Random Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 post-surgical causes of pyrexia? [5]

A

Wind: Pneumonia and atelectasis (1-2 days post-op)
Water: Urinary tract infection (UTI) (>3 days)
Wound: Surgical site infections (> 5 days)
Wonder drugs: Drug-induced fever, commonly due to anaesthesia
Walking: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (>1 week)

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2
Q

What is the most common site of carcinoid tumour?

A

Carcinoid tumours are rare, slow-growing neuroendocrine malignancies arising from enterochromaffin cells.

The most common site of carcinoid tumours is the appendix; other common sites include the ileum, rectum, testis, ovary, and bronchi.

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3
Q

What is the MoA of cyclizine? [1]

A

H1 antagonist

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4
Q

A patient has a major haemorrhage.

You decide you treat using TXA.

Describe how you would administer this drug [1]

A

Tranexamic acid is given as an IV bolus followed by an infusion in cases of major haemorrhage

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5
Q

A 30 year old male presents to Accident & Emergency with an acute onset of abdominal cramps, vomiting and non-bloody diarrhoea. These started an hour after having a cheese platter at a friend’s house.

What is the most likely source of infection? [1]

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Staphylococcal enteritis is associated with consumption of unpasteurised milk, unrefrigerated meat and dairy products. It usually presents with profuse vomiting and non-bloody diarrhoea within 1 to 6 hours due to a preformed toxin.

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6
Q

What is the cause of this ECG abnormality? [1]

A

On this ECG the only evident abnormality (apart from the AF) is the down-slopping ST segments seen in leads V4-V6, I and aVL. These down-slopping ST-segments (or reverse ticks) are characteristic of digoxin treatment. It can be difficult to distinguish this appearance from ST depression associated with an NSTEMI. In NSTEMI the ST depression is horizontal (not down-slopping). Digoxin is often used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation (especially if there’s co-existing heart failure) in the elderly population

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7
Q

Name and describe the cause of this ECG abnormality [1]

A

Cardiac tamponade occurs when a pericardial effusion causes haemodynamically significant cardiac compression. Signs include the classic beck’s triad which is comprise of; muffled heart sounds, low blood pressure and a raised JVP/distended neck veins. Another common finding is electrical alternans which is seen above, it is caused by the swinging of the heart in the pericardial fluid as it is being compressed. Common causes of pericardial tamponade include; following procedures such as post pacemaker implantation or post cardiac surgery, after trauma or due to a spontaneous bleed in anticoagulated patients

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8
Q

Periodic acid-Schiff positive particles upon duodenal biopsy is diagnostic of []

A

Periodic acid-Schiff positive particles upon duodenal biopsy is diagnostic of Whipple’s disease

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9
Q

A patient presents with polydipsia and polyuria.

They also have blood tests that show hypernatraemia with high serum osmolality and low urine osmolality that only returns to normal upon administration of desmopressin.

What is the most likely diagnosis? [1]

A

Hereditary haemochromatosis is a cause of cranial diabetes insipidus

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10
Q

What medication do you give for a pregnant person with antiphospholipid syndrome? [2]

What anti-coagulation used when not pregnant? [1]

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy:
- aspirin + LMWH

Normally:
- Long-term warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is used to prevent thrombosis.

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11
Q

What are the specific antiphospholipid antibodies are? [3]

A

Lupus anticoagulant
Anticardiolipin antibodies
Anti-beta-2 glycoprotein I antibodies

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12
Q

What changes in electrolytres are associated with PPIs? [2]

A

hyponatraemia, hypomagnasaemia

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13
Q

What is Behcet’s syndrome? [1]
What are the common presenting features? [+]
Which cardiac disease is it associated with [1]

A

Systemic inflammatory disorder. Causes:
- oral and genital ulceration
- vascuilitis
- skin lesions
- associated with acute pericarditis

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14
Q

Name something on FBC that would indicate a worse prognosis of pancreatitis? [1]

A

Hypocalcaemia

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15
Q

Describe what is meant by mesenteric adenitis [3]

A

Self limiting inflammatory disorder that affects mesenteric lymph nodes that follows a URTI
- Presents similarly to appendicitis

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16
Q

What are the treatment options for an overdose of a BB? [2]

A

1. Adenosine
2. Glucagon

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17
Q

Which drug or drug class are used for N&V for chemotherapy patients? [1]

A

5HT3 antagonists like Ondansetron are successfully used in the treatment of chemotherapy related nausea and vomiting.

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18
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated when taking alcohol?

Metronidazole

Amoxicillin

Clarithromycin

Doxycycline

Ciprofloxacin

A

Never take alcohol when on the METROpolitan line

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19
Q

You treat a 3 year old for a UTI with nitrofurantoin.

The mum comes back because reporting suspected side effects of the drug.

What would you expect to see? [2]

A

Nitrofuratoin can trigger an episode of G6PD

yellowing of the patient’s eyes and increased fatigue

classic finding on blood film is Heinz bodies

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20
Q

What conditions do you consider COPD patients to have LTOT? [3]

A

Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa or to those with a pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:
secondary polycythaemia
peripheral oedema
pulmonary hypertension

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21
Q

Renal colic: if NSAIDs are contraindicated or not giving sufficiency pain relief NICE recommend []

A

Renal colic: if NSAIDs are contraindicated or not giving sufficiency pain relief NICE recommend IV paracetamol

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22
Q

How long before a urea breath test should you stop:
- Antibiotics
- PPIs

A

Abx: 4 weeks
PPIs: 2 weeks

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23
Q

By which mechanism does loperamide act through to slow down bowel movements?

Reduction in gastric motility through stimulation of alpha receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through inhibition of dopamine receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through simulation of GABA receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through stimulation of opioid receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through inhibition of somatostatin receptors

A

By which mechanism does loperamide act through to slow down bowel movements?

Reduction in gastric motility through stimulation of alpha receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through inhibition of dopamine receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through simulation of GABA receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through stimulation of opioid receptors
Reduction in gastric motility through inhibition of somatostatin receptors

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24
Q

Which cancers do you see raised platelets in? [5]

A

Cancers with raised platelets - LEGO-C
-Lung
-Endometrial
-Gastric
-Oesophageal
-Colorectal

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25
Q

What is the first [1] and second [1] line treatment for PCV?

A

First: Venesection
Aspirin to reduce the risk of thrombus formation
Chemotherapy (typically hydroxycarbamide) to help control the disease

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26
Q

If Wells score determines that DVT is unlikely, what is the next appropriate step in management? [1]

A

Perform a D-dimer: if positive - do US

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27
Q

Over 55 - what HTN tx? [1]

A

CCB

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28
Q

What is the difference in presentation of Buergers (thromboanglitis obliterans) and Takayus arthritis? [2]

A

Buergers:
- smoking history
- young male
- blue fingertips

TA:
- Large vessel vasculitis
- Mainly aorta affected - aneurysms or blocked

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29
Q

State the four different grades of haemorrhoids [4]

A

1st degree: no prolapse
2nd degree: prolapse when straining and return on relaxing
3rd degree: prolapse when straining, do not return on relaxing, but can be pushed back
4th degree: prolapsed permanently

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30
Q

H.U.S is comprised of a trio of which three clinical presentations? [3]

A

AKI
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (destruction of RBC in small vessels)
Thrombocytopaenia

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31
Q

What is the most likely cause of low risk STI E-O? [1]
What is the treatment? [1]

A

E-coli
- 14 days of quinolone

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32
Q

What is the treatment for sigmoid volvulus? [1]

A

Hartmann’s procedure

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33
Q

What is Courvoisier’s law [1]

A

if gallbladder is palpable in a jaundiced patient, it is unlikely to be due to gallstones, because stones would have given rise to chronic inflammation and subsequently fibrosis of gallbladder therefore, rendering it incapable of dilatation.

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34
Q

Small cell lung cancer can cause a paraneoplasia in the brain. Name and describe it [2]

A

Limibic encephalitis - anti-Hu antibodies agaisnt limbic system

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35
Q

What are the top three causes of SIADH? [3]

A

SSRIs
Post-op
Small cell lung cancer

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36
Q

Which combination of drugs is a risk factor for rhabdomyolsis? [2]

A

High dose statin & clarithromycin

37
Q

Name 4 AE’s of statin use [4]

A

Myopathy
Rhabdomyolysis
DMT2
Haem. stroke (v rare)

38
Q

After a TIA, what is a key investigation to perform? [1]

A

Carotid artery US

39
Q

Desribe what is meant by a parayltic ileus [1]

A

Most commonly after an operation - causes inhibition of peristalsis

presents akin to SBO

40
Q

What is a key investigation to perfom before appendectomy? [1]

A

Pregnancy test

41
Q

What is the first line investigation for acute cholecystitis? [1]
Name three signs you’d expect to see

A

US:
- Thickened gall bladder wall
- Stones
- Fluid in and around gall bladder

42
Q

What is the inheritance of haemophilia? [1]

A

X-linked recessive

43
Q

What is the tumour marker for pancreatic cancer? [1]

A

CA19-9

44
Q

What is the indication for NIV in COPD? [1]

A

persistent acidosis:
- pH < 7.35

&

paCo2 > 6 kPa

45
Q

State AEs of the following:

  • Ondensetron
  • Cyclizine
  • Dexamethasone
A
  • Ondensetron: QT prolongation
  • Cyclizine: HF
  • Dexamethasone: DM
46
Q

What NT-proBNP levels would indicate seeing a cardiologist for an ECHO in:
- 2 weeks
- 6 weeks

A

2 weeks: > 2000
6 weeks: 400-2000

47
Q

How long before surgery do you stop HRT / COCP? [1]

A

4 weeks

48
Q

What is the target INR for mechanical valves? [1]

A

2.5-3.5

49
Q

Tear drop RBC indicates which pathology? [1]

A

Myelofibrosis

50
Q

State the murmurs heard in tricuspid regurgitation and stenosis [2]

A

Tricuspid regurgitation:
- Holosystolic murmur, louder on inspiration

Tricuspid stenosis:
- Diastolic murmur

51
Q

Pansystolic murmur, located on left sternal edge refers to which cause of murmur? [1]

A

VSD

52
Q

Which veins do you provide IV amiodarone in and why? [1]

A

Intravenous amiodarone should ideally be given into central veins to reduce the risk of injection site reactions.

53
Q

Describe and explain the significance of the half life of amodiarone [1]

A

very long half-life (20-100 days). For this reason, loading doses are frequently used

54
Q

You hear a murmur on left lower sternal edge. What are the three options that cause them? [3]

What other findings would help to differentiate them? [3]

A

Aortic stenosis:
- Left lower sternal edge (and aortic area)
- Ejection systolic
- Louder on expiration

HOCM
- Left lower sternal edge (and apex)
- Ejection systolic / mid-late systolic
- Valsalva increase murmur

Tricuspid Regurgitation
- Left lower sternal edge
- Pansystolic
- Louder on inspiration

55
Q

A patient presents with haemoptysis. You perform a CXR and CT.

What is the likely causative agent? [1]

A

aspergillosis - air crescent sign

56
Q

Haemopytsis, renal problems and flat nose = ?

A

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

57
Q

Which of the following is related to late-onset asthma?

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Polyarteritis Nodosa

A

Which of the following is related to late-onset asthma?

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Polyarteritis Nodosa

Think: Asthma is eosinophil mediated

58
Q

Which of the following is related with sinusitis and rhinitis?

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Polyarteritis Nodosa

A

Which of the following is related with sinusitis and rhinitis?

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Polyarteritis Nodosa

59
Q

Which of the following is related with a saddle shaped nose?

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Polyarteritis Nodosa

A

Which of the following is related with a saddle shaped nose?

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Microscopic Polyangiitis
Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
Polyarteritis Nodosa

60
Q

What is the first line treatment for rheumatic fever? [2]

A

IM benzylpenicillin or oral penicillin V

61
Q

A COPD patient as maxed out their therapies. They keep getting infections. Which drug can you consider as prophylaxis? [1]

A

Azithromycin

62
Q

When palpating her radial artery, a double pulse is felt during systole

This indicates which pathology? [1]

A

Mixed aortic valve disease is the correct answer. A double pulse felt in systole is called a bisferiens pulse or pulsus bisferiens. The first pulse is caused by the pressure increase related to left ventricular ejection - the second pulse is caused by a reflected wave from the periphery due to an artery’s recoil

63
Q

What is the management plan for PCV? [3]

A

Management

Aspirin
- reduces the risk of thrombotic events

venesection
- first-line treatment to keep the haemoglobin in the normal range

chemotherapy
* hydroxyurea - slight increased risk of secondary leukaemia
* phosphorus-32 therapy

64
Q

What is the most common cause of large bowel obstruction? [1]

A

Bowel cancer

65
Q

type 7 stools with intermittent hard stools = ?

A

Overflow diarrhoea

66
Q

you suspect that he may have pulmonary hypertension.

Which of the following features would support this diagnosis?

A loud second heart sound
Splitting of first heart sound
A soft second heart sound
A loud first heart sound
A soft first heart sound

A

you suspect that he may have pulmonary hypertension.

Which of the following features would support this diagnosis?

A loud second heart sound
Splitting of first heart sound
A soft second heart sound
A loud first heart sound
A soft first heart sound

67
Q

Describe what is meant by post-thrombotic syndrome ? [1]

Name 5 features [5]

A

It is increasingly recognised that patients may develop complications following a DVT. Venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency result in chronic venous hypertension. The resulting clinical syndrome is known as post-thrombotic syndrome. The following features maybe seen:
* painful, heavy calves
* pruritus
* swelling
* varicose veins
* venous ulceration

68
Q

What are the possible causes of post-surgical complications for
Day 1-2, 3-5, 5-7 or 5+? [4]

A

Day 1-2: ‘Wind’ - Pneumonia, aspiration, Pulmonary Embolism
Day 3-5: ‘Water’ - Urinary tract infection (esp. if catheterised)
Day 5-7: ‘Wound’ - Infection at the surgical site or abscess formation
Day 5+: ‘Walking’ - Deep vein thrombosis or Pulmonary embolism

69
Q

Resp alkalosis can be which two causes? [2]

A

PE
Panic attack

70
Q

Explain how sepsis changes neutrophil levels [1]

A

when you get an acute infection the neutrophils move from the blood into the tissue, this can result in a drop in the neutrophil count within the blood, leading to an apparent neutropenia

71
Q

How do you differentiate betweetn ARDS and acute cardiac pulmonary oedema? [1]

A

However, when looking at the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure:
- If high, suggests backlog into the veins, which is sensitive in diagnosing cardiac failure.

72
Q

A patient has long history of alcohol excess. You perform a FBC and this is their results.

What is the best management option? [1]

A

Terlipressin. This patient’s presentation is suggestive of hepatorenal syndrome (HRS), a type of functional kidney impairment that occurs in patients with advanced liver disease.

73
Q

What blood gas would you expect to see in sepsis patient? [1]

A

Metabolic acidosis with raised anion gap

74
Q

[] are given prior to appendicectomy

A

Prophylactic IV antibiotics are given prior to appendicectomy

75
Q

What is the universal donor for FFP? [1]

A

The universal donor of fresh frozen plasma is AB RhD negative blood

Group O is a universal blood donor and group AB is a universal plasma donor.

76
Q

[] is first-line for acute bronchitis (unless pregnant/child)

A

Oral doxycycline is first-line for acute bronchitis (unless pregnant/child)

77
Q

Whats a way of remembering the treatment for CML and CLL? [2]

A

C(M)L - iMatinib
C(L)L - iBrutinib (CLL is disorder with mainly the B-cell)

78
Q

What is the treatment for CML? [1]

A

imatinib

79
Q

You are in a paediatric clinic.

On examination, you note conjunctival pallor and a generalised petechial rash on her abdomen.

What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

A

Children and young people (0-24yrs): Refer for immediate specialist assessment for leukaemia if: unexplained petechiae or hepatosplenomegaly

80
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding amiodarone is correct?

Has a half-life of 7-14 days
Should not be given to asthmatics
Is a class II antiarrhythmic agent
Is a common cause of hypokalaemia
Is a common cause of thrombophlebitis

A

Which one of the following statements regarding amiodarone is correct?

Has a half-life of 7-14 days
Should not be given to asthmatics
Is a class II antiarrhythmic agent
Is a common cause of hypokalaemia
Is a common cause of thrombophlebitis

81
Q

You suspect a patient has appendicitis. What tests must be performed in addition to the above to rule out causes of his pain other than appendicitis? [2]

A

Male: Testicular exam
Female: Pregnancy test

82
Q

The combination of bronchiectasis and dextrocardia is highly suggestive of []’s syndrome

A

The combination of bronchiectasis and dextrocardia is highly suggestive of Kartagener’s syndrome

83
Q

[] is the empirical antibiotic of choice for neutropenic sepsis

A

Piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) is the empirical antibiotic of choice for neutropenic sepsis

84
Q
A
85
Q

[] is a common sign in patients with severe peripheral artery disease, often due to progressive undernourishment of the skin.

A

Loss of hair on the skin surface is a common sign in patients with severe peripheral artery disease, often due to progressive undernourishment of the skin.

86
Q

What is psoas sign and what does it indicate? [1]

A

Extend right hip
If positive: feel pain in RIF
Indicates appendicitis
Caused by appendix in the retrocaecal position moving agaisnt iliopsoas muscle and causing irritation

87
Q

Name two antibiotics which use the COCP to be ineffective? [1]

A

rifampicin or rifabutin

88
Q
A