Pancreas pathology Flashcards

1
Q

State a pneumonic for causes of acute pancreatitis [1]

A

I– Idiopathic
G – Gallstones
E – Ethanol (alcohol consumption)
T – Trauma
S – Steroids
M – Mumps
A – Autoimmune
S – Scorpion sting (the one everyone remembers)
H – Hyperlipidaemia
E – ERCP
D – Drugs (furosemide, thiazide diuretics and azathioprine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name three drugs than can cause pancreatitis [3]

A

Furosemide, thiazide diuretics and azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The three key causes of pancreatitis to remember are [3]

A

The three key causes of pancreatitis to remember are:

Gallstones
Alcohol
Post-ERCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the presentation of acute pan.

A

Severe epigastric pain - that radiates to the back:
- BUT: the pain can be present anywhere in the abdomen and acute pancreatitis should be a differential diagnosis in any case of acute abdominal pain.

Associated vomiting & vomiting:
- Very commonly associated with the pain and due to gastric distension and gastroparesis.

Abdominal tenderness

Jaundice
- In cases due to gallstone obstruction of the ducts there can be marked obstructive jaundice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why might treatment of an exacerbation of COPD trigger acute pancreatitis? [1]

A

Steroids can precipitate acute pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When taking a history about acute pancreatitis - why should you ask about recent infections? [1]

A

There may be history of recent infection with mumps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the signs you might see from bleeding in acute pancreatitis [2]

A

Grey-Turner’s sign (bruising of the flanks) and Cullen’s sign (peri-umbilical bruising) are rarely present (less than 10% of cases) and are due to bleeding in the fascial planes from release of protease enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute pancreatitis may lead to which resp. pathologies ? [2]

A

There may be crepitations present on examination and this may progress to severe acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Up to 20% of patients may develop a reactive inflammatory pleural effusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the blood tests you’d expect to see in acute pan

A

Amylase is raised more than 3 times the upper limit of normal in acute pancreatitis. In chronic pancreatitis it may not rise because the pancreas has reduced function.

Lipase is also raised in acute pancreatitis. It is considered more sensitive and specific than amylase

C-reactive protein (CRP) levels correlate with the severity of an attack and a CRP > 150 mg/L at 48-hours from onset indicate a severe attack.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What CRP levels would indicate a severe acute pancreatic attack? [1]

What WCC? [1]

A

CRP > 150 mg/L at 48-hours from onset indicate a severe attack.

White blood cell count > 16 x109/L used in both severity scores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which score is used to determine the severity of pancreatitis? [1]

What ^ scores would indicate mild, moderate and severe pancreatitis? [3]

A

Glasgow Score
The Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of pancreatitis. It gives a numerical score based on how many of the key criteria are present:

0 or 1 – mild pancreatitis
2 – moderate pancreatitis
3 or more – severe pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the criteria for acute pancreatitis? [+]

A

The criteria for the Glasgow score can be remembered using the PANCREAS mnemonic (1 point for each answer):

P – Pa02 < 8 KPa
A – Age > 55
N – Neutrophils (WBC > 15)
C – Calcium < 2
R – uRea >16
E – Enzymes (LDH > 600 or AST/ALT >200)
A – Albumin < 32
S – Sugar (Glucose >10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How would you differentiate between acute hepatitis and acute pan? [1]

A

Although there are features of upper abdominal pain and possibly shock, the main findings would be acute jaundice and deranged liver enzymes including raised transaminase (ALT/AST) levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how you would manage acute pancreatitis

A

Initial resuscitation (ABCDE approach)

Analgesia:
- which may be in the form of a patient-controlled intravenous morphine pump.

IV fluids

Nil by mouth
- Begin nutrition as early as possible, ideally enterally if only a mild attack.

Treatment of gallstones in gallstone pancreatitis (ERCP / cholecystectomy)

Antibiotics if there is evidence of a specific infection (e.g., abscess or infected necrotic area)

Treatment of complications (e.g., endoscopic or percutaneous drainage of large collections)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you treat pancreatic necrosis? [1]

A

Most necrotic collections are sterile and do not require any treatment although frequent monitoring to look for signs of infection should be performed.
- Surgical or radiological drainage or aspiration is indicated if there is any suspicion of infection and drains placed with intravenous antibiotic therapy commenced as soon as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you treat pseudocyst formation in acute pancreatitis? [1]

A

Pseudocyst formation:
* Surgery is not indicated unless there are significant pressure symptoms as they are likely to resolve over time.
* Drainage can be performed endoscopically or surgically and a drain into the stomach lumen is usually used to prevent recurrence.

17
Q

Describe why ascites might develop in acute pancreatitis [1] and how to treat [1]

A

Widespread enzyme-rich ascites can occur with release of pancreatic enzymes into the peritoneal space.
- Multiple large bore ascitic drains should be placed and left in until no further fluid is produced.

18
Q

What are the key features of chronic pancreatitis? [5]

A
  • Chronic epigastric pain
  • Loss of exocrine function, resulting in a lack of pancreatic enzymes (particularly lipase) secreted into the GI tract
  • Loss of endocrine function, resulting in a lack of insulin, leading to diabetes
  • Damage and strictures to the duct system, resulting in obstruction in the excretion of pancreatic juice and bile
  • Formation of pseudocysts or abscesses
19
Q

What can be given to replace the reduction in the production of pancreatic enzymes from chronic pancreatits? [1]

A

Replacement pancreatic enzymes (Creon) may be required if there is a loss of pancreatic enzymes (i.e. lipase). Otherwise, a lack of enzymes leads to malabsorption of fat, greasy stools (steatorrhoea), and deficiency in fat-soluble vitamins.

20
Q

Which is the most common type of pancreatic cancer? [1]

A

Adenocarcinoma, arising from ductal epithelium, constitutes approximately 85% of cases.

21
Q

What are the clinical features of pancreatic cancer?

A
  • Classically painless jaundice
  • present in a non-specific way with anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain
  • loss of exocrine function (e.g. steatorrhoea)
  • loss of endocrine function (e.g. diabetes mellitus)
  • atypical back pain is often seen
  • migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) is more common than with other cancers
22
Q

How do you investigate for pancreatic cancer? [2]

A

ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90%
high-resolution CT scanning is the investigation of choice if the diagnosis is suspected - 1st line

23
Q

The NICE guidelines suggest a GP referral for a direct access CT abdomen (or ultrasound if not available) to assess for pancreatic cancer if a patient has weight loss plus any of: [7]

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • Back pain
  • Abdominal pain
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Constipation
  • New-onset diabetes
24
Q

What is Courvoisier’s law? [1]

A

Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder along with jaundice is unlikely to be gallstones. The cause is usually cholangiocarcinoma or pancreatic cancer.

25
Q

What is Trousseau’s sign of malignancy? [1]

A

Refers to migratory thrombophlebitis as a sign of malignancy, particularly pancreatic adenocarcinoma

Thrombophlebitis is where blood vessels become inflamed with an associated blood clot (thrombus) in that area. Migratory refers to the thrombophlebitis reoccurring in different locations over time.

26
Q

Describe the surgery used in pancreatic cancers [4]

A
  • less than 20% are suitable for surgery at diagnosis
  • a Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) is performed for resectable lesions in the head of pancreas. Side-effects of a Whipple’s include dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease
  • adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery
  • ERCP with stenting is often used for palliation
27
Q

Describe in more detail what a Whipple’s procedure is [1]

A

A Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy):
- is a surgical operation to remove a tumour of the head of the pancreas that has not spread.
- A Whipple procedure is a massive operation so patients need to be in good baseline health. It involves the removal of the:

Head of the pancreas
Pylorus of the stomach
Duodenum
Gallbladder
Bile duct
Relevant lymph nodes

28
Q

What type of cancer is this most likely to be? [1]

A

Figure 3 – A adenocarcinoma located in the pancreatic head, identified on CT scan

29
Q

In which of the following scenarios is the Courvoisier’s sign most likely to be positive?

A 31 year-old male with pancreatic cancer located in the head of the pancreas

A 29 year-old female with a rapidly enlarging pancreatic pseudocyst

A 51 year-old female with a gallbladder cancer

A 32 year-old female with necrotic pancreatitis

A

A 31 year-old male with pancreatic cancer located in the head of the pancreas

30
Q

In a Whipple’s procedure, which viscera is not removed routinely as part of the operation?

Head of the pancreas

Gallbladder

Left lobe of the liver

Antrum of the stomach

A

In a Whipple’s procedure, which viscera is not removed routinely as part of the operation?

Head of the pancreas

Gallbladder

Left lobe of the liver

Antrum of the stomach

A Whipple’s procedure involves the removal of the head of the pancreas, the antrum of the stomach, the 1st and 2nd parts of the duodenum, the common bile duct, and the gallbladder

31
Q

[] is the preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis - looking for []

A

CT pancreas is the preferred diagnostic test for chronic pancreatitis - looking for pancreatic calcification

32
Q

Early [imaging] in acute pancreatitis is important to determine the aetiology as this may affect management (e.g. patients with gallstones/biliary obstruction)

A

Early ultrasound imaging in acute pancreatitis is important to determine the aetiology as this may affect management (e.g. patients with gallstones/biliary obstruction)

33
Q

Which is more common in pancreatic pathology?
- Pseudocyst
- Pancreatic abscess

How do you treat? ^ [1]

A

Pseudocyst
- Symptomatic cases may be observed for 12 weeks as up to 50% resolve
- Treatment is either with endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy or aspiration

34
Q

[] is a useful test of exocrine function in chronic pancreatits

Faecal calprotectin
Faecal elastase
Serum amylase
Serum calcium
Serum lipase

A

[] is a useful test of exocrine function in chronic pancreatits

Faecal calprotectin
Faecal elastase
Serum amylase
Serum calcium
Serum lipase