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1
Q

Which of the following lists the correct shelf life for the component?
A. Deglycerolized RBCs - 24 hours
B. RBCs (CPD) - 35 days
C. Platelet concentrate - 10 days
D. FFP - 5 years
E. RBCs (CPDA-1) - 21 days

A

A. Deglycerolized RBCs - 24 hours

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2
Q

Which transfusion reaction presents with fever, maculopapular rash, watery diarrhea, abnormal liver function, and pancytopenia?
A. Transfusion-associated sepsis
B. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
D. Transfusion-associated allergic reaction

A

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

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3
Q

The only presenting sign most often accompanying a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction is:
A. Renal failure
B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobin
C. Active bleeding
D. Hives

A

B. Unexplained decrease in hemoglobi

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4
Q

Nonimmune hemolysis can be caused during transfusion by:
A. Use of small bore size needle
B. Use of an infusion pump
C. Improper use of a blood warmer
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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5
Q

Absolute IgA deficiency is a classic example of a severe allergic reaction. A result indicating an absolute IgA deficiency is:
A. <0.05 mg/dL
B. <0.50 mg/dL
C. <0.50 gm/dL
D. <5 mg/dL

A

A. <0.05 mg/dL

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6
Q

Irradiation of blood is performed to prevent:
A. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
D. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

A

C. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

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7
Q

Pain at infusion site and hypotension are observed with what type of reaction?
A. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
C. Allergic reaction
D. Febrile nonhemolytic reaction

A

B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

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8
Q

The minimum interval allowed between plateletpheresis component collection procedures is:
A. 1 day
B. 2 days
C. 7 days
D. 8 weeks

A

B. 2 days

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9
Q

The most common anticoagulant used for apheresis procedures is:
A. Heparin
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Warfarin
D. Citrate

A

D. Citrate TO PREVENT BLOT FROM CLOTTING

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10
Q

Which of the following can be given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes?
A. DDAVP
B. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
C. Immune globulin
D. G-CSF

A

D. G-CSF

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11
Q

Penicillin given in massive doses has been associated with RBC hemolysis. Which of the classic mechanisms is typically involved in the hemolytic process?
A. Immune complex.
B. Drug adsorption.
C. Membrane modification.
D. Autoantibody formation.

A

B. Drug adsorption.

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12
Q

With cold-reactive autoantibodies, the protein coating the patient’s cells and detected in the DAT is:
A. C3
B. IgG
C. C4
D. IgM

A

A. C3

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13
Q

PEANUT
1. What is the test of choice for HLA antigen testing?
A. Agglutination
B. Molecular
C. Cytotoxicity
D. ELISA

  1. What is the classical test for HLA antigen typing?
    A. Agglutination
    B. Molecular
    C. Cytotoxicity
    D. ELISA
A

B. Molecular
C. Cytotoxicity

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14
Q

The majority of HLA antibodies belong to what immunoglobulin class?
A. IgD
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM

A

C. IgG

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15
Q

The HLA genes are located on which chromosome?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

C. 6

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16
Q

User passwords should be:
A. Shared with others
B. Kept confidential
C. Posted at each terminal
D. Never change

A

B. Kept confidential

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17
Q

Components of an information system consist of all of the following except:
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Validation
D. People

A

C. Validation

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18
Q

WALANG STAR
The chronic nature of parasitic infections is caused by the host’s
A. Inability to eliminate the infective agent.
B. Type I hypersensitivity response to the infection.
C. Ability to form a granuloma around the parasite.
D. Tendency to form circulating immune complexes.

A

A. Inability to eliminate the infective agent.

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19
Q

WALANG STAR
Most of the pathology associated with parasitic infections results from which of the following?
A. Symbiotic relationships with the host
B. Elaborate parasitic life cycles
C. Immune response to the offending organism
D. Innate defense mechanisms of the host

A

C. Immune response to the offending organism

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20
Q

All of the following agars may be used to isolate Helicobacter except:
A. Campy-CVA
B. Skirrow’s
C. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar (TCBS)
D. modified Thayer-Martin
—
Stool specimens submitted for culture of H. cinaedi and H. fennelliae are inoculated onto selective media used for Campylobacter isolation but without cephalothin such as Campy-CVA.
For the recovery of H. pylori from tissue biopsy specimens including gastric antral biopsies, non-selective agar media, including chocolate agar and Brucella agar with 5% sheep blood, have resulted in successful recovery of the organisms.
Selective agar such as Skirrow’s and modified Thayer-Martin agar also support growth.

A

C. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar (TCBS)

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21
Q

PEANUT
1. Which of the following has been recognized in postinfectious complications of a Campylobacter jejuni infection?
A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
B. Chronic pulmonary disease
C. Encephalitis
D. Endocarditis

  1. A 60-year-old man suffered from fever, watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. Three weeks later, he was admitted to the hospital unable to speak but coherent and oriented. Neurological examination revealed bilateral muscle weakness in his legs. Within hours, the muscle weakness extended to his arms and chest. He was diagnosed with Guillain–Barré syndrome. With which organism was he most likely infected?
    A. Campylobacter jejuni
    B. Clostridium tetani
    C. Cytolmegalovirus
    D. Salmonella enterica
    E. Shigella sonnei
A

A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
A. Campylobacter jejuni

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22
Q

Bartonella quintana has been known to cause:
A. Carrion’s disease
B. Trench fever
C. Cat-scratch disease
D. Lyme disease

A

B. Trench fever

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23
Q

Which encapsulated type of H. influenzae is most common?
A. Type a
B. Type b
C. Type c
D. Type d

A

B. Type b

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24
Q

All of the following organisms require X and V factors, except:
A. H. influenzae
B. H. haemolyticus
C. H. influenzae biotype aegyptius
D. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

A

D. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

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25
Q

Which of the following Haemophilus species is an agent of a sexually transmitted disease?
A. H. parainfluenzae
B. H. influenzae
C. H. ducreyi
D. H. segnis

A

C. H. ducreyi

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26
Q

Which of the following conditions is viewed as a risk factor for systemic disease caused by Pasteurella multocida subsp. multocida?
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. End-stage renal disease
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Hereditary hemochromatosis

A

A. Liver cirrhosis

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27
Q

Into which genus have Haemophilus aphrophilus and Haemophilus paraphrophilus been recently reclassified?
A. Actinobacillus
B. Aggregatibacter
C. Haemophilus
D. Pasteurella

A

B. Aggregatibacter

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28
Q

Which of the following culture characteristics alert the microbiologist to a possible infection resulting from Eikenella corrodens?
A. Rapid growth on 5% sheep blood, chocolate, and MacConkey agar
B. Pitting of the agar and a characteristic chlorine bleach smell
C. Growth with alpha hemolysis on the 5% sheep blood agar and no growth on MAC agar
D. Limited growth on 5% sheep blood, chocolate, and MacConkey agar, but improved growth using BYCE media

A

B. Pitting of the agar and a characteristic chlorine bleach smell

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29
Q

Which of the following is the key pathogen that infects the lungs of patients with cystic fibrosis?
A. B. cepacia
B. B. pseudomallei
C. P. fluorescens
D. P. aeruginosa

A

D. P. aeruginosa

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30
Q

Which organisms are plump coccobacilli that may resist decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp?
A. Acinetobacter spp.
B. Bordetella spp.
C. Stenotrophomonas sp.
D. Burkholderia sp.

A

A. Acinetobacter spp.

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31
Q

Which organism has large, smooth, glistening colonies with a lavender pigment and smells like ammonia?
A. Acinetobacter spp.
B. Bordetella spp.
C. Stenotrophomonas sp.
D. Burkholderia sp.

A

C. Stenotrophomonas sp.

glistening

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32
Q

A patient presents to the physician with pain and frequency of urination. The urine culture reveals a non–lactose fermenting, gram-negative rod with characteristic swarming on blood agar. The biochemical test that would specifically distinguish this organism from other Enterobacteriaceae is:
A. Lactose fermentation
B. Oxidase
C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S
D. Triple sugar iron agar

A

C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S

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33
Q

Which E. coli produces a heat-labile (LT) enterotoxin and a heat-stable enterotoxin?
A. UPEC
B. ETEC
C. MNEC
D. EHEC

A

B. ETEC

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34
Q

The most common cause of hemolytic uremic syndrome is:
A. EPEC
B. EAEC
C. O157:NM
D. O157:H7

A

D. O157:H7

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35
Q

What blood group system antibodies are commonly associated with delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions?
A. Rh
B. MNS
C. ABO
D. Kidd

A

D. Kidd

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36
Q

A patient presents with diarrhea and abdominal cramping. The organism isolated from the stool culture is identified as S. dysenteriae (group A). The TSI reaction would have indicated:
A. K/K
B. K/NC H2S+
C. A/A
D. K/A

A

D. K/A

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37
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are typically gram negative and:
A. Non–glucose fermenters
B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites
C. Catalase negative
D. Oxidase positive

A

B. Capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites

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38
Q

Incubation of which organism at 25°C produces a characteristic yellow pigment?
A. C. sakazakii
B. P. shigelloides
C. E. aerogenes
D. H. alvei

A

A. C. sakazakii

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39
Q

Which Nocardia sp. causes more than 80% of human infections?
A. N. asteroides
B. N. brasiliensis
C. N. otitidiscaviarum
D. N. farcina

A

A. N. asteroides

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40
Q

Which actinomycete is partial acid-fast, has extensive aerial hyphae, and is lysozyme resistant?
A. Nocardia sp.
B. Rhodococcus sp.
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.

A

A. Nocardia sp.

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41
Q

Infection caused by non–acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes is usually chronic, granulomatous lesions of the skin referred to as:
A. Mycelium
B. Necrosis
C. Impetigo
D. Mycetoma

A

D. Mycetoma

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42
Q

Which organism is most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with HIV?
A. Nocardia asteroides
B. Rhodococcus equi
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.
—
To date, Rhodococcus equi has been the organism most commonly associated with human disease, particularly in immunocompromised patients, such as those infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

A

B. Rhodococcus equi

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43
Q

Which organisms may stain partially acid-fast when stained with a modified acid-fast stain?
A. Gordonia sp.
B. Rhodococcus sp.
C. Nocardia sp.
D. All of the above
—
If the modified acid-fast stain results are positive, the isolate is a probable partially acid-fast aerobic actinomycete (i.e., Nocardia, Rhodococcus, Tsukamurella, or Gordonia sp).

A

D. All of the above

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44
Q

Which of the following is the only catalase-negative, gram-positive, non-spore-forming rod that produces H2S on TSI?
A. Gardnerella sp.
B. Erysipelothrix sp.
C. Lactobacillus sp.
D. Arcanobacterium sp.

A

B. Erysipelothrix sp.

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45
Q

Which organism exhibits end-over-end tumbling motility when incubated in nutrient broth at room temperature for 1 to 2 hours
A. C. diphtheriae
B. C. jeikeium
C. Arthrobacter sp.
D. L. monocytogenes

A

D. L. monocytogenes

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46
Q

All of the following can be used to detect toxin from C. diphtheriae except:
A. Guinea pig lethality test
B. Elek test
C. Modified Tinsdale
D. PCR

A

C. Modified Tinsdale

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47
Q

Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should avoid eating which of the following foods to prevent Listeria infection
A. Feta cheese
B. Peanuts
C. Pickles
D. Ice cream

A

A. Feta cheese

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48
Q

PROGRESSIVE ENDOPHTHALMITIS
It is a serious pathogen of the eye, causing progressive endophthalmitis:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Bacillus thurigiensis

A

B. Bacillus cereus

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49
Q

EYE CULTURE, GRAM-POSITIVE, AEROBIC, MOTILE & BETA-HEMOLYTIC
A large, aerobic, beta-hemolytic, gram-positive rod is isolated from an eye culture. Subsequent testing reveals it is motile and produces a wide zone on egg yolk agar. The most likely identification of this organism is:
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus cereus
D. Clostridium perfringens

A

C. Bacillus cereus

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50
Q

A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from ablood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

A

Nonhemolytic and nonmotile

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51
Q

Pulmonary anthrax is also known as:
A. Black eschar
B. Woolsorters’ disease
C. Legionnaires’ disease
D. Plague

A

B. Woolsorters’ disease

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52
Q

Which organism is able to hydrolyze esculin and is a serious nosocomial pathogen?
A. S. bovis
B. S. mitis
C. E. faecalis
D. S. pneumoniae
—
Enterococci are one of the most feared nosocomial pathogens isolated from the urinary tract, peritoneum, heart tissue, bacteremia, endocarditis, and intra-abdominal infections.

A

C. E. faecalis

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53
Q

Optochin sensitivity is used to differentiate:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B. Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Enterococci from non–group D enterococci

A

A. Streptococcus pneumoniae from other alpha-hemolytic streptococci

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54
Q

Which organism produces the CAMP factor enhancing beta hemolysis in the presence of the S. aureus beta lysin?
A. Group A streptococci
B. Group B streptococci
C. Group C streptococci
D. Group D streptococci

A

B. Group B streptococci

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55
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is a serious infection associated with:
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A

C. Streptococcus pyogenes

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56
Q

All of the following media used for the cultivation of Micrococcaceae are SELECTIVE except:
A. 5% sheep blood agar
B. Phenyl-ethyl alcohol agar
C. Mannitol salt agar
D. Colistin nalidixic acid agar

A

A. 5% sheep blood agar

57
Q

A chromogenic cephalosporin is used to detect resistance to:
A. Macrolides
B. Aminoglycosides
C. β-lactams
D. Tetracyclines

A

C. β-lactams

58
Q

The standard inoculum size for agar dilution susceptibility testing is:
A. 1 × 10^4 CFU/mL
B. 5 × 10^5 CFU/mL
C. 1 × 10^7 CFU/mL
D. 5 × 10^8 CFU/mL

A

A. 1 × 10^4 CFU/mL

59
Q

The two cations known to influence the activity of aminoglycosides are:
A. Sodium and potassium
B. Calcium and potassium
C. Calcium and magnesium
D. Sodium and magnesium

A

C. Calcium and magnesium

60
Q

What substance added to the antigen in the RPR test allows for more macroscopically visible flocculation?
A. Latex particles
B. Extracellular antigens
C. Heparin-magnesium chloride particles
D. Charcoal particles

A

D. Charcoal particles

61
Q

A widely used hemagglutination test for detecting antibody to Treponema pallidum is:
A. MHA-TP test
B. FTA-ABS test
C. VDRL test
D. Hemagglutination inhibition assay

A

A. MHA-TP test (Microhemagglutination test)

62
Q

What temperature is used to achieve DNA denaturation to a single strand?
A. 74 °C
B. 92 °C
C. 94 °C
D. 102 °C

A

C. 94 °C

63
Q

The complete clearing of media around bacterial colonies on a blood agar plate is referred to as:
A. Alpha hemolysis
B. Beta hemolysis
C. Gamma hemolysis
D. Delta hemolysis

A

B. Beta hemolysis

64
Q

Which type of enrichment media is used to isolate Neisseria and Haemophilus organisms?
A. Hektoen enteric (HE) agar
B. Todd Hewitt broth
C. Regan Lowe agar
D. Chocolate agar

A

D. Chocolate agar

65
Q

What is the stain that binds to the nucleic acid of organisms but does not discriminate between gram-positive or gram-negative organisms called?
A. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
B. Auramine-rhodamine stain
C. Gram stain
D. Acridine orange stain

A

D. Acridine orange stain

66
Q

All of the following are differential media except:
A. Blood agar
B. Chocolate agar
C. MacConkey’s agar
D. Eosin methylene blue agar

A

B. Chocolate agar

67
Q

Most laboratories use which type of fire extinguisher?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Combination ABC

A

D. Combination ABC

68
Q

Nonspecific immunity includes all of the following except:
A. Inflammation
B. Phagocytosis by neutrophils
C. B cell activation to produce antibodies
D. Resident normal flora

A

C. B cell activation to produce antibodies

69
Q

Which assay using 24-hour urine is considered the best single screening test for pheochromocytoma?
A. Total urinary catecholamines
B. VMA
C. Homovanillic acid (HVA)
D. Metanephrines

A

D. Metanephrines

70
Q

Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Methionine
C. Tyrosine
D. Histidine

A

C. Tyrosine

71
Q

Select the most appropriate single screening test for thyroid disease.
A. Free thyroxine index
B. Total T3 assay
C. Total T4
D. TSH assay

A

D. TSH assay

72
Q

A patient has an elevated serum T3 and free T4 and undetectable TSH. What is the most likely cause of these results?
A. Primary hyperthyroidism
B. Secondary hyperthyroidism
C. Euthyroid with increased thyroxine-binding proteins
D. Euthyroid sick syndrome

A

A. Primary hyperthyroidism

73
Q

Which statement about TSH and T4 in early pregnancy is correct?
A. TSH and thyroid hormones fall
B. TSH falls and thyroid hormones rise
C. TSH and thyroid hormones both rise
D. TSH rises and thyroid hormones fall

A

B. TSH falls and thyroid hormones rise

74
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with the highest level of AFP?
A. Hepatoma
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Testicular cancer
D. Breast cancer

A

A. Hepatoma

75
Q

A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for 4.5 hours before it is delivered to the laboratory. Which group of tests could be performed?
A. Glucose, Na, K, Cl, TCO2
B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine
C. Total and direct bilirubin
D. CK, ALT, ALP, AST

A

B. Uric acid, BUN, creatinine

76
Q

PEANUT, BEST ANSWER PLEASE
A three-part blood cell differential separates:
A. Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets
B. Monocytes, granulocytes, and lymphocytes
C. Mononuclear cells, granulocytes, and lymphocytes
D. Segmented neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

A

C. Mononuclear cells, granulocytes, and lymphocytes

77
Q

Microsporidial infections can be confirmed using:
A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains
B. Phase contrast microscopy and routine trichrome stains
C. Electron microscopy and modified acid-faststains
D. Fluorescence microscopy and hematoxylin stains

A

A. Light microscopy and modified trichrome stains

78
Q

Autofluorescence requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of:
A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts
B. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites
C. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

A

D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts

79
Q

Ingestion of which of the following EGGS will result in infection?
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Toxocara canis
D. Opisthorchis sinensis

A

C. Toxocara canis

80
Q

Eye infections with Acanthamoeba spp. have most commonly been traced to:
A. Use of soft contact lenses
B. Use of hard contact lenses
C. Use of contaminated lens care solutions
D. Failure to remove lenses while swimming

A

C. Use of contaminated lens care solutions

81
Q

Organisms that should be considered in a waterborne outbreak of diarrheal disease include:
A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.
B. Endolimax nana and Entamoeba histolytica
C. Blastocystis hominis and Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Toxoplasma gondii and Schistosoma mansoni

A

A. Giardia lamblia and Cryptosporidium spp.

82
Q

Oocysts of Cryptosporidium spp. can be detected in stool specimens using:
A. Modified Ziehl–Neelsen acid-fast stain
B. Gram stain
C. Methenamine silver stain
D. Trichrome stain

A

A. Modified Ziehl–Neelsen acid-fast stain

83
Q

In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the:
A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Either the definitive or the intermediate host
D. None of these options

A

C. Either the definitive or the intermediate host

84
Q

An operculated cestode egg that can be recovered from human feces is:
A. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Dipylidium caninum

A

B. Diphyllobothrium latum

85
Q

Eating poorly cooked pork can lead to an infection with:
A. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis
B. Taenia saginata and Hymenolepis nana
C. Trichuris trichiura and Hymenolepis diminuta
D. Diphyllobothrium latum and Ascaris lumbricoides

A

A. Taenia solium and Trichinella spiralis

86
Q

Characteristics of the rhabditiform (noninfective) larvae of Strongyloides stercoralis include a:
A. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium
B. Long buccal capsule and pointed tail
C. Short buccal capsule and small genital primordium
D. Small genital primordium and notch in tail

A

A. Short buccal capsule and large genital primordium

87
Q

An Entamoeba histolytica trophozoite has the following characteristics:
A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingestedRBCs, and clear pseudopodia
B. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and unevenchromatin on the nuclear membrane
C. Ingested RBCs, clear pseudopodia, and largeglycogen vacuoles in cytoplasm
D. Large, blotlike karyosome, ingested white blood cells (WBCs), and granular pseudopods

A

A. Central karyosome in the nucleus, ingestedRBCs, and clear pseudopodia

88
Q

Which of the following is the best technique to identify Dientamoeba fragilis in stool?
A. Formalin concentrate
B. Trichrome-stained smear
C. Modified acid-fast–stained smear
D. Giemsa’s stain

A

B. Trichrome-stained smear

89
Q

Charcot–Leyden crystals in stool may be associated with an immune response and are thought to be formed from the breakdown products of:
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes

A

B. Eosinophils

90
Q

INTESTINAL NEMATODES

SMALL INTESTINES (CASH)
Capillaria
Ascaris
Strongyloides
Hookworms
& T.spiralis adult

LARGE INTESTINES (ET)
Enterobius
Trichuris

A

INTESTINAL NEMATODES

SMALL INTESTINES (CASH)
Capillaria
Ascaris
Strongyloides
Hookworms
& T.spiralis adult

LARGE INTESTINES (ET)
Enterobius
Trichuris

91
Q

Similar to hookworm eggs:
A. Ascaris
B. Trichuris
C. Trichostrongylus
D. Enterobius

A

C. Trichostrongylus

92
Q

PEANUT
The BAERMANN TECHNIQUE yields a good concentration of the living larvae of:
A. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
B. Brugia malayi
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Strongyloides stercoralis

A

D. Strongyloides stercoralis

Strong ang Bear

93
Q

PEANUT
Roundworm that inhabits the small intestines and usually demonstrated as rhabditiform larva in stool:
A. A. lumbricoides
B. N. americanus
C. T. spiralis
D. S. stercoralis

A

D. S. stercoralis

94
Q

PEANUT
1. The rhabditiform larva of the hookworm has a:
A. Long buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium
B. Long buccal cavity, small genital primordium
C. Short buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium
D. Short buccal cavity, small genital primordium

  1. The rhabditiform larva of the threadworm has a:
    A. Long buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium
    B. Long buccal cavity, small genital primordium
    C. Short buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium
    D. Short buccal cavity, small genital primordium
A

B. Long buccal cavity, small genital primordium
C. Short buccal cavity, prominent genital primordium

95
Q

Rhabditiform larva with hourglass-shaped esophagus and short buccal cavity:
A. Ascaris
B. Enterobius
C. Necator
D. Strongyloides

A

D. Strongyloides

96
Q

PEANUT
1. Infective stage is the SHEATHED FILARIFORM LARVA:
A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus
C. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Enterobius vermicularis

  1. Infective stage is the UNSHEATHED FILARIFORM LARVA:
    A. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus
    C. Ascaris lumbricoides
    D. Enterobius vermicularis
A

B. Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus

A. Strongyloides stercoralis

97
Q

This diagnostic stage of Strongyloides stercoralis is best seen in stool using fecal concentration techniques:
A. Eggs
B. Rhabditiform larvae
C. Filariform larvae
D. Adult worms

A

B. Rhabditiform larvae

98
Q

Necator americanus rhabditiform larvae can be differentiated from Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform larvae by:
A. Length of the notched tail
B. Length of the head region
C. Segmentation
D. Size of the genital primordium

A

D. Size of the genital primordium

99
Q

Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except?
A. Necator americanus
B. Ascaris lubricoides
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Strongyloides stercoralis

A

D. Strongyloides stercoralis

100
Q

PEANUT
1. More likely to contain trophozoites:
A. Liquid/diarrheic stool
B. Formed stool
C. Soft stool
D. None of these

  1. May contain trophozoites and cysts:
    A. Liquid stool
    B. Diarrheic stool
    C. Formed stool
    D. Soft stool
  2. More likely to contain cysts (less likely to contain trophozoites)
    A. Liquid stool
    B. Diarrheic stool
    C. Formed stool
    D. Soft stool
A

A. Liquid/diarrheic stool
D. Soft stool
C. Formed stool

101
Q

Trophozoite forms of amoebae are found in what type of stool specimen?
A. Formed
B. Loose
C. Soft
D. Watery

A

D. Watery

102
Q

Which of the following is the specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus?
A. Throat swab
B. Urine sample
C. Bronchoalveolar wash
D. Feces sample

A

D. Feces sample

103
Q

Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?
A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets
C. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
D. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet
viability

A

A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion

104
Q

What antibody can an R1r patient make if transfused with R2R2 blood?
A. Anti-D
B. Anti-C
C. Anti-E
D. Anti-c
E. Anti-e

A

D. Anti-c

105
Q

Anti-E will react with which of the following cells?
A. R0R0
B. R1R1
C. R2R2
D. rr

A

C. R2R2

106
Q

A characteristic of the Xg^a antigen is that the Xg^a antigen:
A. Has a higher frequency in women than in men
B. Has a higher frequency in men than in women
C. Is enhanced by enzymes
D. Is usually a saline reacting antibody

A

A. Has a higher frequency in women than in men

107
Q

A plasma sample submitted to the lab for PT testing has been stored for 25 hours at 4°C. The PT result is shortened. What is the most probable cause?
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Activation of factor VII due to exposure to cold temperature
C. Lupus inhibitor
D. Factor X inhibitor

A

B. Activation of factor VII due to exposure to cold temperature

108
Q

A standard blue-top tube filled appropriately (with 4.5 mL blood) was submitted to the laboratory for preoperative PT and APTT testing. The results of both tests were elevated.
The patient’s PT and APTT from the previous day were within normal limits, and he is not on heparin therapy.
Which is the most appropriate first step to investigate the abnormal results?
A. Report the result as obtained
B. Perform a mixing study
C. Check the sample for a clot
D. Report the APTT only

A

C. Check the sample for a clot

109
Q

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) results from:
A. Antibodies to heparin
B. Antibodies to platelets
C. Antibodies to PF4
D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex

A

D. Antibodies to heparin-PF4 complex

110
Q

The Bethesda assay is used for which determination?
A. Lupus anticoagulant titer
B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer
C. Factor V Leiden titer
D. Protein S deficiency

A

B. Factor VIII inhibitor titer

111
Q

Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in patients taking aspirin?
A. Platelet morphology
B. Platelet count
C. Bleeding time
D. Prothrombin time

A

C. Bleeding time

112
Q

What clotting factors (cofactors) are inhibited by protein S?
A. V and X
B. Va and VIIIa
C. VIII and IX
D. VIII and X

A

B. Va and VIIIa

113
Q

A 50-year-old man has been on heparin for the past 7 days. Which combination of the tests is expected to be abnormal
A. PT and APTT only
B. APTT, TT only
C. APTT, TT, fibrinogen assay
D. PT, APTT, TT

A

D. PT, APTT, TT

114
Q

The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand’s disease is:
A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2B
D. Type 3

A

A. Type 1

115
Q

Fletcher factor (prekallikrein) deficiency may be associated with:
A. Bleeding
B. Thrombosis
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Thrombocytosis

A

B. Thrombosis

116
Q

Factor XII deficiency is associated with:
A. Bleeding episodes
B. Epistaxis
C. Decreased risk of thrombosis
D. Increased risk of thrombosis

A

D. Increased risk of thrombosis

117
Q

Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia?
A. Thrombin time
B. APTT
C. PT
D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

A

D. Immunologic fibrinogen level

118
Q

Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation?
A. Thromboxane A2
B. Thromboxane B2
C. Prostacyclin
D. Antithrombin

A

C. Prostacyclin

119
Q

Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme?
A. Phospholipase
B. Cyclo-oxygenase
C. Thromboxane A2 synthetase
D. Prostacyclin synthetase

A

B. Cyclo-oxygenase

120
Q

A protein that plays a role in both coagulation and platelet aggregation is:
A. Factor I
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor XI

A

A. Factor I

121
Q

Patients with Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia exhibit abnormally large amounts of:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgA

A

A. IgM

122
Q

What influence does the Philadelphia (Ph1) chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic leukemia?
A. It is not predictive
B. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present
C. The prognosis is worse if Ph1 is present
D. The disease usually transforms into AML when Ph1 is present

A

B. The prognosis is better if Ph1 is present

123
Q

CML is distinguished from leukemoid reaction by which of the following?
A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP
B. CML: high LAP; leukemoid: low LAP
C. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: normal WBC
D. CML: high WBC; leukemoid: higher WBC

A

A. CML: low LAP; leukemoid: high LAP

124
Q

In essential thrombocythemia, the platelets are:
A. Increased in number and functionally abnormal
B. Normal in number and functionally abnormal
C. Decreased in number and functional
D. Decreased in number and functionally abnormal

A

A. Increased in number and functionally abnormal

125
Q

The WHO classification requires what percentage for the blast count in the blood or bone marrow for the diagnosis of AML?
A. At least 30%
B. At least 20%
C. At least 10%
D. Any percentage

A

B. At least 20%

126
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is most often associated with which of the following types of acute leukemia?
A. Acute myeloid leukemia without maturation
B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Acute monocytic leukemia

A

B. Acute promyelocytic leukemia

127
Q

The morphological characteristic(s) associated with the Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is (are):
A. Pale blue cytoplasmic inclusions
B. Giant lysosomal granules
C. Small, dark-staining granules and condensed nuclei
D. Nuclear hyposegmentation

A

B. Giant lysosomal granules

128
Q

Which of the following is contained in the primary granules of the neutrophil?
A. Lactoferrin
B. Myeloperoxidase
C. Histamine
D. Alkaline phosphatase

A

B. Myeloperoxidase

129
Q

Which of the following may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient with obstructive liver disease?
A. Schistocytes
B. Macrocytes
C. Howell–Jolly bodies
D. Microcytes

A

B. Macrocytes

130
Q

Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by:
A. Serum iron level
B. Red cell morphology
C. Red cell indices
D. Total iron-binding capacity

A

D. Total iron-binding capacity

131
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
A. Target cells and Cabot rings
B. Toxic granulation and Döhle bodies
C. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
D. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

A

D. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs

132
Q

An autohemolysis test is positive in all the following conditions except:
A. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)deficiency
B. Hereditary spherocytosis (HS)
C. Pyruvate kinase (PK) deficiency
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

A

D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

133
Q

Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait?
A. Hgb S
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb A2
D. Hgb A

A

D. Hgb A

134
Q

Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin?
A. Reticulocyte
B. Pronormoblast
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast

A

D. Polychromatic normoblast

135
Q

Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision when comparing two CBC parameters?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Coefficient of variation
D. Standard deviation

A

C. Coefficient of variation

136
Q

A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Hereditary spherocytosis
C. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
D. Acquired hemolytic anemia

A

A. Sickle cell anemia

137
Q

PEANUT, CHECK YOUR TURGEON
All of the following are sites for bone marrow aspiration.
1. Preferred for adults:
A. Anterior iliac crest
B. Posterior iliac crest
C. Sternum
D. Tibia

  1. Infants younger than 18 months:
    A. Anterior iliac crest
    B. Posterior iliac crest
    C. Sternum
    D. Tibia
A

B. Posterior iliac crest
D. Tibia

138
Q
A

BOARD EXAM (9 decks)

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