random Flashcards by lana yassin

The trophoblast gives rise to

the fetal part of the placenta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which bonds are the strongest?

a) covalent
b) vanderwaals
c) hydrogen

covalent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

how are hydrogen atoms arranged

3 in a straight line

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

which statement best describes ligand-gated ion channels:
a) they are opened by antagonists binding in the extra cellular domain
b) the conduct cations selectively
C) the conduct ions more quickly than carrier molecules

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is preload affected by

give an example

venous return ( the greater the vr the greater the preload)
inc renin secretion (as this inc blood vol)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

glyceryl trinitrate mechanism of action

gives rise to NO which causes vasodilation and inc blood flow to myocardium, in the process arginine is converted to guanylate cyclase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

what is the highest risk factor for atherosclerosis
a) familial atherosclerosis
b) obesity
c) diet high in cholestrol
D) smoking
E)aged >50

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Name what views of the heart a,b,c and d are

A) lateral
B) inferior
C) anterior/septal
D)lateral

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What vessels do a,b,c,d correspond to

A- circumflex
B- right coronary
C- lad
D- circumflex

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What pathogen causes community acquired pneumonia
How is community acquired pneumonia treated
(use CURB)

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Curb65 0-2
Amoxycillin/doxycycline

Curb 3-5
Co amoxiclav IV + doxy

ICU co amoxi IV + clarithromycin (p allergic- levofloxin)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What pathogen causes hospital acquired pneumonia

How is it treated

Aerobic gram negative- pseudomonas aeruginosa, E. Coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae

Amoxicillin + gentamycin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What pathogen causes aspiration pneumonia

How to treat

Pneumococcus, haemophillus influenza, staph A.
Amoxicillin + metronidazole
If caused by legionella then treat w levofloxacin

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Treatment for hypertension

Examples of 
Ace: lisinopril
Arb: losartan 
Calcium channel blocker: amlodipine
Thiazide like diuretic (d): bendroflumethiazide

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What nerve is stimulated by blowing

Vagus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of ulcer is this: leg claudication for over 2 months,
Cool peripheries, distal pulses, ulcer on great toe
How to treat

Arterial
Lifestyly advice- inc activity
2nd line surgery
3rd line vasodilator

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of ulcer is this: history of t2 diabetes, painless ulcer

Neuropathic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of ulcer is this:

Abpi 0.90, ulcer on medial mallelous, pregnant woman

Venous

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What side of the heart is failing in this presentation: no oedema, needs to prop themselves up at night to relieve sob (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea), tired, bibasal fine crepitations

Left sided heart failure. Right does not have bibasal fine crepitations/ paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. has oedema, raised jvp, asictes, tender hepatomegaly, anorexia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Heart failure treatment

Acute, reduced ejection fraction, preserved ejection fraction

Acute: (LMNOP) lasix (loop diuretic), morphine, nitrate (eg. Nitroglycerin), oxygen, position

Reduced ejection fraction:
Symptom relief- loop diuretic, bblocker for angina, aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone)
Reduce mortality- ace/arb

Preserved ejection fracture:
Loop diuretic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which malignancy is associated with the spread to a lymph node in the left supraclavicular fossa?
A- cholangiocarcinoma of the bile duct
B- duodenal adenorcarcinoma
C- gastric adenocarcinoma
D- leiomyosarcoma 
E- metastic melanoma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Is this a bronchospasm or urt obstruction:

No audible respiration, bounding regular pulse, exaggerated chest movement

Urt obstruction, wheezing will occur with bronchospasm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How to manage beclometasone in asthma when patient has an oral fungal infection

Take beclometasone via large volume spacer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What causes lower lobe collapse. Give examples

Blocked airway or pressure from outside the lung.

Eg. Carcinoma of bronchus causes lower lobe collapse

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How to treat an acute asthma attack

Oxygen
Salbutamol (nebulised!)
Hydrocortisone IV
Ipratropium bromide IV
Theophyline
Magnesium sulfate
ANaesthetist

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What nerve passes through the root of the neck

Phrenic

What equation shld be used for ABG

H= PCO2/ HCO3

What is warfarin anticoagulation monitored by?

INR (ratio based on prothrombin time)

How is low molecular weight herapin monitored?

Anti factor Xa (anti-FXa)

In order of most reliable, research methods:

Meta analysis, randomised control trials, cohort, case control, case series

What disease causes a ziehl-neelson stain to test positive

What is likely to happen in an influenza pandemic

School closure

Fill in the blanks

What types of fibres do anterior rootlets and roots contain?

Motor fibres. In T1- L2 somatic sympathetic In S2,3,4 parasympathetic

What types of fibres are contained in posterior rootlets and roots

Sensory fibres

Spinal nerves contain what type of fibres

Mixed: motor and sensory

What vertebral level does the spinal cord end

L1/L2

Where does fertilisation normally occur

Ampulla of uterine tube

Which direction are amino acids added in

N terminal to C terminal

Max number of amino acids a gene of 30 nucleotides can produce

10 | As 3 nucleotides make up 1 amino acid

``` Which of the following enzymes transfer genetic material A. Amino acyk transferase B. DNA polymerase C. DNA transciptase D. RNA polymerase ```

What does a charged tRNA have attached

An amino acid

Which best describes transcription factors? A) DNA sequences that regulate transcription B) enhancers C) polysaccharides that bind to the transcripts D) proteins that bind to the DNA E) RNA sequences that bind to the RNA polymerase

Which of the following best refer to: quarternary structure, tertiary structure, secondary structure A) the individual sub units B) the overall shape of the polypeptide chain C) the path of the polypeptide backbone in three dimensional soace D) the relative orientation of 1 polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multi subunit protein E) the sum of secondary and tertiary interactions

Quarternary structure- D Tertiary structure- B Secondary structure- C (eg. Helices)

What type of reactions occur in phase I (drug) metabolism and for what purpose

Oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis. To make drugs more polar/react-able in phase II (This can make drugs more toxic)

what occurs in phase II metabolism | give eg

Conjugation of drug (polar from phase 1) with an endogenous substrate eg. glucuronidation

What phase of metabolism can make drugs carcinogenic

Phase I

What type of reaction results in the desensitisation to drugs

Phosphorylation reaction (causes receptor to change shape into an inactive form)

What is affinity (pharm)

A measure of how strongly a drug binds to a receptor

What is efficacy

measure of the max biological effect resulting from a drug binding to its target

What is tolerance

Situation when increased dose levels of a drug are required to produce the same effect

What is dependance

Related to the bodys ability to adapt to the the presence of a drug

What is potentcy

A measure of the amount of drug required to produce a defined biological effect

What would happen if you were to double the rate of administration of a drug that exhibits first order kinetics

The steady state plasma would be doubled | In 1st order kinetics the rate of metabolism is equal to drug concentration

Describe what the "apparent volume of distribution" is | calculation

The apparent volume of distribution is an extrapolated volume that can be calculated from the dose of the drug divided by the plasma concentration of the drug

If a drug has a high volume of distribution do u give a high or low dose

High

A man with an X linked disease has a son. What is the likelihood his son is affected

0% as son will get working X from mother.

What does uniparental disomy refer to

The situation in which 2 copies of a chromosome come from the same parent, instead of 1 copy coming from mum and 1 from dad

Which antibody type forms pentamers to increase blood viscosity

IgM

What does immunophenotyping investigate?

The pattern of antigen expression on/in antibodies | Eg. Identification of lymphocyte subsets

``` Which lab technique is best suited to monitor viral load RNA in the patients blood? A) IgG B) IgM C) immunophenotyping D) light microscopy E) polymerase chain reaction ```

E | Amplifies HIV genome using DNA template polymerase, primers and nucleotides

What cystein rich cationic proteins are secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?

Defensin

Label the parts hidden

Ps. Contains disulphide bonds

What is C3a

A protein formed by the cleavage of complement component 3 and is an anaphylatoxin (complement peptide)

what does lectin activate | how

Complement. (The lectin pathway is a cascade reaction that activates complement in an antibody-independant manner) (sugar)

``` Which of the following is g+ A) candida B) clostridia C) enterobacter E) neisseria ```

B A) is fungus C) is g-, rod shaped, facultative anaerobe E) g-

``` Which of the following produce spores A) enteroccocus faecalis B) neisseria gonirrhoeae C) C. Difficile E) streptoccyd pyogenes ```

C. Diff

What lab techniques can be used for determining the antibiotic resistance profile of a micro-organism?

16s gene sequencing, PCR

What is the biggest advantage of 16s gene sequencing?

Allows the identification of microbes that cannot be grown under normal lab conditions

Main advantages of PCR (4)

Its ability to measure DNA concentrations over a large range, sensitivity, processes multiple samples simultaneously & provides immediate information

give examples of cell wall antimicrobials and which of those have b lactam rings B) are these bactericidal or bacteriostatic

B lactam: penicillins, cephlasporins (cetriaxone), carbapenams (imepenem) non b lactam ring: glycopeptides (vancomycin) b) bactericidal

Give examples of antibiotics that affect nucleic acids

Metronidazole, ciprofloxacin

Give examples of antibiotics that target protein synthesis

Aminoglycosides (gentamicin), tetracyclines (eg doxycycline) and macrolides (erythromycin)

Amoxicillin has a b lactam ring. How does this effect its use against pathogens with b lactamases

Ineffective

What is cachexia

A condition that causes extreme weight loss and muscle wasting

What is infilltration

Movement of cancer cells from their normal location into the surrounding non cancerous tissue

What is the sequence of scar healing

Heamostasis, inflammation, repair and remodelling

Cells predominently found in Granulation tissue

Endothelial cells and myofibroblasts Remember granulation tissue is new connective tissue that is healing from a wound. Not the same as Granulomas! (Mainly contain macrophages/histiocytes)

What is liquefactive necrosis

Necrosis that takes place in CNS. Characterised by the absence of cell structure and a resulting viscous mass. Example: stroke

What is coagulative necrosis

Type of accidental cell death commonly caused by hypoxia. Characterised by preserving the architechture of dead tissue. Can become dry, hard, white. Eg. MI

What is primary prevention

Preventing disease eg. Smoking cessation

What is secondary prevention

Detecting/treating disease asap. Eg. Screening, daily low aspirin dose to prevent further MIs

What is tertiary prevention

Soften ongoing illness to improve quality of life. Eg. Stroke rehab

What is primordial prevention

Precedes primary prevention, focuses on risk factor prevention. Eg. Sanitisation