsorb theserum at 4°C

57
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following enhancement mediums decreases the zeta potential, allowing antibody and antigen to come closer together?
A. LISS
B. Polyethylene glycol
C. Polybrene
D. ZZAP

A

A. LISS

58
Q

A cell that is not actively dividing is said to be in:
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

A

A. Interphase

59
Q

Which genotype(s) will give rise to the Bombay phenotype
A. HH only
B. HH and Hh
C. Hh and hh
D. hh only

A

D. hh only

60
Q

Which of the following is a method for determining approximate volume of fetal-maternal bleed?
A. Kleihauer-Betke test
B. Eluate testing
C. Nucleic acid amplification testing
D. Antibody screening

A

A. Kleihauer-Betke test

61
Q

Anti-Sd^a has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize this antibody and allow detection of other alloantibodies?
A. Saliva
B. Hydatid cyst fluid
C. Urine
D. Human breast milk

A

C. Urine

62
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following is the most common antibodyseen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies?
A. Anti-Fy^a
B. Anti-k
C. Anti-Js^a
D. Anti-K

A

D. Anti-K

63
Q

The antibody to this high-prevalence antigen demonstrates mixed-field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope:
A. Vel
B. JMH
C. Jr^a
D. Sd^a

A

D. Sd^a

64
Q

Which of the following most commonly causes an individual to type RhD positive yet possess anti-D?
A. Genetic weak D
B. Partial D
C. C in trans to RHD
D. D epitopes on RhCE protein

A

B. Partial D

65
Q

Anti-LW will not react with which of the following?
A. Rh-positive RBCs
B. Rh-negative RBCs
C. Rh null RBCs
D. Rh:33 RBCs

A

C. Rh null RBCs

66
Q

Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are Rh antigens?
A. Glycophorins
B. Simple sugars
C. Proteins
D. Lipids

A

C. Proteins

67
Q

How are Rh antigens inherited?
A. Autosomal recessive alleles
B. Sex-linked genes
C. Codominant alleles
D. X-linked

A

C. Codominant alleles

68
Q

Which of the following ABO blood groups contains the least amount of H substance?
A. A1B
B. A2
C. B
D. O

A

A. A1B

69
Q

An ABO type on a patient gives the following reactions:
Anti-A 4+
Anti-B 4+
Anti-A1 Neg
A1 cells 2+
B cells Neg
The reactions above may be seen in a patient who is:
A. A1 with acquired B
B. A2B with anti-A1
C. AB with increased concentrations of protein in the serum
D. AB with an autoantibody

A

B. A2B with anti-A1

70
Q
A
71
Q
A
72
Q

ISBT BEGINNING WITH 030:
A. ABO
B. Scianna
C. John Milton Hagen
D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

A

D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)

73
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following blood group systems is most commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
A. LE
B. JK
C. LU
D. I

A

B. JK

74
Q

PEANUT
Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of which blood group system?
A. ABO
B. Rh
C. KEL
D. FY

A

A. ABO

75
Q

A patient admitted to the trauma unit requires emergency release of Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP). Which of the following blood groups of FFP should be issued?
A. A
B. B
C. AB
D. O

A

C. AB

76
Q

In an emergency situation, what type of blood should be given to a female patient of child-bearing age if the ABO group and Rh type are unknown?
A. Group 0, Whole Blood
B. Group 0, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells
C. Group 0, Rh-positive Red Blood Cells
D. Group 0, Washed Red Blood Cells

A

B. Group 0, Rh-negative Red Blood Cells

77
Q

PEANUT
Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO forward typing with no history of transfusion would most likely be due to:
A. Bombay phenotype (Oh)
B. T activation
C. A3 red cells
D. Positive indirect antiglobulin test

A

C. A3 red cells

78
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
A. Le^a
B. P1
C. M
D. K

A

D. K

79
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following is a characteristic of anti-i?
A. Associated with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis
C. Detected at lower temperatures in the serum of normal individuals
D. Found only in the serum of group O individuals

A

B. Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis

80
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin-A?
A. M,N
B. Le^a, Le^b
C. S, s
D. P, P1, Pk

A

A. M,N

81
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following genes is not in the MHC class I region
A. HLA-A
B. HLA-B
C. HLA-C
D. HLA-DR

A

D. HLA-DR

82
Q

PEANUT
Most blood group system genes and their resulting genetic traits display what type of inheritance?
A. Sex-linked dominant
B. Sex-linked recessive
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal codominant

A

D. Autosomal codominant

83
Q

PEANUT
In order to be a plateletpheresis donor, the platelet count must be at least:
A. 150,000/μL
B. 200,000/μL
C. 250,000/μL
D. 300,000/μL

A

A. 150,000/μL

84
Q

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on which cells?

a. T cells
B. Dendritic cells
c. B cells
d. Large granular lymphocytes

A

B. Dendritic cells

85
Q

T-regulator cells, responsible for controlling autoimmune antibody production, express which of the ff phenotypes?

a. CD3, CD4, CD8
b. CD3, CD8, CD25
c. CD3, CD4, CD25
d. CD8,CD25, CD56

A

c. CD3, CD4, CD25

86
Q

Which in vitro test measures IgE levels against a specific allergen?

a. Histamine release assay
b. RIST (radioimmunosorbent test)
c. FAST (Fluorescent allergosorbent test)
d. PRIST (Precipitin radioimmunosorbent test

A

C. FAST

87
Q

Which in vitro test measures the total IgE?

a. Histamine release assay
b. RIST (radioimmunosorbent test)
c. FAST (Fluorescent allergosorbent test)
d. PRIST (Precipitin radioimmunosorbent test
e. both B and D

A

e. both B and D

PRIST and RIST

88
Q
A

BOARD EXAM (9 decks)

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