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please master this hehe

1
Q

The technique that uses fluorescent DNA probes to detect chromosomal abnormalities within cells in cytogenetic studies is referred to as:
A. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)
B. Karyotype in situ hybridization (KISH)
C. Fluorescence in situ PCR
D. Microarray

A

A. Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

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2
Q

PEANUT
Which of the following is a characteristic of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
A. Semiconductor nanocrystals
B. Method of tagging antibodies with super paramagnetic particles
C. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
D. Molecular cytogenetic technique

A

D. Molecular cytogenetic technique

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3
Q

Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ?
A. Peyer patch
B. Thymus
C. Lymph node
D. Spleen
E. Appendix

A

B. Thymus

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4
Q

Which of the following NEMATODE parasites is acquired from eating inadequately cooked, infected pork?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Taenia saginata
C. Taenia solium
D. Trichinella spiralis

A

D. Trichinella spiralis

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5
Q

Which stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective for humans?
A. Proglottid
B. Filariform larva
C. Rhabditiform larva
D. Embryonated ovum

A

D. Embryonated ovum

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6
Q

Oocysts, the infective stage of Toxoplasma gondii, is found in
A. Cat feces
B. Human feces
C. Undercooked pork
D. Undercooked beef

A

A. Cat feces

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7
Q

In an examination of stained blood films, Babesia spp. are likely to resemble:
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Plasmodium falciparum
C. Toxoplasma gondii
D. Trypanosoma cruzi

A

B. Plasmodium falciparum

si Baby nagpa Falsies

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most important feature in differentiating cysts of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar?
A. Number of nuclei
B. Size of the cyst
C. Shape of the karyosome
D. Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays

A

D. Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays

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9
Q

A complete deficiency of hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase results in which disease?
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
B. Modification of diet in renal disease
C. Maple syrup urine disease
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Megaloblastic anemia

A

A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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10
Q

Mucopolysaccharidoses, EXCEPT:
A. Hunter syndrome
B. Hurler syndrome
C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
D. Sanfilippo syndrome

A

C. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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11
Q

Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibody is diagnostic for:
A. IgA nephropathy
B. Wegener granulomatosis
C. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
D. Goodpasture syndrome

A

B. Wegener granulomatosis (ANCA)

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12
Q

Antiglomerular basement membrane antibody is seen with:
A. Wegener granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy

A

C. Goodpasture syndrome

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13
Q

All of the following contribute to urinary crystals formation except:
A. Protein concentration
B. pH
C. Solute concentration
D. Temperature

A

A. Protein concentration - contribute to cast

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14
Q

Differentiation among RBCs, yeast, and oil droplets maybe accomplished by all of the following except:
A. Observation of budding in yeast cells
B. Increased refractility of oil droplets
C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid
D. Lysis of RBCs by acetic acid

A

C. Lysis of yeast cells by acetic acid

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15
Q

Crenated RBCs are seen in urine that is:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Hypersthenuric
C. Highly acidic
D. Highly alkaline

A

B. Hypersthenuric

ER-ER
hypERsthenuric-cREnated

OS-OS
hypOSthenuric-ghOSt

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16
Q

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:
A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood sample

A

B. Improperly timed urine specimens

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17
Q

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
A. Urobilinogen
B. Ketones
C. Protein
D. Nitrite

A

C. Protein

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18
Q

The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium

A

C. Chloride

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19
Q

The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards

A

B. Biohazards

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20
Q

Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant

A

D. Pregnant

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21
Q

An employee who accidentally spills acid on his arm should immediately:
A. Neutralize the acid with a base
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
C. Consult the MSDSs
D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency department

A

B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes

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22
Q

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biologic hazard in the form of:
A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination

A

C. Aerosols

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23
Q

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes

A

A. Urine specimen containers

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24
Q

In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste

A

C. Specimens

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25
Q

Sedimentation technique takes the advantage of the high specific gravity of protozoan cysts and helminth eggs compared to water. Their natural tendency to settle out in aqueous solutions can be accelerated by:
A. Filtration
B. Light centrifugation
C. Refrigeration
D. Freezing

A

B. Light centrifugation

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26
Q

Small protozoa that have been missed on wet mounts or concentration methods are often detected with:
A. India ink
B. Iodine
C. Giemsa stain
D. Trichrome stain

A

D. Trichrome stain

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27
Q

Which of the following exhibits diurnal periodicity?
A. Wuchereria bancrofti
B. Brugia malayi
C. Loa loa
D. Onchocerca volvulus

A

C. Loa loa

c lola sayo kaayo mag mata taga buntag

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28
Q
A
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29
Q

Babesia spp. is transmitted to humans by:
A. The bite of an infected tick
B. The bite of an infected fly (Chrysops spp.)
C. Ingestion of a cyst
D. The bite of an infected mosquito (Anopheles spp.)

A

A. The bite of an infected tick

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30
Q

INDICATE MODE OF TRANSMISSION & INFECTIVE STAGE
All of the following except one infect humans by entrance of the infective stage through the skin. Which one has a different route of entrance?
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Strongyloides stercoralis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Necator americanus
E. Heterophyes heterophyes

A

E. Heterophyes heterophyes
host becomes infected by ingesting undercooked fish containing metacercariae

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31
Q

In the PCR cycle, how is denaturation accomplished?
A. Heat
B. Alkali treatment
C. Addition of sulfonylurea
D. Formamide

A

A. Heat

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32
Q

In clinical cases of Wuchereria bancrofti, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is:
A. Early morning
B. Middle of the night
C. Late afternoon
D. Any time

A

B. Middle of the night

“Wich” in the middle of the night

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33
Q

A small, operculated egg with a light bulb shape was found in the feces of a patient with liver abnormalities.
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Paragonimus westermani
C. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis

A

D. Clonorchis sinensis

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34
Q

Infection with Brugia malayi is best diagnosed by:
A. Zinc-sulfate flotation concentration
B. Cellophane tape test
C. Xenodiagnosis
D. Trichrome staining of a fecal smear
E. Knott concentration test

A

E. Knott concentration test

knott (gapos) - malaya(i) na ako!

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35
Q

Which cestode produces an operculated egg?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Echinococcus granulosus
E. Taenia solium

A

D. Echinococcus granulosus

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36
Q

Yersinia pestis is transmitted by:
A. Dermacentor spp.
B. Pediculus spp.
C. Sarcoptes scabiei
D. Xenopsylla spp.

A

D. Xenopsylla spp.

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37
Q

The two parasitic organisms most commonly associated with waterborne outbreaks of diarrhea include:
A. Blastocystis hominis and Cystoisospora belli
B. Entamoeba coli and Giardia lamblia
C. Entamoeba histolytica and Endolimax nana
D. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.
E. Pentatrichomonas hominis and Toxoplasma gondii

A

D. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.

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38
Q

Which of the Platyhelminthes infects humans by skin penetration and has an association with bladder cancer?
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma haematobium
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Schistosoma japonicum

A

B. Schistosoma haematobium

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39
Q

In the Diphyllobothrium latum life cycle, the infective stage for humans is:
A. Cysticercus
B. Cysticercoid
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Procercoid
E. Plerocercoid

A

E. Plerocercoid

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40
Q

A type of tapeworm larva with a large bladder, producing daughter cysts, brood capsules, and numerous scolices is:
A. Cysticercus
B. Cysticercoid
C. Hydatid cyst
D. Plerocercoid
E. Procercoid

A

C. Hydatid cyst

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41
Q

Visceral larval migrans is caused by:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Dirofilaria spp.
D. Toxocara canis

A

D. Toxocara canis

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42
Q

Each of the following microfilaria has a sheath EXCEPT:
A. Brugia malayi
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella ozzardi
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

A

C. Mansonella ozzardi

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43
Q

Xenodiagnosis is used for which parasite?
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Loa loa
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

A

B. Trypanosoma cruzi

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44
Q

The definitive host for Plasmodium vivax is a:
A. Flea
B. Human
C. Mosquito
D. Fish

A

C. Mosquito

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45
Q

Pinworm disease may be diagnosed by which procedure?
A. Direct fecal smear
B. Cellophane tape test
C. Fecal concentration methods
D. Egg-count technique

A

B. Cellophane tape test

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46
Q

The infective form of Schistosoma mansoni is which of the following?
A. Cercaria swimming in water
B. Metacercaria on or in fish
C. Metacercaria encysted on waterchestnuts or vegetables
D. Cercaria on water chestnuts, bambooshoots, or vegetables

A

A. Cercaria swimming in water

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47
Q

Consumption of the infective larval stage encysted on aquatic plants that have not been cooked results in infection with:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Heterophyes heterophyes
D. Paragonimus westermani

A

B. Fasciola hepatica

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48
Q

Which of the following filarial nematode infections is diagnosed by using skin snips rather than a peripheral blood smear?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Loa loa
C. Mansonella perstans
D. Wuchereria bancrofti

A

A. Onchocerca volvulus

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49
Q

Which of the following filarial nematodes is transmitted by the Chrysops fly?
A. Onchocerca volvulus
B. Mansonella ozzardi
C. Loa loa
D. Brugia malayi

A

C. Loa loa

seen in the middle of the night nag Cry (Chry)

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50
Q

All of the following microfilariae lack a sheath except:
A. Mansonella ozzardi
B. Mansonella perstans
C. Onchocera volvulus
D. Brugia malayi

A

D. Brugia malayi

51
Q

Which of these parasites are contracted via skin penetration?
A. Enterobius, Necator, Dracunculus
B. Ascaris, Trichinella, Ancylostoma
C. Trichuris, Strongyloides, Enterobius
D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator

A

D. Ancylostoma, Strongyloides, Necator

52
Q

These two nematodes are similar in that they are both suspected of being transport hosts of Dientamoeba fragilis.
A. Trichinella and Dracunculus
B. Necator and Trichuris
C. Strongyloides and Ancylostoma
D. Ascaris and Enterobius

A

D. Ascaris and Enterobius

53
Q

Ziemann’s dots, band form trophozoites, and 72-hour periodicity of paroxysms is indicative of infection with which Plasmodium species?
A. Plasmodium vivax
B. Plasmodium ovale
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae

A

D. Plasmodium malariae

54
Q

The infective stage of the Plasmodium parasite and the Babesia parasite for humans is the:
A. Merozoite
B. Trophozoite
C. Gametocyte
D. Sporozoite

A

D. Sporozoite

55
Q

The reduviid bug is the vector for transmitting which of the following parasites?
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Leishmania tropica

A

D. Trypanosoma cruzi

56
Q

When using preservatives, what is the appropriate ratio of fixative to stool?
A. One part fixative to one part stool
B. Two parts fixative to one part stool
C. Three parts fixative to one part stool
D. Four parts fixative to one part stool

A

C. Three parts fixative to one part stool

57
Q

The presence of macrophages in CSF is associated with a:
A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Traumatic lumbar puncture

A

C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

58
Q

The presence of macrophages in CSF is associated with a:
A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial infection
C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
D. Traumatic lumbar puncture

A

C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

59
Q

Which of the following calculations may be useful in determining if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
A. CSF lgG index
B. Total protein ratio
C. CSF/serum albumin index
D. Lactate dehydrogenase ratio

A

C. CSF/serum albumin index

60
Q

What substance gives feces its normal color?
A. Uroerythrin
B. Urochrome
C. Urobilin
D. Urobilinogen

A

C. Urobilin

61
Q

Synovial fluid is typically collected using a sterile needle and syringe and then transferred to collection tubes for testing. Which of the following anticoagulants would be appropriate to use for the aliquot sent for a manual cell count and crystal evaluation?
A. Liquid EDTA
B. Lithium heparin
C. Sodium fluoride
d. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

A

A. Liquid EDTA

62
Q

The dimensions of a standard Neubauer hemacytometer chamber are:
A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm
B. 2.0 mmx 2.0 mm x 0.1 mm
C. 1.0 mm x 1.0 mm x 0.1 mm
D. 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm x 0.1 mm

A

A. 3.0 mm x 3.0 mm x 0.1 mm

63
Q

PLS INDICATE CSF TUBE #
If glucose testing cannot be performed immediately, CSF should be stored:
A. At room temperature
B. In a refrigerator
C. In a freezer
D. In an incubator

A

C. In a freezer Tube 1

64
Q

Increased presence of fetal fibronection (fFN) in cervicovaginal secretions from a 24-year-old female at 35 weeks’ gestation indicates an increased risk for:
A. Preterm delivery
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Gestational diabetes
D. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

A. Preterm delivery

65
Q

Normal CSF contains all of the following proteins except:
A. Transferrin
B. Transthyretin
C. Albumin
D. Fibrinogen

A

D. Fibrinogen

66
Q

Which of the following normally accounts for the largest fraction of CSF total proteins?
A. Albumin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Haptoglobin
D. Transthyretin

A

A. Albumin

67
Q

A 21-year-old patient had glucose in their urine and a low fasting blood glucose. These findings are most consistent with:
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Renal glycosuria
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Nephrotic syndrome

A

B. Renal glycosuria

68
Q

PEANUT, BE CAREFUL IN ANSWERING
Which of the following must exhibit rapid motility in order to be identified in a urine sediment?
A. Yeast
B. Bacteria
C. Spermatozoa
D. Trichomonas

A

D. Trichomonas

69
Q

Which of the following contaminants has a dimpled center and can appear as a Maltese cross under polarized light?
A.Oil droplets
B. Air bubbles
C. Glass shards
D. Starch crystals

A

D. Starch crystals

70
Q

Following ingestion of ethylene glycol (antifreeze), which of the following crystals may be found in the urine?
A. Yellow-brown spherules
B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings
C. Colorless, rosettes/rhomboids
D. Flat plates with notched corners

A

B. Colorless, dumbbells/rings

71
Q

Examination for casts should be performed:
A. After adding glacial acetic acid to the sediment
B. Under high dry power (40x obj.) with bright light
C. After adding Sternheimer-Malbin stain to the supernatant
D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification

A

D. Using subdued lighting and low power (10x obj.) magnification

72
Q

Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast

A

A. Hyaline cast

73
Q

Routine paraffin sections are cut at what micrometer (micron) setting?
A. 1 to 3 um
B. 4 to 6 um
C. 7 to 9 um
D. 10 to 15 um

A

B. 4 to 6 um

74
Q

PEANUT
For good fixation it is recommended that the tissue be no larger than:
A. 2 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick
C. 3 cm square and 1-2 mm thick
D. 3 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

A

B. 2 cm square and 3-4 mm thick

75
Q

PEANUT
Centrifugation for urine microscopic examination:
A. RCF of 100 for 2 minutes
B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes
C. RCF of 500 for 5 minutes
D. RCF of 500 for 10 minutes

A

B. RCF of 400 for 5 minutes

76
Q

Urine reagent test strips should be stored in a tightly-sealed container in/on the:
A. Freezer (-20°C)
B. Refrigerator (5°C)
C. Benchtop (20°C)
D. Incubator (37°C)

A

C. Benchtop (20°C)

77
Q

PEANUT
After receiving a timed urine for quantitative analysis, the laboratorian must first:
A. Subculture the urine for bacteria
B. Add the appropriate preservative
C. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
D. Measure and record the total volume

A

D. Measure and record the total volume

78
Q

Refractive index is a comparison of light:
A. Velocity in solutions to light velocity in solids
B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions
C. Scattering by air to light scattering by solutions
D. Scattering by particles in solution

A

B. Velocity in air to light velocity in solutions

79
Q

If an ambulatory, adult patient is suspected of having a urinary tract infection, which of the following collection methods would be most appropriate to obtain a urine sample?
A. Random
B. Catheterization
C. Suprapubic aspiration
D. Clean-catch midstream

A

D. Clean-catch midstream

80
Q

PEANUT
The clarity of a urine sample should be determined after:
A. The sample has been centrifuged
B. Thorough mixing of the specimen
C. The addition of 3% sulfosalicylic acid
D. The specimen is heated to body temperature

A

B. Thorough mixing of the specimen

81
Q

Purple colors are observed in the positive reactions for:
A. Blood and glucose
B. Ketone and leukocytes
C. Bilirubin and urobilinogen
D. Protein and nitrite

A

B. Ketone and leukocytes

82
Q

The following are all bacterial phenotypic characteristics except:
A. Microscopic morphology and staining characteristics
B. Environmental requirements for growth
C. Nutritional requirements and metabolic capabilities
D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence

A

D. The presence of a particular nucleic acid sequence

83
Q

Blood vessel that supply blood to the kidney:
A. Renal artery
B. Renal vein
C. Peritubular capillaries
D. None of these

A

A. Renal artery

84
Q

The only tissue in the body that is hypertonic with respect to normal plasma (i.e., its osmolality is greater than 290 mOsm/kg):
A. Glomerulus
B. Convoluted tubules
C. Renal cortex
D. Renal medulla

A

D. Renal medulla

85
Q

PEANUT
1. Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background

A

A. Unstained, bluish-white

86
Q
  1. Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
    A. Unstained, bluish-white
    B. Purple on a red background
    C. Purple on a black background
    D. Red on a purple background
A

D. Red on a purple background

87
Q

Physical hazards except:
A. Ergonomic issues
B. Noise levels
C. UV light exposure
D. Infections agents/aerosols

A

D. Infections agents/aerosols

88
Q

All of the following are naturally occurring opiates except:
A. Morphine
B. Codeine
C. Heroin
D. Opium

A

C. Heroin

89
Q

PEANUT
1. All are components of CLINITEST, except:
A. Copper sulfate
B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
C. Sodium hydroxide
D. Lactose

A

D. Lactose

90
Q
  1. Which of the following is a component of ACETEST?
    A. Copper sulfate
    B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
    C. Sodium hydroxide
    D. Lactose
A

D. Lactose

91
Q

PEANUT
Amniotic fluid bilirubin is measured by:
A. Turbidimetric method
B. Dye-binding method
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
D. Fluorometric analysis

A

C. Spectrophotometric analysis

92
Q

Moderate hemolysis and require careful monitoring anticipating an early delivery or exchange transfusion upon delivery:
A. Zone 1 of Liley graph
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
C. Zone 3 of Liley graph
D. None of these

A

B. Zone 2 of Liley graph

93
Q

Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as TRISOMY 21 (DOWN SYNDROME), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 7 weeks gestation
B. 7 to 14 weeks gestation
C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation
D. 20 to 42 weeks gestation

A

C. 15 to 18 weeks gestation

94
Q

CHECK YOUR STRASINGER
Albumin reagent strips utilizing the dye ________ has a higher sensitivity and specificity for albumin:
A. DIDNTB
B. TMB
C. DBDH
D. Tetrabromphenol blue

A

A. DIDNTB

95
Q

PEANUT
Sensitivity of the Multistix bilirubin reagent pad:
A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
C. 4 to 8 mg/dL
D. 8 to 16 mg/dL

A

B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL

96
Q

PEANUT
Sensitivity of the Multistix protein reagent pad:
A. 1 to 5 mg/dL albumin
B. 10 to 15 mg/dL albumin
C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
D. 30 to 45 mg/dL albumin

A

C. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin

97
Q

PEANUT
Enumeration of bacteria in automated slideless microscopy:
A. Spectrophotometric method
B. Small particle histogram
C. Nitrite determination
D. Reflectance photometry

A

B. Small particle histogram

98
Q

PEANUT
Normal neutral fats with increased amount of fatty acids:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Both of these
D. None of these
—–
QUALITATIVE FECAL FATS
⬆ 1st slide (neutral fats) Maldigestion
⬆ 2nd slide (fatty acids) Malabsorption
—–
An increased amount of total fat on the second slide with normal fat content on the first slide is an indication of malabsorption, whereas maldigestion is indicated by increased neutral fat on the first slide.

A

A. Malabsorption

99
Q

PEANUT
1. Bacterial, viral, and protozoan infections produce increased secretion of water and electrolytes, which override the reabsorptive ability of the large intestine, leading to:
A. Osmotic diarrhea
B. Secretory diarrhea
C. Either of these
D. None of these

  1. Secretory diarrhea is caused by:
    A. Antibiotic administration
    B. Lactose intolerance
    C. Celiac sprue
    D. Vibrio cholerae
  2. Maldigestion (impaired food digestion) and malabsorption (impaired nutrient absorption by the intestine) contribute to:
    A. Osmotic diarrhea
    B. Secretory diarrhea
    C. Either of these
    D. None of these
A

B. Secretory diarrhea
D. Vibrio cholerae
A. Osmotic diarrhea

100
Q

PEANUT
1. Green with carbocyanine:
A. DNA
B. DNA and nuclear membrane
C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane

  1. Orange with phenathridine:
    A. DNA
    B. DNA and nuclear membrane
    C. Nuclear membrane and mitochondria
    D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
A

D. Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and cell membrane
A. DNA

101
Q

IQ 200 system uses Auto Particle Recognition (APR) software that preclassifies urine particles in the photographs based on size, shape, texture and contrast into ____ categories.
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

A

C. 12

102
Q

These red cell granules are composed of PRECIPITATED RIBOSOMAL PROTEIN and RNA:
A. Basophilic stipplings
B. Cabot rings
C. Heinz bodies
D. Howell-Jolly bodies

A

A. Basophilic stipplings

103
Q

Overall effect of parathyroid hormone is to:
A. Raise serum ionized calcium and phosphorus
B. Lower serum ionized calcium and phosphorus
C. Raise serum ionized calcium level and lower serum phosphorus level
D. Lower serum ionized calcium levels and lower phosphorus level

A

C. Raise serum ionized calcium level and lower serum phosphorus level

104
Q

If serum is allowed to remain on the clot for a prolonged period, which of the following effects will be noted?
A. Elevated level of serum potassium
B. Decreased level of serum potassium
C. Elevated level of glucose
D. None of these

A

A. Elevated level of serum potassium

105
Q

Prolactin is produced by the:
A. Anterior pituitary gland
B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroid
D. Ovary

A

A. Anterior pituitary gland

106
Q

Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Tissue-specific enzymes, data can be interpreted by itself
B. Tissue-specific enzymes, data cannot be interpreted by itself
C. No truly tissue-specific enzymes, data can be interpreted by itself
D. No truly tissue-specific enzymes, data cannot be interpreted by itself, correlate with other laboratory results

A

D. No truly tissue-specific enzymes, data cannot be interpreted by itself, correlate with other laboratory results

107
Q

Which of the following laboratory values is considered a POSITIVE RISK FACTOR for the occurrence of coronary heart disease?
A. HDL cholesterol > 60 mg/dL
B. HDL cholesterol < 35 mg/dL
C. LDL cholesterol < 130 mg/dL
D. Total cholesterol < 200 mg/dL

A

B. HDL cholesterol < 35 mg/dL

108
Q

Select the order of mobility of lipoproteins electrophoresed on cellulose acetate or agarose at pH 8.6.
A. – Chylomicrons, prebeta, beta, alpha +
B. – Chylomicrons, beta, prebeta, alpha +
C. – Beta, prebeta, alpha, chylomicrons +
D. – Alpha, beta, prebeta, chylomicrons +

A

B. – Chylomicrons, beta, prebeta, alpha +

109
Q

Transferrin (siderophilin) is the major component of the ___ fraction.
A. Alpha1 globulin
B. Alpha2 globulin
C. Beta globulin
D. Gamma globulin

A

C. Beta globulin

110
Q

In a person with normal glucose metabolism, the blood glucose level usually increases rapidly after carbohydrates are ingested but returns to a normal level after:
A. 30 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 120 minutes

A

D. 120 minutes

111
Q

Best indication of OVERALL GLUCOSE HOMEOSTASIS:
A. Fasting blood glucose
B. Oral glucose tolerance test
C. Glycosylated hemoglobin
D. Fructosamine

A

A. Fasting blood glucose

112
Q

Which of the following types of analyzers offers RANDOM-ACCESS CAPABILITIES?
A. Discrete analyzers
B. Continuous-flow analyzers
C. Centrifugal analyzers
D. None of these

A

A. Discrete analyzers

113
Q

PEANUT
1. In patients with developing subclinical hyperthyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

  1. In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
    A. Decreased, increased
    B. Increased, decreased
    C. Decreased, normal
    D. Increased, normal
A

C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

114
Q

Acute-phase reactants:
A. CRP
B. CRP, haptoglobin
C. CRP, haptoglobin and α1-antitrypsin
D. CRP, haptoglobin, α1-antitrypsin and orosomucoid

A

D. CRP, haptoglobin, α1-antitrypsin and orosomucoid

115
Q

Determines whether there is a significant difference between the standard deviations of two groups of data.
A. Mean
B. Median
C. f-test
D. t-test

A

C. f-test

116
Q

Hazards associated with LIQUID NITROGEN (CRYOGENIC MATERIAL) EXCEPT:
A. Fire or explosion
B. Asphyxiation
C. Pressure build-up and embrittlement of materials
D. Tissue damage similar to thermal burns
E. Shock

A

E. Shock

117
Q

In patients with developing subclinical hypothyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
A. Decreased, increased
B. Increased, decreased
C. Decreased, normal
D. Increased, normal

A

D. Increased, norma

118
Q

Which of the following fluids is not an ultrafiltrate of plasma?
A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
B. Peritoneal fluid
C. Pleural fluid
D. Synovial fluid

A

A. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

119
Q

It is defined as parts per hundred parts:
A. Percent
B. Ratio
C. Molarity
D. Normality

A

A. Percent

120
Q

Thyroid status is best assessed by measurement of:
A. TRH and TSH
B. Plasma TSH and T3
C. Plasma TSH and free T4
D. T3 and T4

A

C. Plasma TSH and free T4

121
Q

The variants demonstrate a wide variety of cellular interactions including roles in cell adhesion, tissue differentiation, growth, and wound healing:
A. Adiponectin
B. Cystatin
C. Fibronectin
D. Troponin

A

C. Fibronectin

122
Q

Creatinine concentration in the blood is affected by:
A. Muscle mass
B. Age and gender
C. Dietary protein intake
D. A and B

A

D. A and B

123
Q

The OSHA hazard communication standard, the “RIGHT-TO-KNOW” rule, is designed:
A. To avoid lawsuits
B. To protect laboratory staff
C. To protect patients
D. To establish safety standards

A

B. To protect laboratory staff

124
Q
A

BOARD EXAM (9 decks)

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