Colorectal II Flashcards

1
Q

Low rectal cancer is usually treated with [] surgery.

How do you adapt ^ to avoid the high risk of anastomotic leak? [1]

What is the contraindication to this? [1]

A

Low rectal cancer is usually treated with a low anterior resection
- Contraindications to this include involvement of the sphincters
- Most colorectal surgeons defunction resections below the peritoneal reflection as they have an intrinsically high risk of anastomotic leak. A loop ileostomy provides a safe an satisfactory method of defunctioning these patients

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2
Q

What type of stoma is this? [1]

A

Loop stoma

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3
Q

What type of stoma is this? [1]
Label which of A & B is the proximal and distal part [2]

A

Double barrel stoma
A: Proximal
B: Distal

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4
Q

State what the three different types of colostomy are [3]

A

Loop colostomy
End colostomy
Double barrel colostomy

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5
Q

Describe what a loop colostomy is [3]

A

Temporary stoma used to allow a distal portion of the bowel and anastomosis to heal after surgery

Allow faeces to bypass the distal, healing portion of bowel until healed and ready to restart normal function, by draining into a stoma bag

They are usually reversed around 6-8 weeks later

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6
Q

Describe how you differentiate between the proximal and distal end of a loop colostomy [1]

A

The proximal end (the productive side) is turned inside out to form a spout to protect the surrounding skin.

This distal end is flatter

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7
Q

Describe what a double barrel stoma is [1]

A

Divides the colon into 2 ends that form separate stomas:

Stool exits from one of the stomas & mucus made by the colon exits from the other

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8
Q

Describe what is meant by pancaking of a stoma [1]

A

Internal layers of the stoma bag stick together causing a vacuum which prevents the contents from dropping to the bottom. The stool remains at the top of the stoma bag which can potentially block the filter. The bag can also be forced off the body.

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9
Q

Physiological complications of high output ileostomy? [2]

A

○ > 1.5 - 2 litres

○ Fluid & Electrolyte imbalance
■ Dehydration, AKI
■ ↓Na, ↑K, ↓Mg (Addison’s picture)
■ Vitamin B12, Folate Def.}}

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10
Q

Problems associated with low volume ileostomy? [2]

A

● Low Volume (↓frequency & or quantity)
○ Stenosis
○ Impending obstruction}

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11
Q

Treatment for high output stomas? [5]

A

Hydrate (fluid and high salt replacement)
○ Glucose-electrolyte solution aids sodium absorption
○ Restrict low sodium (Hypotonic) fluid (500-1000ml/day)

● Anti-diarrhoeal medication, eg loperamide

● Anti-secretory drugs
○ PPI (omeprazole) ○ Octreotride (rarely)

● Correct Hypomagnesaemia

● Opiates (codeine phosphate)

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12
Q

Where exactly are loop colostomies located? 1[]

A

usually in the right transverse colon, proximal to the middle colic artery

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13
Q

Ileostomies can be low or highoutput:

Low output tends to output [] ml/day for a low output ileostomy, and [] ml/day for a high output ileostomy

A

tends to output 500 ml/day for a low output ileostomy, and 1000 ml/day for a high output ileostomy

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14
Q

Define what is meant by a parasternal hernia [1]

A

Parastomal hernia is a type of incisional hernia occurring in abdominal integuments in the vicinity of a stoma, i.e. a condition wherein abdominal contents, typically the bowel or greater omentum, protrude through abdominal integuments surrounded by the hernia sac at the location of formed stoma

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15
Q

How do you determine if a stoma has a parasternal hernia?

A

Positive cough impulse and and lump at the hernia site

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16
Q

What are the NICE guidelines on what makes patients with colorectals adenomas low, intermediate and high risk? [3]
How often should low, intermediate and high risk colorectal adenoma patients be offered colonoscopies? [3]

A

Classification of risk and advised management in patients with colorectal adenomas are as follows:

Low risk
- one or two adenomas smaller than 10 mm
- should be considered for colonoscopy at five years

Intermediate risk
- three/four adenomas smaller than 10 mm
or
- one/two adenomas if one is 10 mm or larger
- should be offered a colonoscopy at three years

High risk
- five or more adenomas smaller than 10 mm
or
- three or more adenomas if one is 10 mm or larger
- offered a colonoscopy at one year.

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17
Q

National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend a surveillance colonoscopy for patients with UC how often for low, medium and high risk patients? [3]

A

aLow: every 5 years
Medium: every 3 years
High: annually

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18
Q

What are the borders of Hesselbach’s triangle? [3]

A

R – Rectus abdominis muscle – medial border
I – Inferior epigastric vessels – superior / lateral border
P – Poupart’s ligament (inguinal ligament) – inferior border

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19
Q

Define what is meant by a Pantaloon hernia [1]

A

A pantaloon hernia, also known as a saddlebag hernia, is defined as any combination of two adjacent hernia sacs of the femoral or inguinal region (direct or indirect inguinal hernias (alternative plural: herniae)) on the same side

Thus, examples include: femoral with direct hernias, femoral with indirect hernias, indirect with direct hernias.

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20
Q

Difference in anatomy of femoral and inguinal hernia? [2]

A

Inguinal:
superomedial to the pubic tubercle

Femoral:
inferolateral to the pubic tubercle

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21
Q

Describe the management of uncomplicated hernia [4]

A

Surgery:
Open mesh repair:
- Direct hernia: plication
- Indirect: sac excision
- Both: add mesh which produces fibrosis

Laporoscopic mesh repair:
- As above, but reduced injury of nerves & post-op chronic pain
- Reinforces wall to elimiante reoccurence

Laporoscopic pre-peritoneal mesh repair

Suture repair (high chance of reoccurance

PassMed:
Primary unilateral/ bilateral hernia:
* Mesh repair(Lichtenstein’s or endoscopic repair), the mesh repair uses polypropylene mesh to reinforce the posterior wall. A recurrence rate of 2-10% for both procedures.

Recurrent inguinal hernia:
* If previous anterior hernia repair: open preperitoneal mesh or endoscopic approach
* If previous posterior hernia repair: Lichtenstein’s totally extraperitoneal (TEP). A minimally invasive procedure where the mesh is used to seal the hernia from outside the peritoneum.

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22
Q

Which nerves are present in area that open and laparoscopic mesh repair occur in? [3]

A

The iliohypogastric nerve, ilioinguinal nerve and genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve

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23
Q

Laparoscopic mesh repair is particularly good for repairing what type of hernias? [1]

A

Bilateral hernias

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24
Q

What is a spigelian hernia? [2]

A

A Spigelian hernia occurs between the lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle and the linea semilunaris.

This is the site of the spigelian fascia, which is an aponeurosis between the muscles of the abdominal wall. Usually, this occurs in the lower abdomen and may present with non-specific abdominal wall pain.

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25
Q

Inguinal hernias are more commonly found on which side? [1]

Why? [2]

A

Right sided

Due to descend of the testis or previous appendectomy

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26
Q

Which medical conditions might predispose a patient to an inguinal hernia? [2]

A

collagen defect medical conditions such as Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Marfan’s syndrome.

27
Q

Describe the method used to test for indirect inguinal hernia c.f. direct [2]

A

To test for indirect inguinal hernias:
- finger pressure should be applied over the deep inguinal ring. The finger pressure will control the hernia when the patient coughs.

To test for direct hernias:
- instruct the patient to cough, and a bulge should appear medial to point of finger pressure.
- If a hernia reappears it is more likely to be a direct inguinal hernia whereas if it does not, it is more likely to be an indirect inguinal hernia.

28
Q

What is the surgical procedure for recurrent inguinal hernia:
- If previous anterior hernia repair? [1]
- If previous posterior hernia repair? [1]

A

If previous anterior hernia repair:
- open preperitoneal mesh or endoscopic approach

If previous posterior hernia repair:
- Lichtenstein’s totally extraperitoneal (TEP). A minimally invasive procedure where the mesh is used to seal the hernia from outside the peritoneum.

29
Q

If a hernia cannot be reduced it is referred to as an [] hernia - these are typically [painful / painless]

A

If a hernia cannot be reduced it is referred to as an incarcerated hernia - these are typically painless

30
Q

Describe the medical and surgical management for hiatus hernias [2]

A

medical management: proton pump inhibitor therapy
surgical management: only really has a role in symptomatic paraesophageal hernias

31
Q

Which type of repair is best suited for unilateral [1] and bilateral or recurrent inguinal hernias [1]?

A

unilateral inguinal hernias are generally repaired with an open approach
bilateral and recurrent inguinal hernias are generally repaired laparoscopically

32
Q

What is the difference in indications for monopolar and bipolar diathermy? [2]

A

Monopolar: Major surgery

Bipolar: microsurgery

33
Q

Label E & F
What type of surgeries would they be used for? [1]

A

E: Battle
F: Lanz

Both for open appendicectomy

34
Q

Label B [1]

What is the indication for B? [1]

A

Rooftop scar: Liver transplant

35
Q

Label A [1]
What would indicate A? [1]

A

Kocher scar: open cholecystectomy

36
Q

How long before an operation should stop the pill? [1]

A

4 weeks

37
Q
A
38
Q

Post-op N&V can be treated using which three drugs? [3]

Name their side effects

A

Ondansetron:
- Long QT

Prochlorperazine:
- Parkinsons

Cyclizine:
HF

39
Q

How much glucose [1], Na, Cl and K [1] and water should be given a day? [3]

A

Glucose: 50-100g per day
Na K Cl: 1mmol/kg/day
Water: 25-30ml/kg/day

40
Q

Define critical limb ischaemia [3]

A

Critical limb ischaemia is the end-stage of peripheral arterial disease, where there is an inadequate supply of blood to a limb to allow it to function normally at rest.

  • Far extreme of intermittent claudification: rest pain (often constant) due to inadequate supply of blood to a limb
  • < 50 mmHg at ankle
  • Gangrene & ulcers
41
Q

Define acute limb ischaemia [1]

A

Refers to a rapid onset of ischaemia in a limb.

Typically, this is due to a thrombus blocking the arterial supply of a distal limb, similar to a thrombus blocking a coronary artery in myocardial infarction

42
Q

Name [1] and describe the classification used for PAD [4]

A

Fontaine classification

43
Q

Describe the surgical treament options for PAD [3]

A

Angioplasty:
- inserting a catheter through the arterial system under x-ray guidance
- at the site of the stenosis, a balloon is inflated to create space in the lumen. A stent is can be ( but not always) inserted to keep the artery open

Endarterectomy
- cutting the vessel open and removing the atheromatous plaque

Bypass surgery
- using a graft to bypass the blockage
- may have to remove valve in a vein
- can use prosthetic graft if needed (Goretex / PTFE)
- veins last longer that prosthetic grafts}

44
Q

How do you manage acute limb ischaemia? [6]

A

Acute emergency!

Endovascular thrombolysis:
- inserting a catheter through the arterial system to apply thrombolysis directly into the clot

Endovascular thrombectomy:
- inserting a catheter through the arterial system and removing the thrombus by aspiration or mechanical devices

Surgical thrombectomy
- cutting open the vessel and removing the thrombus

Endarterectomy
Bypass surgery

Amputation of the limb if it is not possible to restore the blood supply

45
Q

Describe the surgical procedures used to treat AAA [2]

A

Open AAA surgery:
- cross clamp the AA above & below aneursym
- open aneursym and remove clot
- stitch in graft

Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR)
- A wire is passed under fluoroscopic guidance through the aneurysm sac and a stent-graft is inserted to occlude the aneurysm from the inside
- local anaesthetic

46
Q

Describe how the Standford [2] and Debakey Systems [4] are used to classifiy aortic dissections

A

The Stanford system:
Type A – affects the ascending aorta, before the brachiocephalic artery
Type B – affects the descending aorta, after the left subclavian artery

Debakey system:
Type I – begins in the ascending aorta and involves at least the aortic arch, if not the whole aorta
Type II – isolated to the ascending aorta
Type IIIa – begins in the descending aorta and involves only the section above the diaphragm
Type IIIb – begins in the descending aorta and involves the aorta below the diaphragm

47
Q

Describe the clinical complications of varicose veins [10]

A

1. Swelling at ankles

2. Discomfort

3. Itching

4. Varicose eczema

6. Lipodermatosclerosis

7. Bleeding

8. Ulceration: high pressure clip off arterioles supplying oxygen to the skin in the extremities, leading to itchiness and dryness of the skin. If people itch the skin, they can break down and become an ulcer.

9. Haemosiderin: rbc red cells leaking out of insufficient veins that breaks down and Hb breaks down and becomes oxidised

10. Thrombophlebitis: inflammation of the superficial veins of the legs; constant pain that causes it to be hard, and painful

48
Q

Describe the conservative [1], medical [1] and surgical [3] treatment of varicose veins

A

Conservative:
- Leg elevation
- Class 1/2 compression hosiery
- Weight loss

Medical:
- Topical relief for thrombophlebitis

Surgical:
- Endothermal ablation – inserting a catheter into the vein to apply radiofrequency ablation
- Foam sclerotherapy – injecting the vein with an irritant foam that causes closure of the vein
- Stripping – the veins are ligated and pulled out of the leg}

49
Q

How often do you AAA rescan for
3 - 4.4 cm Small aneurysm [1]
4.5 - 5.4 cm Medium aneurysm [1]
≥ 5.5cm Large aneurysm [1]

A

3 - 4.4 cm; Small aneurysm: Rescan every 12 months
4.5 - 5.4 cm Medium aneurysm: Rescan every 3 months
≥ 5.5cm; Large aneurysm; Refer within 2 weeks to vascular surgery for probable intervention

50
Q

Describe how you treat superifical thrombophlebitis [3]

A

NSAIDs
Compression socks: reduces chance of DVT
LMWH: reduces chance of DVT

51
Q

You investigate a patient who is demonstrating signs of CLI.

How do you determine from the vessel affected if this patient needs open surgery or endovascular revascularization? [2]

A

Open surgery: lesions of common femoral artery and infrapopliteal disease
Endovascular: short segments: aortic iliac disease

52
Q

Dukes Classification of colorectal cancer:
What are the 4 stages? [4]

A

T1 and T2 is when the tumour is still within the mucosal wall.

53
Q

What is the surgical plan for treating symptomatic
- Direct inguinal hernia
- Strangulated hernia

A

Direct inguinal hernia:
- Open mesh repair

Strangulated hernia:
- Open non-mesh repair

NB: asymompatic hernia tx: watchful waiting & 6 month follow up

54
Q

What is the conservative treatment for haemorroids [2]

Stool softeners
Topical diltiazem
Sphincterotomy
Botulinum toxin,
Insert seton
Incision and drainage

A

Stool softeners
Topical diltiazem
Sphincterotomy
Botulinum toxin,
Insert seton
Incision and drainage

55
Q

how would you treat haemorrhoids if there are more marked symptoms of bleeding and occasional prolapse, where the haemorroidal complex is largely internal? [1]

A

stapled haemorroidopexy
- excises rectal tissue above the dentate line and disrupts the haemorroidal blood supply
- At the same time the excisional component of the procedure means that the haemorroids are less prone to prolapse

56
Q

Name and describe the treatment for Large haemorroids with a substantial external component? [1]

A

Large haemorroids with a substantial external component may be best managed with a Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy.
- three haemorroidal cushions are excised, together with their vascular pedicle.

57
Q

Which drug is often prescribed post Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy to reduce pain? [1]

A

metronidazole

58
Q

What is the treatment for large, external haemorrhoids?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

A

What is the treatment for large, external haemorrhoids?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

59
Q

What is the definitive treatment for fissure in ano?
stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

A

What is the definitive treatment for fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

60
Q

What is the usual first line therapy for fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

A

What is the usual first line therapy for fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

61
Q

What is the usual third line therapy for fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

A

What is the usual third line therapy for fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

62
Q

What is the usual second line therapy for haemorrhoids?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

A

What is the usual second line therapy for haemorrhoids?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

63
Q

Treatment failures which fail topical therapy will usually go on to have what treatment fpr fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy

A

Treatment failures which fail topical therapy will usually go on to have what treatment fpr fissure in ano?

stapled haemorroidopexy
botulinum toxin
lateral internal sphincterotomy
topical GTN or diltiazem
Milligan Morgan style conventional haemorroidectomy