Rachel power MS Flashcards

1
Q

Define Multiple sclerosis

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction characterized by an autoimmune response against the myelin sheath of axons in the central nervous system (CNS). It is marked by at least two regions of demyelination in the CNS, separated by time and space, leading to neurological symptoms that can vary widely depending on the location of the lesions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline type IV hypersensitivity reactions

A

-Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are mediated by T cells, predominantly Th1, Th17, and cytotoxic CD8+ T cells.

-The hypersensitivity reaction is typically delayed in terms of manifestation, usually 48-72 hours after antigen exposure.

-These reactions develop following the presentation of an antigen (foreign or self) to a naive T cell, which can then differentiate into Th1, Th17, or cytotoxic T cells.

-Th1 cells cause tissue damage through the release of inflammatory cytokines, particularly IFN-gamma and TNF-alpha, which activate macrophages and amplify inflammation.

-Th17 cells contribute to inflammation through cytokines like IL-17, which recruits neutrophils.

-Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells cause inflammation and tissue damage through direct cytotoxic injury to tissue, using perforin and granzymes to kill target cells.

Examples:
MS
TB
Contact dermatitis
Type 1 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of multiple sclerosis

A

Multiple sclerosis (MS) pathogenesis involves the presentation of antigens related to the myelin sheath by antigen-presenting cells (APCs) on MHC class II molecules to naïve Th0 cells in peripheral lymphoid tissues.

Th0 cells differentiate into Th1 or Th17 cells, depending on the cytokine environment: IL-12 promotes Th1 differentiation, while TGF-β and IL-6 promote Th17 differentiation.

Autoreactive T cells produce cytokines that contribute to the disruption of the blood-brain barrier (BBB), facilitating the infiltration of immune cells into the central nervous system (CNS). This process is driven by an increase in the expression of adhesion molecules (e.g., VCAM-1) on the endothelial cells of the BBB in response to these cytokines. The interaction between integrins (e.g., alpha-4 integrin) on T cells and these adhesion molecules allows T cells to adhere to the BBB and transmigrate into the CNS

In the CNS, Th1 cells release IFN-γ, which recruits macrophages, NK cells, and other immune cells to attack the myelin sheath. IFN-γ also inhibits the differentiation of oligodendrocyte precursor cells (OPCs), limiting remyelination.

Th17 cells secrete IL-17, which exacerbates BBB disruption and recruits neutrophils and macrophages, amplifying inflammation.

B cells in the CNS contribute by producing autoantibodies against myelin, further driving demyelination.

Macrophages phagocytose myelin debris, while oligodendrocytes undergo apoptosis due to inflammation, oxidative damage, and excitotoxicity from excessive glutamate release. Axonal damage also occurs as a consequence of chronic demyelination. Partial remyelination may occur, but it is typically incomplete, leading to chronic neurodegeneration.

MS plaques appear as well-demarcated, glassy lesions in periventricular white matter, optic nerves, and spinal cord, representing areas of demyelination and gliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give 3 reasons why remyelination is incomplete in MS

A
  1. Rate of demyelination > rate of remyelination
  2. Reduced maturation and differentiation of oligodendrocyte-precursor cells by effector T cells and IFN-y.
  3. Reduced absolute number of OPCs available –> because IFN-y gamma induces expression of immunoproteosome and MHC-1 in OPC’s which can then be target by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are dawsons fingers?

A

Dawson’s fingers are best seen on T2-weighted or FLAIR MRI sequences.

They are areas of hyperintensity oriented perpendicular to the lateral ventricles and often involve the periventricular region.

They are associated with perivenular demyelination, typically surrounding small veins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List 3 findings on lumbar puncture which support a diagnosis of MS?

A
  1. Oligoclonal bands in the CSF
    -Found following electrophoresis of CSF sample.
    -Represents immune-mediated inflammation in the CNS involving the production of IgG antibodies which are not found in patient blood serum.
  2. Increased amounts of Myelin basic protein
    -Represents active demyelination.
  3. Increased mononuclear cells (normal is <5mm/3) mainly lymphocytes and monocytes (macrophages) –> suggests ongoing CNS inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How is demyelination of optic tracts detected by visual evoked potentials?

A

Visual evoked potentials involve placing an electrode on the occiput (visual cortex). The patient is then shown a visual stimulus in a darkened room, typically flashing checkered board.

The latency (time delay) and amplitude (strength) of the signals reaching the visual cortex is measured and graphed. This therefore represents how fast a signal can travel through the optic pathway.

Demyelination along optic pathway in MS (commonly optic neuritis) is characterized by delayed latency in the P100 wave and may also show reduced amplitude of P100 wave.

VEP’s can detect demyelination in clinically silent/assymptomatic plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List 4 abnormal findings found on neurological examination that may be seen in a patient with MS

A

Abnormal eye movements
(i)Nystagmus
–>internuclear ophthalmoplegia caused by demyelination of the medial longitudinal fasciculas (weak adduction of affected eye and abduction nystagmus of unaffected eye)
–>lesions in the cerebellar fibres can also cause nystagmus.
(ii) Optic neuritis
(iii) Conjugate lateral gaze disorder (failure of affected eye to abduct due to demyelination of abducens nerve)

Demyelination of dorsal column fibres
(iv) Sensory ataxia
–> broad base gait, foot slapping, positive rombergs test, difficult heel-shin test, impaired joint position sense
(v) Asterognosis
(vi) Decrease in 2 point discrimination

Demyelination of cerbellar fibres
DANISH

Dysdiadochokinesia
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
Scanning/staccato speech
Hypotonia

demyelination of descending motor tracts
–> Increased muscle tone/spacticity
–> increased deep tendon flexors
–> muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

List 4 contraindications to lumbar puncture

A
  1. increased ICP (papilloedema)
  2. spinal abcess/soft tissue infection at puncture site
  3. Risk of herniation e.g. arnold chari malformation
  4. Anticoagulant therapy
  5. Congential spinal abnormalities
  6. Thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

list 5 causes of acute vision loss and fundoscopic findings for each

A

(1) Optic neuritis
-fundoscopy may be normal or show disc swelling and hyperemia of retinal vessels.

(2) Retinal artery occlusion
-Pale retina + cherry red spot
-Retina is pale due to hypoperfusion, the fovea is avascular and so is not edematous, allowing for reflection of underlying choroidal vessels.

(3) Retinal vein occlusion
-Macular oedema
-blot haemorrages
-Cotton wool spots
-optic disc swelling

(4) Papillodema
-Bulging of optic disc
-blurring of disc margins
-engorgement of retinal veins
-Obscured view of vessels entering disc

(5) Retinal detachement
-billowing of sensory retina toward centre of globe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the layers through which a needle passes to sample CSF

A

Skin –> Subcutaneous tissue –> supraspinous lig –> interspinous lig –> ligamentum flavum –> epidural space –> dura –> arachnoid –> sub arachnoid space + CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how is L4 found before a lumbar puncture?

A

With patient standing, a line is drawn between the highest point of top of the iliac crests marking L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the composition of myelin

A

Myelin refers to the plasma membrane of the oligodendrocyte or schwann cell which has encircled itself around and axon.

The composition differs slightly between oligodrocytes (CNS) and schwann cells (PNS)

CNS i.e. oligodendrocytes
(i) 50% proteolipid protein (PLP) which compacts the intraperiod line.

(ii) 30% Myelin basic protein: compaction at the major dense line

(iii) 1% Myelin associate glycoprotein: initial formation and maintenance of the myelin sheath by mediating interactions between oligodendrocytes and axons.

(iv) remainder is Myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein and cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase

PNS i.e. schwann cells
(i) Protein Zero (P0): 50-60% of the total protein in PNS myelin.
Formation, compaction, and maintenance of myelin structure by stabilizing the intraperiod line.

(ii) Myelin basic protein: compaction at the major dense line

(iii) 1% Myelin-Associated Glycoprotein (MAG):
plays a role in myelin-axon interactions and is critical during the early stages of myelination.

(iv) Myelin Protein 22 (PMP22):
Minor Component: PMP22 accounts for around 2-5% of PNS myelin protein: stability and integrity of the myelin sheath and is also involved in Schwann cell differentiation. Mutations in PMP22 are associated with disorders like Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

list 4 consequences of demyelination

A

(1) Conduction block
(2) slower conduction time
(3) increased fatigue due to compensatory efforts
(4) Muscle weakness, tremor, spasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

List 4 drugs that can be used to relieve spaciticity and MOA

A

Botulinum toxin
*Enters into the presynaptic neuron’s end terminal via endocytosis and releases its light chain into the cytosol.
*The light chain then cleaves synaptobrevin/Syntaxin component of the SNARE protein associated with the neurotransmitter vesicle.
*This prevents appropriate docking and binding of the vesicle to the axon terminal meaning it can’t release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft thereby preventing muscle contraction and relieving spasticity.

Baclofen
*Baclofen works within the spinal cord to reduce release of excitatory neurotransmitters, particularly glutamate, which ultimately prevents downstream excitation of motor neurons supplying skeletal muscle.
*It binds to the GABA-B receptor and inhibits opening of VG calcium channels in the pre-synpatic neuron, thereby preventing release of glutamate. It can also work post-synaptically to trigger opening of K+ channels leading to hyperpolarization. This inhibits mono and polysynpatic reflexes.

Diazepam
*Allosterically Binds to the GABA-A receptor of post synaptic neuron, between the alpha 1 and gamma 2 subunit.
*This enchances opening of chloride channels resulting in chloride influx and subsequent hyperpolarisation of the neuron.
*This makes neurons less excitable and less able to cause excitatory stimulation of lower motor neurons to skeletal muscle.

Dantrolene
-Works within the skeletal muscle, inhibiting the ryanodine 1 receptor of the SR which is responsible for mediating calcium release from SR.
-Calcium would normally bind to troponin to allow for interaction between actin and myosin to cause contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the MOA of gabapentin/pregablin in managing neuropathic pain

A

Neuropathic pain is caused by inappropriate, persistent firing of excitatory signals from damaged or injured nerves. In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, neurotransmitters such as glutamate, substance P, and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) are released, which activate second-order neurons and propagate the pain signal to the somatosensory cortex.

Gabapentin works by binding to the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the spinal cord. This binding reduces calcium influx into the pre-synaptic nerve terminals, preventing the release of excitatory neurotransmitters. As a result, neurotransmitter release is inhibited, which dampens the ability of the pain signals to be transmitted to the brain, ultimately reducing the sensation of neuropathic pain

Gabapentin can also inhibit P/Q type calcium channels in the neocortex and hippocampus

17
Q

Describe the MOA of Beta-INF in MS

A

(i) Promotes Th1 –> Th2 (reduced pro-inflammatory cytokines/ increased anti-inflammatory cytokines)

(ii) Prevents antigen presentation to T cells by reducing expression of MHC-II on APC’s

(iii) Neuroprotective effects by upregulating production of brain-derived neurotrophic factor/ Nerve growth factor

Relapsing Remitting

18
Q

MOA of Glatiramer Acetate

A

(i) TH1- TH2
(ii) Acts as a decoy in the CNS by mimicking myelin basic protein thereby diverting the autoimmune response away from myelin sheath.

Relapsing Remitting

19
Q

MOA of Fingolimod?

A

Sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor modulator

(i) Binds to the sphingosine-1-phosphate receptor (S1P) which is found on various immune cells including T, B and NK cells.
(ii)This modifies the normal S1P signaling pathway preventing exit/egress of lymphocytes from lymphoid tissue/organs.
(iv) This depletes the number of circulating immune cells capable of autoreactive responses against myelin.

relapsing remitting

20
Q

Natalizumab MOA

A

Monoclonal antibody

(i) inhibits adhesion of lymphocytes to endothelial cells thereby preventing their transmigration across the BBB
(ii) Binds and inhibits alpha-4 integrins and prevents its interaction with VCAM-1

21
Q

4 components of the BBB?

A

(i) Tight junctions and adherens junctions between the endothelial cells of the cerebral capillaries - prevents passage of hydrophilic molecules.
(ii) Continuous basement membrane of capillaries (no fenestrations)
(iii) Astrocyte foot processus projecting onto capillaries
(iv) Pericytes
- structural support
- physical barrier
- modulate cerebral blood flow through contraction
-phagocytic function

22
Q

MOA of Ocrelizumab

A

*Binds to CD20 on the surface of circulating B cells
*Triggers destruction of these cells through 3 main ways:

(i) Antibody-dependent-cellular cytotoxicity: Drug attracts immune cells such as NK cells which induce cell death.
(ii) Complement-dependant cytotoxicity
(iii) Phagocytosis by macrophages

*This depletes autoreactive B cells which contribute to immune-mediated damage to myelin as well as playing a role in activation of autoreactive T-cells.

Primary progressive MS

23
Q

MOA of oxybutynin in neurogenic bladder and possible side effects

A

Non-selective Muscarinic antagonist

*Binds to M3 receptors of the detrusor muscle in the bladder
*This prevents Ach - mediated contraction of the detrusor thereby preventing unwanted miturition/feelings of urgency.
*Also increases bladder capacity by relaxing the detrusor which allows for better filling.

Side effects of a non-selective muscarinic antagonist:
(i) Tachycardia - M2 (reduces vagal tone)
(ii) Dry mouth - M3 (salivary glands)
(iii) Increased body temp- M3 (sweat glands)
(iv) Blurred vision - M3 (ciliary muscle cant accommodate lens)
(v) Pupil dilation - M3 (cant constrict sphincter pupillae of iris)

24
Q

outline normal control of micturition

A

Filling phase
-Pontine storage centre increases sympathetic activity and decreases parasympathetic innervation to the bladder.
-Achieved through relaxation of detrusor muscle and contraction of the internal urethral sphincter via sympathetic innervation.
-These fibres arise from lateral horns of grey matter T12-L2, synapsing on hypogastric ganglion and traveling to bladder via hypogastric nerves, releasing norepinephrine onto:
(i) B3 receptors detrusor muscle -> relaxation
(ii) Alpha 1 internal urethral sphincer -> contraction

-Conscious control to not empty bladder is achieved via somatic innervation of external urethral sphincter by pudendal nerves (S2,3,4) which release Ach onto nicotinic receptors of EUS -> contraction

Emptying phase
-Stretch relayed to the CNS via afferent neurons stimulates the pontine micturition centre- inhibits sympathetic, somatic and increases parasympathetic tone at the bladder.
-Achieved through contraction of the detrusor muscle and relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter via parasympathetic innervation
-PSNS neurons arise from lateral horn grey matter S2-4 traveling via pelvic splanchnic nerves
-Release ACH onto M3 receptors of detrusor –> contraction

-Reduced somatic innervation allows for relaxation of EUS

Afferents
-Feelings of bladder distention and stretch are relayed to the spinal cord from stretch receptors
-These can elicit a simple spinal reflex to prevent unwanted micturition
-Also travels to the pontine micturition centre which co-ordinates the bladder control by appropriately acting on all 3 efferents: sympathetic, parasympathetic, somatic to either prevent bladder emptying or cause micturition

25
Q

Outline 3 reasons why MS does not affect the PNS

A

(1) The autoimmune response is mounted against myelin proteins specific to and more abundant in the CNS compared to PNS, particularly myelin basic protein. Other CNS myelin proteins include Proteolipid proteins myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein and cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase.

(2) The immune system attacks oligodendrocytes, the cells responsible for producing myelin in the CNS. In contrast, the PNS has Schwann cells, which are more resistant to the autoimmune attack in MS.

(3) One oligodendrocyte myelinates multiple axons which makes the CNS particularly susceptible to the effects of demyelination. In contrast, one schwann cell myelinates one internodal segment.

(4) Reduced oligodendrocyte precursors caused by the autoimmune response further precipitates the pathogenesis of MS in the CNS

26
Q

Outline the 3 signals in T cell activation by APC

A

Signal 1

The T cell receptor (TCR) binds to the antigen-MHC complex on the APC, with stabilization by either CD4 (MHC-II) or CD8 (MHC-I).

Signal 2

CD28 (on T cell) binds to CD80/86 (on APC) to provide the co-stimulatory signal -> T cell activation.

CTLA-4 (not involved in activation) functions later to regulate and dampen the immune response.

Signal 3

Cytokines released by the APC promote the differentiation of the activated T cell into specific functional subsets based on the immune context.

27
Q

Describe the pupillary light reflex

A

Afferent limb
- Axons from the retinal ganglion cells travel to the ipsilateral pretectal nucleus of the midbrain via CN II, synapsing on the ipsilateral pretectal nuclei.
- Axons from Pre-tectal nuclei project to both the ipsilateral and contralateral Edinger westphal nucleus.

Efferent limb
-Edinger westphal neurons are preganglionic parasympathetic neurons that travel back to the eye within CN III synapsing on ciliary ganglion.
-Post synaptic parasympathetic neurons then synapse on the sphincter pupillae to cause pupil constriction

Because there is both ipsilateral and contralateral stimulation of the edinger westphal nuclei by the pre-tectal nuclei means there is a consensual reflex

28
Q

List 4 features that differ between UMN and LMN lesions

A
  1. Muscle tone:
    Upper motor neuron lesion: Increased muscle tone (spasticity).
    Lower motor neuron lesion: Decreased muscle tone (flaccidity).
  2. Reflexes:
    Upper motor neuron lesion: Hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflexes).
    Lower motor neuron lesion: Hyporeflexia or areflexia (reduced or absent reflexes).
  3. Atrophy:
    Upper motor neuron lesion: Minimal muscle atrophy.
    Lower motor neuron lesion: Severe muscle atrophy.
  4. Fasciculations:
    Upper motor neuron lesion: Absent fasciculations.
    Lower motor neuron lesion: Present fasciculations (twitching of muscles).
  5. Babinksi
29
Q

Define ataxia and give 2 causes of ataxia

A

Ataxia is a neurological syndrome characterised by clumsy and unco-ordinated movement of the limbs, trunk, and cranial muscles.

Causes:
Cerebellar lesions –> cerebellar ataxia
Demyelination within the ascending sensory tracts –> sensory ataxia

30
Q

Define nystagmus and list 4 causes

A

Rapid involuntary movements of the eyes characterized by a slow drift of the eyes in one direction with a fast correction in the opposite direction

Causes

  1. Vertigo (benign paraoxysmal positional)
  2. Multiple sclerosis
  3. Cerebellar tumour
  4. Internuclear opthalamoplegia
  5. Myasthenia gravis
  6. Alcohol or drug intoxicatoin
  7. Wernicke’s encephalopathy
31
Q

Define hydrocephalus and list the 2 types

A

Hydrocephalus is the abnormal enlargement of the cerebral ventricles as a results of hypersecretion or hypo-absorption of CSF.

(1) Communicating hydrocephalus
-caused by overproduction or under absorption without obstruction in flow.

(2) Non-communicating
- Obstructed passage of CSF as it passes between ventricles or into the subarachnoid space/ venous system.

32
Q

Causes of hydrocephalus

A

Non-communicating

(i) Arnold chiari malformation - herniation of cerebellar tonsils through foramen magnum.

(ii) Dandy-walker malformation - failure of 4th ventricle to develop properly.

(iii) TORCH - congenital taxoplasmosis

(iv) Congenital stenosis of cerebral aqueduct of sylvius.

(v) Acquired HC - brain tumour - medullablastoma

Communicating

(i) Reduced CSF absorption
–> Obliteration of arachnoid granulations due to meningitis or inflammatory response following stroke

(ii) Increased production
–> Choroid plexus carcinoma or papilloma

33
Q

Name two differences between a normal CSF sample compared to one from a person with MS

A
  1. Oligoclonal bands/ IgG found it MS, not in normal CSF
  2. Total protein elevated in MS while normal will be 0.2-0.4 g/litre
  3. elevated mononuclear cells in MS, normal will be <5/mm3
34
Q

List 4 motor symptoms seen in MS

A

(1) Hypertonia
(2) Hyper-reflexia
(3) Dysarthria
(4) Muscle weakness
(5) Positive babinski
(6) Ataxia
(7) hypotonia if cerebellar