Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

primary cell source of EPO

A

kidney (peritubular interstitial cell)

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2
Q

primary target cell of EPO

A

bone marrow erythroid progenitors

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3
Q

what are stemm cell mobilization?

A

g-csf
gm-csf
il-3

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4
Q

primary target cell of g-csf

A

neutrophil precursors
fibroblast
leukemic myeloblasts

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5
Q

primary target cell of il-2

A

b cell
t cell
nk cells
monocytes

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6
Q

cytokines responsible for cell growth/activation of T cells and B cells

A

Il-6

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7
Q

Cytokines thst has a therapeutic application including adjuvants for infectious disease therapy

A

IL-12

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8
Q

Cytokines that is used for allergy, asthma and a part of vaccines

A

IL-12

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9
Q

cytokines used for tx of multilple sclerosis

A

IFN-Beta

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10
Q

Adjuvant tx for stage II/III melanoma

A

IFN-Alpha

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11
Q

Tx of hematologic malignancies such as: Kaposi sarcoma, hairy cell leukemia, chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

IFN-Alpha

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12
Q

Each new assay or assay modification must be validated for:

A

accuracy
precision
linearity
specificity
lower limit of detection ability

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13
Q

the main standard used by testing and calibration laboratories

A

ISO 15189

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14
Q

Identify pre ana, ana, post ana

Instrument: Lab Information System incompatibility error

A

POst ana

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15
Q

wbc that has a diurnal variation

what time does in increase and decrease

A

eosinophil

lower in the morning
increase in the afternoon

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16
Q

anticoag that form insoluble calcium salts

A

edta
citrate
oxalate

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17
Q

what is the concentration of edta

A

1.5 mg/1 mL of whole blood

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18
Q

concentration of sodium citrate aside from 3.2% ( in M)

A

0.109 M

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19
Q

what is the preferred antiseptic

A

isopropyl

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20
Q

shelf life of vacutainer

A

12 months

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21
Q

used to stelized evacuated tube

A

gamma radiation

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22
Q

Shelf life of an evac tube is defined or accdg to

A

STABILITY OF THE ADDITIVE and
VACUUM RETENTION

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23
Q

What color of thje evac tube that should never be the first tube in collecting multiple blood

A

light blue

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24
Q

most common complication in venipuncture

A

echymosis or bruising

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25
Q

A disorder that is first detected using molecular technique/ PCR

A

SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

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26
Q

T(8;21)

A

AML M2

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27
Q

t(15;17)

A

AML M3

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28
Q

t(1;14)

A

T cell ALL

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29
Q

t(9;22)

A

B cell ALL

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30
Q

type of human stem cells that are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized

A

totipotential stem cells

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31
Q

non dividing cells

A

G0

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31
Q

how many hours does G1 occurs in cell cycle

A

10 hours

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31
Q

cell cycel responsible for protein synthesis

A

G2

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32
Q

Chromatin that is Active, Pale

A

Euchromatin

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32
Q

cell cycle responsible for DNA synthesis

how many hours does this will occur

A

S phase

8 hourd

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33
Q

most versatile type of stem cells

A

Totipotential Stem Cells

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33
Q

major producer of cytokines

A

Lymphokines and Monokines

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34
Q

Stem cells that are present several days after fertilization

A

Pluripotential Stem Cells

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35
Q

Stem cells that can be found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues

A

Multipotential stem cells

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35
Q

A stem cells that can develop into any cell type, except they cannot develop into a fetus

A

Pluripotential Stem Cells

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36
Q

the progenitor of all blood cells is called

A

multipotential hematopoietic stem cell

37
Q

What enzyme seen in MAPCS that keeps the cells from aging

A

Telomerase

38
Q

Cytoplasm color in younger cells

A

Dark blue

39
Q

In the blast stage of development of leukocytes, the cytoplasm of the cell is

A

light blue and lack granules

40
Q

What test included for the initial dx of anemia

A

CBC with RBC indices, RDW
Retic Ct
PBS

41
Q

What test included for investigation of anemia

A

Retic Count and MCV

42
Q

What test included for classificatioh of anemia

A

MCV, RDW, and Retic Count

43
Q

What parasitic infection that cause VIt. B12 Deficiency

A

D. latum and Fasciolopsis buski

44
Q

What antibiotic that act as folic acid antagonists

A

sulfonamides

45
Q

painful crises in px with scd

A

vasooclusion

46
Q

No. 1 cause of death among children with SCD

A

infection

47
Q

Proliferative Compartment

A

Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte
Metamyelocyte

48
Q

The stage from myelocyte to metamyelocye lasts an average of

A

4.3 days

49
Q

How many days does the neutrophil remain in the maturation-storage phase

A

7 to 10 days

50
Q

How many days does the eosinophil remain in the maturation-storage phase

A

2.5 days

51
Q

How many days does the basophil remain in the maturation-storage phase

A

12 hours

52
Q

Lifespan in circulation of neutrophils

A

7 to 10 hours

53
Q

Lifespan in circulation of eosinophils

A

few hours

54
Q

lifespan in circulation of basophils

A

8.5 hours

55
Q

Identify leukemia type based on its solid tumor counterpart:

Reticulum cell sarcoma

A

Monocytuc leukemia

56
Q

Identify leukemia type based on its solid tumor counterpart:

Chloroma granulocytic leukemia

A

Acute myelogenous

57
Q

Identify leukemia type based on its solid tumor counterpart:

myeloma

A

plasma cell leukemia

58
Q

Identify leukemia type based on its solid tumor counterpart:

lymphoma, well leukemia differentiated; lymphocytic

A

Chronic lymphocytic

59
Q

What poikilocyte associated with Primary myelofibrosis

A

Dacryocyte and Teardrop cell

60
Q

Leukemia associated with the absence of Philadelphia Chromosome

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

61
Q

Process in which chomosomal material (DNA) and the other events of mitosis occur without subsequent division of the cytoplasmic membrane into identicsl daugther cells

A

Endoreduplication

also known as Endomitosis

62
Q

Cytoskeleton to maintian plt shape, and a contractile system

A

Sol-Gel ZOne

63
Q

Platelet structure where in energy production occurs

A

Organelle zone

64
Q

Third type of granule in the platelet that store hydrolase enzyme

A

Lysosomes

65
Q

Standard test to measure fetal-maternal hemorrhage quickly and accurately

A

Flow Cytometry

66
Q

Microhct
what is its rpm and minutes basts kato

A

10k to 15k g
5 minutes

67
Q

Macroscopic examination of Blood Film:

BLuer

A

Rouleaux may be seen on film

68
Q

Macroscopic Examination of BLood film

Grainy

A

RBC agglutination, as in cold hemagglutinin diseases

69
Q

Macroscopic Examination of BLood film:

holes

A

Increased lipid levels

70
Q

Macroscopic Examination of BLood film

Blue specks out of the feathered edge

A

Markedly increased WBC counts and platelet counts

71
Q

unfixed smear stable in the dark

A

estrase

72
Q

LAP result of Polycythemia vera

increased or decreased

A

Increased

73
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemoa and PNH Lap score

A

Decreased

74
Q

LAP result of pregnancy

increased or decreased

A

Incrased

75
Q

Early indication of engraftment success after hematopoietic stem cell transplant

A

immature retics fraction and
immature platelet fraction

76
Q

provides an assessment of the iron available for hgb synthesis

A

Reticulocyte hgb content

77
Q

early indicator of recovery after iron therapy

A

reticulocyte hgb content

78
Q

Platelet secretes procoagulant such as

A

V, VIII, VWF and Fibrinogen

79
Q

small bore needle can cause
a. hemolysis
b. hematoma

A

a. hemolysis

80
Q

large bore needle can cause

a. hemolysis
b. hematoma

A

hematoma

81
Q

What body fluid should be avoided when using lithium heparin

A

Synovial Fluid

82
Q

Which of the ff are not included in the CBC?

RBC count
WBC count
Reticulocyte count
Diff Count
Stained RC examination

A

Reticulocyte count

83
Q

The best RBC diluting fluid with preservative action, no mold formation, and cell morphology not altered

A

Dacie’s

84
Q

Recall: Compositive of Gower I (RBC diluting Fluid)

A

sodium sulfate
Glacial acetic acid
Distilled water

85
Q

What cells does Brecker-chronkite used for?

A

platelet

86
Q

latest method for performing a leukocyte diff count

A

Digital microscopy

87
Q

Reticulocyte can be counted by using a stain for residual RNA in erythropoiesis

A

new methylene blue
thiazole orange
oxazine

88
Q

Test that uses Defibrinated blood

A

OFT
HAMS
Autohemolysis

89
Q

In the Mesoblastic stage, hematopoiesis is considered to begin around ______ of embryonic dev’t after fertilization

A

19th day

90
Q

In the hepatic stage, hematopoiesis is considred to begin around

A

5 to 7 gestational weeks

91
Q

Stromal cells except:
adipocytes
macrophages
lymphocytes
osteoblasts
osteoclasts
and reticular adventitial cells (fibroblast)(

A

none

91
Q

When does the hematopoiesis in the bone marrow cavity occurs

A

prior to the fifth month of fetal dev’t

92
Q

An immune mediated complication associated with heparin therapy

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

93
Q

results from antibodies to heparin-pf4 complex

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

94
Q

What method is used for measuring hemoglobin in automated

A

sodium lauryl sulfate

95
Q

What method is used for measuring hgb in manual

A

Cyanmethgb

96
Q
A