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1
Q

hormone of fasting

A

glucagon

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2
Q

primary glucoregulatory hormone

A

insulin** and glucagon

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3
Q

primary glucoregulatory hormone during fasting

A

glucagon - raise during fasting!

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4
Q

skin pH that keeps most microorg from growing

A

pH 5.6

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5
Q

Primary function of eosinophil

A

Supression of the inflammatory response

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6
Q

First wbc to migrate at the site of injury

A

neutrophil

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7
Q

THe acute phase reactant that has the fastest response time and can rise 100x is:

A

CRP and Serum Amyloid A

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8
Q

Serum Amyloid is elevated in what type of infection:

bacterial, viral, parasitic

A

bacterial

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9
Q

A DPT vaccination is an example of:
a. Active humoral-mediated immunity
b. passive humoral-mediated immunity
c. cell-mediated immunity
d. Immediate hypersensi

A

A. active humoral-mediated immunity

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10
Q

Colostrum/mother’s milk is rich in Ig A. what type of immunity?

active
passive
cell mediated

A

Passive immunity-acquired antibody (natural)

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11
Q

Monoclonal antibodies is what type of immunity

A

passive pa ren

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12
Q

What molecules on the sirface of most T cells recognized antigen?

a. IgT
b. MHC protein
c. CD3
d. TcR

A

D. TcR

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13
Q

Marginal B cells remain in the:

A

spleen

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14
Q

Antigenic only when coupled to a carrier

A

hapten

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15
Q

Which of the ff is most likely to activate the alternative pathway of complementr activation?

a. Lipopolysaccharides - 7th edition BOC
b. glycoproteins
c. haptens - Old edition BOC (5th/6th)
d. IgG complexed with antigen

A

A kay new ed man huhu

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16
Q

unique amino acid sequence that is common to all immunoglobulin molecules of a given class in a given spp.

a.isotype
b. allotype
c. idiotype
d. any of these

A

isotype

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17
Q

MOlecular weight of IgM
Sedimentation weight of IgM

A

900,000
19s

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18
Q

convergence of the three complement pathway

A

3

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19
Q

principle in determination of individual complement component

A

RID

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20
Q

Responsible for wheal and Flare

A

histamine

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21
Q

Which test would measure the coating of RC by antibody as occurs in hemolytic trans reactions

a. IAT
b. DAT
c. ELISA
d. Hemagglutination

A

b. DAT

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22
Q

usage of DAT test

A

investigation of HDN
“ HTR
“ AIHA
“ drug-induced hemolytic anemia

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23
Q

lifelong marker of HBV infection

A

Anti-HBc IgG

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24
Q

Standard precaution apply to all the ff except:

a.blood
b. CSF
c. semen
d. Concentrated acids

A

D.

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25
Q

THe appropriate dilution of bleach to be used in the laboratory disinfection is:

A

1:10

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26
Q

ratio between water to bleach

A

9:1

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27
Q

Ilan ang parts per million ng bleach ang chlorine

A

5500 ppm of bleach

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28
Q

How frequently should fire alarms and sprinkler system be tested?

A

Quarterly

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29
Q

chemical na pimaka delikado sa buntis

A

radioisotopes

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30
Q

butterfly needle. pila ang guage

A

23g

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31
Q

scalp vein, pila ang gauge

A

25 gauge

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32
Q

Which of the ff gathers, organizers, and directs lights through the specimen?
a. eyepiece
b. objective lenses
c. condenser
d. optical tube

A

Condenser

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33
Q

The glycocalyx is composed of membrane:
a. phospholipids and cholesterol
b. glycoprotein and glycolipids
c. transmembrane and cytoskeletal proteins
d. rough and samoth endoplasmic reticulum

A

b

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34
Q

Hypoxia stimulates RBC production by:
a. Inducing more pluripotent stem cells into the erythroid lineage
b. Stimulating EPO production by the kidney
c. increasing the number of RBC mitoses

A

B. stimulating EPO production by the kidney

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35
Q

Poikilocytes in PV deficiency

A

Burr Cells

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36
Q

Example of transmembrane or integral membrane protein

A

Glycophorin A

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37
Q

the transfer of iron form the enterocyte into the plasma is regulated by:

a. transferrin
b. ferroportin
c. hephaestin
d. hepcidin

A

d. hepcidin

block the ferroportin in the blood to prevent iron absorption
relationship of hepcidin and iron stores: DIrect
if daghan na og iron stores = kailangan na mo taas ang hepcidin para wala nay iron overload, mao na direct

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38
Q

Which of the ff cells are impt in immune regulation, allergic inflammation, and destruction of tissue invading helminths

a. neutro and mono
b. eo and baso
c. t and b cells

A

B. eo and baso

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39
Q

Macrophages aid in adaptive immunity by:

a. Degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocyte
b. Ingesting and digesting organism that neutrophils cannot
c. synthesizing complement components
d. storing iron from senescent red cells

A

A. degrading antigen and presenting it to lymphocyte – adaptive immunity

ang B – innate immunity

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40
Q

endomitosis ends in:

MK-I
MK-II
LD-CFU-Meg
BFU-Meg

A

MK-II

mag start ang endomitosis sa LD-CFU-Meg

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41
Q

normal M:E ratio range in adults

A

1.5:1 to 3.3:1

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42
Q

most common erythrocytic stages found in normal marrow

A

Polychromatophilic and orthochromic normoblast

43
Q

An EIA screening test for HTLV I/II was performed on a whole-blood donor. The results of the EIA were repeatedly reactive but the confirmatory test was negative. On the next donation, the screening test was negative by two different EIA tests. The donor should be:
A. Accepted
B. Deferred
C. Told that only plasma can be made from his donation
D. Told to come back in 6 months

A

A. Accepted

44
Q

John Smith donated a unit of whole blood in May. Red blood cells made from the whole blood were transfused to a recipient of a community hospital in June with no apparent complications.
The blood supplier notified the medical director of the hospital that the donor reported high-risk behavior with another male in April, although viral tests remain negative and the donor is healthy.
What course of action should be taken?

A. No action should be taken
B. The recipient’s physician should be notified
C. The recipient’s physician and the recipientshould be notified
D. The recipient should be notified

A

B. The recipeint’s physician should be notified

45
Q

A unit tests positive for syphilis using the rapid plasma reagin test (RPR). The microhemagglutinin assay-Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP) on the same unit is negative.
What is the disposition of the unit?
A. The unit may be used to prepare components
B. The donor must be contacted and questioned further; if the RPR result is most likely a falsepositive, then the unit may be used
C. The unit must be discarded
D. Cellular components may be prepared but must be irradiated before issue

A

A

46
Q

Which immunization has the longest deferral period?
A. HBIG
B. Rubella vaccine
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Yellow fever vaccine

A

A. HBIG - 12 months
B. Rubella vaccine/ German measles - 4 weeks
C. Influenza vaccine
D. Yellow fever vaccine

no deferaal basta vaccine like rabies, polio injection

47
Q

Currently, nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) testing is performed to detect which viruses?
A. HIV and HTLV-I
B. HTLV I/II
C. HIV, HCV, and WNV
D. HIV, HBV, and WNV

A

C. HIV, HCV, and WNV (West Nile Virus)

48
Q

Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium and phosphorous?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin
C. Vitamin D
D. Cortisol

A

B. Calcitonin

49
Q

The method considered to be the “gold standard” of molecular methods is:
A. DNA sequencing
B. Southern blot
C. Northern blot
D. Dot blot

A

A. DNA sequencing

50
Q

PCR involving the sequential use of two primer sets:
A. Multiplex PCR
B. Nested PCR
C. Arbitrary primed PCR
D. RT-PCR

A

B. Nested PCR

51
Q

ISOTHERMAL AMPLIFICATION
Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP) uses _____ primers and proceeds using a constant temperature coupled to a strand displacement reaction.
A. 2 primers
B. 3 primers
C. 4 primers
D. 5 primers

A

C. 4 primers

52
Q

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall:
A. Within ±1 standard deviation of the mean
B. Between 1 and 2 standard deviations of the mean
C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean
D. Within ±3 standard deviations of the mean

A

C. Within ±2 standard deviations of the mean

53
Q
  1. What is the number of bacteria needed to cause turbidity in broth culture and to be seen with an unaided eye?
    A. 10^2 organisms
    B. 10^4 organisms
    C. 10^6 organisms
    D. 10^8 organisms
A

C. 10^6 organisms

54
Q
  1. When examining fluids by direct microscopic examination, if one organism is seen per oil immersion field, how many organisms per milliliter of specimen are present?
    A. 5^5
    B. 7^5
    C. 15^5
    D. 10^5
A

D. 10^5

55
Q

PEANUT
1. In addition to chromosomal DNA, genes encoded in extrachromosomal genetic elements, such as PLASMIDS and TRANSPOSONS, may be transferred by:
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Conjugation

A

C. Conjugation

56
Q
  1. Recipient CELL UPTAKE OF NAKED (FREE) DNA released into the environment when another bacterial cell (i.e., donor) dies and undergoes lysis:
    A. Transformation
    B. Transduction
    C. Conjugation
A

A. transformation

57
Q
  1. The process is mediated through viruses capable of infecting bacteria (BACTERIOPHAGES):
    A. Transformation
    B. Transduction
    C. Conjugation
A

B. Transduction

58
Q

PLS CHECK MEANING OF PRECLUDE BEFORE ANSWERING
preclude - prevent from happening
Which of the following precludes acceptance of a plateletpheresis donor?
A. Platelet count of 75 × 10^9/L in a donor who is a frequent platelet donor
B. Plasma loss of 800 mL from plasmapheresis 1 week ago
C. Plateletpheresis performed 4 days ago
D. Aspirin ingested 7 days ago

A

A. Platelet count of 75 × 10^9/L in a donor who is a frequent platelet donor

59
Q

A woman begins to breathe rapidly while donating blood. Choose the correct course of action.
A. Continue the donation; rapid breathing is not areason to discontinue a donation
B. Withdraw the needle, raise her feet, and administer ammonia
C. Discontinue the donation and provide apaper bag
D. Tell her to sit upright and apply a cold compress to her forehead

A

C. Discontinue the donation and provide apaper bag

60
Q

Which of the following donors could be accepted for whole-blood donation?
A. A construction worker who was incarcerated for opiate abuse
B. A triathlete with a pulse of 45
C. A man who is currently taking finasteride (Propecia)
D. A woman in her 14th week of pregnancy

A

B. A triathlete with a pulse of 45

pulse: 50 to 100
except for athlete - <50 bpm

61
Q

Who is the best candidate for a predeposit autologous donation?
A. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k
B. A 23-year-old female leukemia patient with a hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
C. A 12-year-old boy who has hemophilia
D. A 53-year-old woman who has septicemia

A

A. A 45-year-old man who is having elective surgery in 2 weeks; he has alloanti-k

62
Q

All of the following apply to a double red cell unit apheresis collection except:
A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%
B. The weight for a female is at least 150 lb
C. The height for a male is at least 5 ft 1 in.
D. The deferral period following collection is16 weeks

A

A. The hematocrit must be at least 38%

ratio:
Female
weight: 150 lbs
height: 5’5”
hct: 40%
Male
weight: 130/120 lbs I forgot
height: 5’1”
hct: 40%

63
Q

A donor bag is half filled during donation when the blood flow stops. Select the correct course of action.
A. Closely observe the bag for at least 3 minutes; ifblood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
B. Remove the needle immediately and discontinuethe donation
C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; ifblood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle
D. Withdraw the needle and perform a secondvenipuncture in the other arm

A

C. Check and reposition the needle if necessary; ifblood flow does not resume, withdraw the needle

64
Q

Which type of analytical error can be prevented by a good quality control program?
A. Instrument not properly calibrated
B. Presence of interfering substances in sample
C. Presence of bubbles in the light path of a photometric method
D. Analyte concentration so high it depletes the active reagent

A

A. Instrument not properly calibrated`

65
Q

PEANUT
A whole-blood donor currently on clopidogrel (Plavix) is precluded (prevented) from donating which product?
A. Platelets
B. Red blood cells
C. FFP
D. Cryoprecipitate

A

A. Platelets

66
Q

Antibodies to which of the following viral antigens are usually the first to be detected in HIV infection?
A. gp120
B. gp160
C. gp41
D. p24

A

D. p24

67
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) should be cultured immediately, but if delayed the specimen should be:
A. Refrigerated at 4°C to 6°C
B. Frozen at –20°C
C. Stored at room temperature for no longer than 24 hours
D. Incubated at 37°C and cultured as soon as possible

A

D. Incubated at 37°C and cultured as soon as possible

68
Q

The process of working with people and resources to accomplish organizational goals:
A. Authority
B. Supervision
C. Management
D. Leadership

A

C. Management

69
Q

A newborn is to be tested for a vertically transmitted HIV infection. Which of the following tests is most useful?
A. HIV PCR
B. CD4 count
C. Rapid HIV antibody test
D. HIV IgM antibody test

A

A. HIV PCR

70
Q

Which method is used to test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers?
A. ELISA
B. Western blot test
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Viral culture

A

C. Polymerase chain reaction

71
Q

Macrophages produce which of the following proteins during antigen processing?
A. IL-1 and IL-6
B. γ-Interferon
C. IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10
D. Complement components C1 and C3

A

A. IL-1 and IL-6

72
Q

Which region determines whether an immunoglobulin molecule can fix complement?
A. VH
B. CH
C. VL
D. CL

A

B. CH

73
Q

The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is:
A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Schistosoma haematobium

A

A. Diphyllobothrium latum

74
Q

Which preservation method is most suitable and the most widely used for subsequent fixed smear preparation?
A. Formalin-ethyl acetate
B. PVA
C. Trichrome
D. MIF

A

B. PVA

75
Q

Which of the following is a key characteristic by which an unknown Cryptococcus spp. can be identified as Cryptococcus neoformans?
A. Appearance of yellow colonies
B. Positive urease test
C. Presence of a capsule
D. Positive niger seed agar test

A

D. Positive niger seed agar test

76
Q

A patient with a Wood’s lamp–positive, dermatophytic infection has a skin scraping taken for culture. The organism grows on SDA agar with a light-tan front and salmon-colored reverse. Microscopically the organism produces rare distorted macroconidia and rare microconidia. Additionally, there was no growth on sterile rice media. What is the most likely organism?
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum

A

C. Microsporum audouinii

77
Q

Which of the following is an example of an inappropriate specimen or condition that would warrant rejection for microbiology culture?
A. A nonsterile container for a stool culture
B. A swab of a skin and soft tissue infection
C. A tissue sample for anaerobic culture
D. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology culture

A

D. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology culture

78
Q

Which organism is most often responsible for impetigo?
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Streptococcus agalactiae

A

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

79
Q

In a clinical specimen, the presence of sulfur granules strongly indicates the presence of which anaerobic bacterium?
A. Bacteroides fragilis
B. Actinomyces spp.
C. Fusobacterium nucleatum
D. Clostridium tetani

A

B. Actinomyces spp.

80
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile is best confirmed by which of the following laboratory findings?
A. Presence of the toxin in stool
B. Isolation of C. difficile from stool
C. Gas production in thioglycolate media
D. Gram stain of stool showing many gram-positive bacilli

A

A. Presence of the toxin in stool

81
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis?
A. Cytology
B. Culture
C. Nucleic acid amplification
d. Serologic testing

A

C. Nucleic acid amplification

82
Q

Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are described as which of the following?
A. Gram-positive diplococci
B. Gram-negative diplococci
C. Gram-negative coccobacilli
D. Gram-negative bacilli

A

B. Gram-negative diplococci

83
Q

The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H2S-positive is mostly likely which of the following?
A. Proteus aerogenes
B. Proteus vulgaris
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. Escherichia coli

A

C. Proteus mirabilis

84
Q

A patient recently arrived in the United States from Africa presents with a long-standing cutaneous lesion, which is cultured for bacteria, fungi, and AFB. An AFB smear is made and is reported as positive for AFB. After 8 weeks of culture on both non-selective and selective AFB media, no colonies appear. Which of the following organisms should be suspected?
A. M. kansasii
B. M. tuberculosis
C. M. leprae
D. M. avium-intracellulare complex

A

C. M. leprae

85
Q

Which of the following tests is important as a part of the genus identification or as part of a preliminary identification but is not used as a confirmatory identification of Bacillus anthracis?
A. Demonstration of a capsule
B. Demonstration of spore formation
C. Positive PCR test
D. Lysis of the strain by specific bacteriophages

A

B. Demonstration of spore formation

86
Q

Neonatal meningitis is an uncommon but significant disease. Two important causes of this disease may be somewhat difficult to differentiate on preliminary observation. Which of the following sets of tests provide the best differentiation of Streptococcus agalactiae from Listeria monocytogenes
A. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin
B. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility
C. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, beta-hemolysis
D. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, beta-hemolysis

A

B. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility

87
Q

Which of the following sets of tests provide the best differentiation of Erysipelothrix from Listeria monocytogenes?
A. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin
B. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility
C. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, esculin hydrolysis
D. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, beta-hemolysis

A

C. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, esculin hydrolysis

88
Q

A throat culture was taken from a 6-year-old boy with a gray pseudomembrane covering his oropharynx. A catalase-positive organism was isolated on cysteine-tellurite medium and subcultured to Tinsdale medium, where it grew as black colonies with brown halos. A Gram stain was performed on these colonies. Which of the following cellular morphologies was most likely seen?
A. Gram-positive branching bacilli
B. Gram-positive cocci in short chains
C. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shape
D. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

C. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike shape

89
Q

A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
A. Corynebacterium
B. Bacillus
C. Nocardia
D. Mycobacterium

A

A. Corynebacterium

90
Q

The ability to grow well at refrigerator temperatures is a characteristic of which of the following organisms?
A. Mycobacterium gordonae
B. Listeria monocytogenes
C. Erysipelothrix
D. Bacillus cereus

A

B. Listeria monocytogenes

91
Q

Within 5 hours of returning home from lunch at your most favorite fast food restaurant you feel very sick and are vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
C. Shigella sonnei
D. Escherichia coli

A

A. Staphylococcus aureus

92
Q

The toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is an important virulence factor in staphylococcal disease. This toxin is classified into which of the following groups of toxins?
A. Cytolytic toxin
B. Leukocidin
C. Phospholipase
D. Enterotoxin

A

D. Enterotoxin

93
Q

The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci should be which of the following?
A. Penicillin test
B. Gram stain
C. Oxidase test
D. Coagulase test

A

D. Coagulase test

94
Q

The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of which of the following?
A. Clumping factor
B. Free coagulase
C. Extracellular coagulase
D. Catalase

A

A. Clumping factor

95
Q

Which medium can be described as containing bile salts and dyes (bromothymol blue and acid fuchsin) to selectively slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the gastrointestinal tract and allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow?
A. Thayer-Martin
B. MacConkey
C. PEA (phenylethyl alcohol)
D. Hektoen

A

D. Hektoen

96
Q

Which of the following bacteria should be considered important pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of soft tissue abscess?
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

97
Q

The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes?
A. Transformation
B. Transduction
C. Plasmidization
D. Conjugation

A

D. Conjugation

98
Q

Fermentation end-products are often used to aid inthe identification of bacteria. Fermentation results in which of the following?
A. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
B. Lactic acid, mixed acids, alcohols, CO2 production
C. CO2 and water
D. Specific teichoic acids

A

B. Lactic acid, mixed acids, alcohols, CO2 production

99
Q

Which method is most useful for confirmation that a culture isolate is Group B streptococcus?
A. Southern blotting
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Direct hybridization
D. Probe capture assay

A

C. Direct hybridization

100
Q

What is the unique characteristic of the DNA polymerase, Taq DNA polymerase, used in PCR?
A. It can be enzyme labeled
B. It is more efficient than eukaryotic polymerases
C. It is heat stable
D. It works with DNA of any species

A

C. It is heat stable

101
Q

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves three processes. Select the order in which these occur.
A. Extension→Annealing→Denaturation
B. Annealing→Denaturation→Extension
C. Denaturation→Annealing→Extension
D. Denaturation→Extension→Annealing

A

C. Denaturation→Annealing→Extension

102
Q

Which technique is used to detect DNA containing a specific base sequence by applying a labeled probe to DNA bands immobilized onto nitrocellulose paper following electrophoresis?
A. Southern blot
B. Northern blot
C. Dot blot
D. Western blot

A

A. Southern blot

SNoW
DRoP

103
Q
A

BOARD EXAM (9 decks)

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