Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOARD EXAM > BB > Flashcards

BB Flashcards

1
Q

A drug-induced hemolytic anemia that can cause immune complex

A

quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A drug-induced hemolytic anemia that results from drug absorption

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A dug-induced hemolytic anemia that can cause membrane modification

A

Cephalosporin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Specimen used in Indirect Antiglobulin Test

A

RBC and seum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Also referred as Abbreviated Crossmatch

A

Immediate-spin Crossmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Specimen used in DIrect Antiglobulin Test

A

RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Type of Crossmatch thst eliminated the need for a serologic crossmatch, which reduces sample volume requirements and testing time

A

Electronic crossmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Simplest and most frequent used method to demonstrate ABO compatibility

A

Immediate-Spin Xmtch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Type of Xmatch wherein there is antibody detected

A

Antiglobulin Xmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the preferred anticoag for neonatal tranfusion

A

CPD A1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A state in which an individual’s RBCs are agglutinated by all sera regardless of blood type

A

Polyagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Type of Polyagglutination resulting from neuramidase by some bacteria

A

T polyagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Type of polyagglutiation resulting from endo and exo beta-galactosidase

A

Tk polyagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of polyagglutination that results ffrom unidentified bacteria

A

Tx polyagglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What bacteria that casuses Acquired B polyagglutination

A

E.coli and P. vulgaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Type of polyagglutinaiton that results from microbial fucosidase enzyme, depressed H antigens

A

VA polyagglu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HEMPAS

A

Hereditary Erythroblactic Multinuclearity with a positive acidified serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CDA II

A

Congenital Dyserythropoietic anemita type II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

results from increased i antigen and decreased H antigen with sialic acid

A

HEMPAS/ CDA II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Px with in vivo pollyagglutination should be given transfusion of:
a. WB
b. washed RBC
c. Packed cells
d. FFp

A

b. washed RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HEMPAS red blood cells are characterized vy:

A

Increased i angiten
Decreased H antigen
decreased sialic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can crossmatch be performed on October 14th using a patient sample drawn on October 12th?

a. Yes, a new sample would not be needed
b. Yes, but only if the previous sample has no alloantibodies
c. No, a new sample is needed because the 2-day limit has expired
d. No, a new sample is needed for each testing

A

A. Yes, a new sample would not be needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long a recipient sample must be kept in the blood bank ff transfusion?

a. 3 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 10 days

A

c. 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The poorest ABO choice for an AB recipient is:

a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group AB
d. Group O`

A

d. Group O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

antibody that is enhanced by acidification

A

Anti-M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

antibody found in renal px dialyzed with formaldehyde-sterilized equipment

A

Anti-N

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Associated with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria

A

Anti-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Associated with Hydatid Disease

A

Anti-P1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Associated with M.pneumoniae infection

A

Anti-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Associated with Alcoholic Cirrhosis

A

Anti-i

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

common cause of delayed trans reaction

A

kidd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

most common cause of severe and fatal HTR

A

Clerical Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the ff is the most commomn antibody seen in the blood bank after ABO and Rh antibodies

A

Anti-K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

An antibody shows strong reactions in all test phases. All screen and panel cells are positive. The serum is then tested with a cord cell and the reaction is negative. What antibody is suspected?

a. Anti-I
b. Anti-i
c. Anti-H
d. Anti-P

A

Anti-I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

All of the ff shows HTLA antibodies except:

a. Anti-Chido
b. Anti- McCoy
c. Anti-M
d. Anti-Knopps

A

c. ANti-M

ratio:
High Titer; Low Avidity

Anti-JMH( John Milton Hagen)
Anti-Chido
ANti-Rogers
Anti-York
Anti-McCoy
Anti-Knopps
Anti-Cost

33
Q

mongolian ancestry, what blood group system?

A

diego

34
Q

blood group system:
Sex-linked, frequent in females

A

XG

35
Q

blood group system:
Mennonite population

A

Scianna (SC2)

36
Q

blood group system

C4 complement component

A

Chido/Rogers

37
Q

blood group system:

Glycophorin C and/or D

A

Gerbich

38
Q

Blood group system:

Decay-accelerating factor

A

Cromer

39
Q

Blood group system:

CR1

A

Knopps

40
Q

Blood group system:

CD44, Immune adhesaion

A

Indian

41
Q

blood group system:

HLA on RBCs

A

BG

42
Q

What is the name of the Knops system serologic null phenotype

a. Gregory
b. Leach
c. Helgeson
d. Mcleod

A

C. Hegelson

43
Q

Which antigen is the receptor for Haemophilus infleunzae

a. AnWj
b. PEL
c. FORS
d. Kna

A

a. AnWj

44
Q

What antibody to thid high prevalnce antigen demonstrate mixed field agglutination that appears shiny and refractile under the microscope?

a. Dia
b. JMH
c. Sc2
d.. Sda

A

d. Sda

45
Q

What technique can be used to removed that reactivity of Bg antigens?

a. EDTA/glycine-HCL
b. platelet adsorption
c. Chloroquine tx

A

ALL of the ABOVe

46
Q

What republic act that mandates All BCU shall achieve and maintain 100% voluntary blood donation

A

RA 7719: National Blood Services Act of !994

47
Q

volumes of anticoag in 500 mL collection

A

70 mL

48
Q

Weight in gram of blood bag containing 450 mL of blood

A

450 mL x 1.06 g/mL = 477 grams

49
Q

Which of the ff is an acceptable time in which a unit of whole blood is collected

a.33 mins
b. 25 mins
c. 20 mins
d. 13 mins

A

D. 13 mins

50
Q

Determine the type of deferral:

  1. Human-derived growth hormone
  2. recombinant growth hormone
A
  1. permanent
  2. no deferral
51
Q

GOLD STANDARD FOR MALARIA

A

thick and thin blood film

52
Q

Type of deferral

first-trimester or secodn trimester or miscarriage

A

no deferral

53
Q

Type fo deferral in Attenuated live viral vaccine

A

4 weeks

54
Q

type of deferral in live attenuated bacterial vaccine

A

2 weeks

55
Q

type of deferral in german measle and chickenpox

A

german measles = rubella

4 weeks

56
Q

type of deferral in measles, mumps and oral polio (sabin)

A

measles ( rubeola)

2 weeks

57
Q

type of deferral in mmr

A

8 weeks

58
Q

type of deferral in rabies vaccination, polio injection (salk)

A

no deferral

59
Q

type of deferral Tegison (etretinate)

A

permanent

60
Q

type of defferal

proscar(finasteride)
Accutane(isotretinoin)

A

1 month

61
Q

type of deferral

Plateletpheresis donor who received aspirin

A

3 days

62
Q

type of deferral

Plavix (clopidogrel) and Ticlid (ticlopidine)

A

14 days

63
Q

chemicals for blood preservation that chelkates calcium and prevents cotting

A

citrate

64
Q

chemicals for blood preservation that maintains pH and necessary for maintenance of 2,3 BPG

A

monobasic sodium phosphate

65
Q

chemicals for blood preservarion thst decrease pH and prevents caramelization

A

CItric acid

66
Q

chemicals or anticoag for blood preservation that acts as a substrate for ATP

A

dextrose

67
Q

chemicals or anticoag for blood preservation that responsible for the production of ATP

A

Adenine

68
Q

With adenine, it extends shelf life from 21 days to __

A

35 days

69
Q

shelf life for ACD ( acid-citrate-dextrose)
and CPD

A

21 days

70
Q

shelf life for CPD-A1

A

35 days

71
Q

shelf life for CP2D

A

dili maka affect ang 2 destroxe sa shelf lfie gawas if adenine na sha so remain

21 days

72
Q

shelf life for CPDA-2

A

bali ang kani kay duha nani sha ka adenine

42 daYS

73
Q

used in some blood centers to regenerate ATP and 2,3 DPG

A

RBC Rejuvenation

74
Q

A common sedimenting agent used in leukapheresis that enhances the separation of the wbc from rbc during centrifugation

A

HES: Hydroxyethyl Starch

75
Q

interval for double rbc pheresis for the neext DRBC pheresis

A

16 WEEKS

76
Q

the most common anticoag used for apheresis procedure is:

a. heparin
b. sodium fluoride
c. warfarin
d. citrate

A

d. citrate

77
Q

Donor criteria for DOUBLE RED CELL APHERESIS:

a. hct, hgb
b. hct and weight
c. weight and height
d. hct, weight, height

A

d. hct, weight, height

female:
weight: 150 lbs
height 5’5”
hct: 40&

male:
weight 130 lbs
height: 5’1”
hct: 40%

78
Q

Which of the ff. can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes?

a. DDAVP
b. Hydroxyethyl Starch (HDES)
c. Immune globulin
d. G-CSF

A

d. G-CSF

Ratio ani kayyy::
HES - enhances the separation ra between WBC and RBC

corticosteroids or CSF - stimulated to the donor prior to collection idk why naaa ra sa notes haha

79
Q

The minimum interval allowed between Double RBC collection procedures

A

16 weeks

80
Q

T/F. Blood and Blood products are considered drugs

A

trueeeee

81
Q

A 54 yr old female previous smoker presents with a recent history of fever, swollen joints, and morning stiffness.
Lab results indicate elevated C-reactive protein, positive cyclic citrullinated peptide of 205 units (cutoff:20 units), speckeld ANA pattern (titer:1:320) and neg rheumatoid factor

a. reactive arthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. systemic sclerosis
d. Sjogren syndrom

A

B. Rheumatoid arthritis

mas specific ang CCP

82
Q
A

BOARD EXAM (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions