Arnold hayes epilepsy, head injury, alcoholism Flashcards

1
Q

MOA of benzodiazepines in seizure control

A

Diazepam, Lorazepam, Midazolam

MOA
-Benzodiazepines enhance the activity of GABA to cause opening of neuronal chloride channels causing hyperpolarisation of the post-synaptic neuron—> reduces its excitability, preventing excessive depolarizations and seizure generation.
-It does so by binding to its site on the GABA-A receptor between the alpha-1 and gamma-2 subunit.
- Benzo’s only work in the presence of GABA

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2
Q

What is the name of the benzo antagonist that can be given to reverse the effects of benzo?

A

Flumazenil

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3
Q

Describe the synthesis and degradation of GABA

A

Synthesis:
-Glutamic acid is converted to GABA by glutamic acid decarbozylase + VIT B6 (cofactor)
-Following synthesis it is stored in vesicles by vesicular inhibitory amino acid transporters (VIAATs)

Degradation:
-GABA is reuptaken from the synaptic cleft into GABAergic neurons or nearby glial cells via GABA transporter GAT.
-It can be restored for use or degraded by GABA transaminase to succinate-semi-aldehyde

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4
Q

What effect would the addition of Vigabatrin or Tiagabine have to a treatment regimen for epilepsy

A

Vigabatrin inhibits the degradation of GABA by GABA transmaminase.

Tiagabine reduces reuptake of GABA by GAT-1 thereby increasing into post-synaptic effects

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5
Q

MOA of sodium valproate and 2 drug interactions

A

(1) Efects on GABA
- Increases its synthesis
-reduces its degradation by GABA-T
- Increases its release.

(2)Other effects
-Use dependant blockade on VG sodium channels
-Blockade of T-type calcium channels (involved in absence seizures)

Drug interactions
-Lamotrigine levels increase in the presence of sodium valproate due to SV’s inhibition of Glucoronidation enzymes
-Carbapenams reduce sodium valproate levels

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6
Q

MOA of barbiturates in epilepsy control

A

(1) Phenobarbital binds to the GABA-A receptor and directly activates it causing chloride influx and neuronal hyperpolarisation. It also enhances the effects of GABA. It can work independantly of GABA unlike benzos

(2) Primidone has 3 active moieties that work the same as phenobarbital-> Primidone, phenobarbital and phenylethylmalonamide.

STRONG INDUCERS OF CYP450

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7
Q

Carbamazepine MOA - what effect has it on COCP?

A

Preferentially inhibits VG sodium channels in their inactive state thereby preventing them from causing repetitive, successive depolarisations and glutamate release from neurons.

Effect on COCP
- Reduces the contraceptive effects of the COCP by increasing its metabolism (induces CYP450 enzymes). Its affects can last for 4 weeks after cessation of carbamezepine.

ADRS
-Dilutional hyponatremia through enchanced ADH activity.
-double vision
-Drowsiness
-Teratogenic
-Skin rash

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8
Q

Lamotrigine MOA and 2 interactions

A

MOA: Use dependant inhibition of VG sodium channels (i.e. those which are most active) —> prevents repeated depolarisations. Can also inhibit VG N-type and P/Q-type calcium channels, thereby inhibiting synaptic vesicle exocytosis of glutamate.

Interactions
- Sodium valproate: Lamotrigine levels rise in presence of SV due to inhibition of Glucoronidation enzymes.
-COCP causes reduced Lamotrigine levels by increasing its metabolism via glucoronidation.

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9
Q

Why is it important to monitor plasma levels of pheytoin?

A

Phenytoin is a use-dependant inhibitor of VG sodium channels.

It is important to monitor its plasma concentrations for 2 reasons
1. it has a narrow therapeutic index meaning dosing must be stringtly monitored to avoid toxicity.
2. At therapeutic levels its elimination moves from first order to zero order elimination. This is because the first order enzymes are saturated at therapeutic doses and so zero order (concentration INdependant) elimination takes over. For this reason, a small change in dose can cause a greatly increase the drug plasma levels —> toxicity

Signs of toxicity:
-Nystagmus
-double vision
-Ataxia
-Confusion
-Hyperglycemia
-CVS and respiratory collapse
-Arrythmias

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10
Q

What are the 3 stages of alcoholic liver disease

A
  1. Alcoholic Fatty liver (steatosis) - reversible
  2. Alcoholic hepatitis - reversible
  3. Cirrhosis - irreversible
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11
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of alcoholic fatty liver disease (steatosis)

A

(1) Decreased NAD+/NADH Ratio:
Alcohol metabolism by alcohol dehydrogenase produces excess NADH and depletes NAD+, shifting liver metabolism towards fat synthesis (lipogenesis) and inhibiting fatty acid oxidation. This promotes fat accumulation within hepatocytes.

(2) Hepatocyte Toxicity:
Alcohol and its metabolite, acetaldehyde, are toxic to liver cells, leading to oxidative stress and inflammation. This damage impairs the liver’s ability to metabolize and export lipids efficiently
.
(3) Impaired Apoprotein Production:
Alcohol disrupts the production of apoproteins necessary for forming very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL), which transport triglycerides out of the liver. As a result, triglycerides build up within the liver.

Overall Result: Increased fat synthesis, reduced fat breakdown, and impaired fat export cause fat accumulation in hepatocytes, leading to steatosis.

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12
Q

Name 3 types of liver cirrhosis, which type is mostly associated with alcoholism?

A

Micronodular
Macronodular
Mixed

Micronodular cirrhosis = alcohol

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13
Q

List 5 pathological features of alcoholic hepatitis

A

(1) Necrosis of hepatocytes
(2) Ballooning of cells
(3) Mallory bodies - eosinophilic inclusions
(4) Collagen deposition (in space of disse)
(5) steatosis

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14
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of liver cirrhosis

A

-(1) Stellate Cell Activation and Collagen Deposition:
-In response to liver injury and inflammatory cytokines, hepatic stellate cells become activated, transforming into myofibroblast-like cells that produce and deposit collagen and other extracellular matrix components in the space of Disse.
-This matrix buildup leads to architectural distortion of the liver and disrupts normal sinusoidal blood flow, contributing to vascular resistance, ischemia, and further hepatocyte injury.

(2) Kupffer Cell Involvement:
-Kupffer cells (resident liver macrophages) play a central role by releasing cytokines, such as TGF-beta and TNF-alpha, that activate stellate cells and drive extracellular matrix deposition, perpetuating the cycle of fibrosis.

(3)Hepatocyte Injury and Fibrogenic Signaling:
-Injured hepatocytes release reactive oxygen species (ROS), fibrogenic mediators, and apoptotic signals, all of which stimulate stellate cell activation.

Key cytokines and growth factors involved in this process include platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF), transforming growth factor-beta (TGF-beta), and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha), which collectively enhance the fibrogenic response.

Progression to Cirrhosis:

With repeated injury and chronic inflammation, the cycle of stellate cell activation and collagen deposition leads to irreversible fibrosis and architectural distortion of the liver, ultimately resulting in cirrhosis.

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15
Q

List 4 effects of Thiamine on the CNS

A

(1) Energy metabolism: provides necessary precursors for carbohydrate metabolism, contributing to the production of ATP for normal neuronal function

(2) Supports the production of glutathione, a necessary antioxidant which protects against oxidative stress.

(3) Neurotransmitter synthesis especially Ach

(4) Myelin sheath maintenance and protection

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16
Q

Suggest 2 drugs suitable for a patient with alcohol withdrawals

A

Benzodiazepines- Chlordiazepoxide —> Enchances GABA activity to reduce the risk of seizures, agitation, delirium tremens.

Pabrinex- thiamine supplement to prevent progression to Wernickes-korsakoff

17
Q

Why might someone on carbamazepine present with low serum sodium levels and signs of fluid overload?

A

Carbamazepine can result in dilutional hyponatremia. This is because it can increase the release of anti-diuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary. The high levels of ADH act on their V2 receptors in the kidney tubules to increase water reabsorption via Aquaporin-2 channels. This can cause dilutional hyponatremia.

18
Q

Describe the effect of chronic alcohol use on the CNS and how this is affected in withdrawal (i.e. delirium tremens)

A

Chronic alcohol use forces the brain to adapt to alcohols CNS depressing affects by:

Downregulating GABA receptors (reducing inhibitory signaling).
Upregulating NMDA (glutamate) receptors (enhancing excitatory signaling).

These changes create a new baseline of neurochemical activity dependent on alcohol to maintain equilibrium.

When alcohol is abruptly discontinued, the brain is left with:

Suppressed GABAergic activity due to desensitized GABA receptors.
Unopposed hyperactive glutaminergic transmission from upregulated NMDA receptors.
This results in a profound imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory signals in the CNS, leading to widespread dysregulation. The resulting hyperexcitation manifests as severe CNS and autonomic instability.

Additionally,** excessive catecholamine release ** exacerbates autonomic dysregulation, contributing to complications such as cardiovascular instability (e.g., hypertension, tachycardia, and arrhythmias).

This constellation of effects defines delirium tremens, which typically manifests as:

Acute confusion and delirium
Agitation and tremors
Delusions and hallucinations (commonly visual or tactile)
Hypertension and tachycardia
Arrhythmias
Seizures

DT generally manifests 24-72 hours after cessation of alcohol

19
Q

Describe the sequence of events within the CNS that leads to seizure generation

A

(1) Depolarisation
- Depolarizing currents carried by rapid inward flow of sodium and calcium ions through voltage gates ion channels brings the neuronal membrane potential rapidly towards threshold (-55mv)

(2) Paroxysmal depolarising shifts
-These are sustained depolarizations that occur during seizures causing repetitive firing of action potentials and persistent elevation in membrane potential.
-Altered ion function may result in:

(i) Excessive NMDA receptor activity

(ii) Increased sodium conductance

(iii) Failure of K+ efflux preventing repolarisation.

(iv)Failure of inhibitory mechanisms: Reduced GABAergic activity, which is normally inhibitory, results in a reduced hyperpolarization of the excitatory neurons further exacerbating the over-excitation in the CNS

20
Q

EEG findings for focal seizure

A

(1) Repetitive spikes/sharp waves often seen in clusters, usually localised in the temporal lobe

(2) Slow waves (4-6Hz) may also been seen at the region of seizure generation.

21
Q

EEG findings generalised tonic-clonic seizure

A

(1) Generalized spike-and-wave or polyspike discharges appearing synchronously across both cerebral hemispheres, characteristic of generalized seizures. Associated with ictal phase.

(2) Slow waves following spikes may occur, but in generalized tonic-clonic seizures, they are typically irregular and slower than 3 Hz, especially in the postictal phase

22
Q

EEG findings in absence seizure

A

(1) Generalized 3-Hz spike-and-wave complexes lasting 10–30 seconds.

(2) Abrupt onset and termination of discharges.

23
Q

Define status epilepticus

A

Convulsive SE: Tonic-clonic seizure that lasts > 5 minutes

24
Q

List 4 complications of seizure

A

(1) Posterior dislocation of glenohumeral joint

(2) Hypoxemia and hypercapnia -> respiratory arrest

(3) Arrythmias, tachycardia, hypertension -> cardiovascular collapse

(4) Hyperthermia due to increased muscle activity

(5) Excitatory toxicity to neurons may increase risk of further seizures

25
Q

Define Seizure

A

A seizure is a sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in the brain caused by abnormal, hypersynchronous excitatory discharges which overwhelm the brains usual control mechanisms. This can cause changes in motor function, behaviour, sensations and consciousness.

26
Q

Define epilepsy

A

Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterised by a tendency for recurrent, unprovoked seizures caused by abnormal electrical brain activity.

27
Q

Outline the criteria needed to make a diagnosis of epilepsy

A

(1) At least 2 unprovoked seizures, of any type, occuring more than 24 hours apart

OR

(2) One unprovoked seizure with a high risk of recurrence due to underlying structural brain abnormality or genetic predisposition.

28
Q

List 4 risk factors for sudden unexpected death in epilepsy

A

(1) Uncontrolled tonic-clonic seizures with frequent recurrence

(2) History of nocturnal seizures

(3) Poor adherence to medications

(4) Alcohol intake

(5) Lack of night time supervision

29
Q

name 4 criteria for diagnosis of seizure

A
  1. Sudden onset of clinical signs or symptoms.
  2. Evidence of abnormal, excessive, or
    synchronous neuronal activity on EEG.
  3. Symptoms such as involuntary movements,
    sensory changes, or loss of awareness.
  4. The event is self-limiting, typically lasting
    seconds to minutes.
30
Q

List 4 common underlying causes of epilepsy

A

(1) Structural brain abnormalities
->cortical dysplasia
->Arteriovenous malformation
->Gliosis following stroke

(2) Genetic predisposition
-> Mutations in genes coding for ion channels leading to “channelopathies”

(3) Chromosomal abnormalities
-> Downsyndrome (trisomy 21)
-> Kleinfelters (47 XXY)

(4) Epileptogenic tumours
–> Gangliogliomas which are usually benign and do not require surgical intervention

31
Q

State 2 investigations to inform investigation for unprovoked seizure

A
  1. Electroencephalography (EEG):

Rationale: EEG helps detect abnormal electrical activity in the brain, such as epileptiform discharges, which can indicate a predisposition to seizures. It is critical in identifying whether the seizures have a focal (e.g., temporal lobe) or generalized onset, which aids in determining the type of epilepsy and guiding treatment decisions.

  1. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI):

Rationale: MRI is used to evaluate structural abnormalities in the brain, such as cortical dysplasia, tumors, scarring, or vascular malformations, that could serve as the underlying cause of seizures. Identifying these abnormalities can direct further management, including surgical options for refractory epilepsy.

32
Q

Why are benzodiazepines not used for long-term seizure control

A
  1. Build up of tolerance
  2. Dependance and withdrawal risk
  3. Long-term effects such as depression, impaired cognition, sedation
  4. Better alternatives
33
Q

List 4 considerations to take when prescribing anticonvulsants

A
  1. Seizure type
    –> Focal: Lamotrigine or Levatiracetam
    –> Tonic-clonic: Sodium valproate
    –> Absence: Ethosuximab
  2. Drug-drug interactions e.g. COCP (carbamazepine or lamotrigine), Carbapenams (reduces sodium valproate levels)
  3. Patient demographics e.g. woman of childbearing age/ pregnant women (use lamotrigine and not carbamazepine)
34
Q

Describe 2 causes of metabolic acidosis

A

(1) Ketoacidosis secondary to hypoglycaemia or excessive alcohol intake. The body turns to fatty acid break down for energy which results in production of ketones which circulate in the blood release H+ ions.

(2) Chronic kidney disease resulting in impaired bicarbonate production/reabsorption and reduced H+ excretion

35
Q

Explain autoregulation of cerebral blood flow, with reference to the factors that activate an autoregulation response.

A

-Autoregulation of cerebral blood flow aims to maintain a constant cerebral perfusion pressure/blood flow to brain despite fluctuations in mean arterial pressures.

-It is capable of doing so between MAP’s of 60-150mmHg, mediated through varying degrees of vasoconstriction to vasodilation.

-A drop is MAP triggers a vasodilation response of cerebral vasculature to facilitate increased blood flow to brain and prevent hypoxia

-An increase in MAP triggers a vasoconstrictive response to prevent hyperperfusion and a potential hemorrhage.

-Other factors that trigger autoregulation are (i) Increased CO2/decreased pH (causes vasodilation), (ii) Increased metabolic demand (causing vasodilation particularly in regions with high metabolic activity) (iii) Low O2 (causes vasodilation but usually only when Pao2 drops below 50mmHg) (iv) Temperature (drop in temperature causes a reduction in metabolic activity causing vasoconstriction).

36
Q

Clinical signs of uncal herniation

A

(i) Ipsilateral CN III compression –> Fixed dilated pupil

(ii) Ipsilateral cerebral peduncle –> contralateral hemiplegia

(iii) Ipsilateral Posterior cerebral artery –> homonymous hemianopia

(iv) Brain stem compression –> Resp and CVS compression –> coma and death

37
Q

List 5 criteria for CT after a head injury

A

(1) GSC < 13 on initial assessment
(2) GCS < 15 2 hours after accident
(3) Seizures
(4) Base of skull, open or depressed #
(5) On anticoagulants
(6) > 1 episode of vomiting
(7) Focal neurological deficit

38
Q

What is a normal intracranial pressure for an adult

What is the normal cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

ICP: 7-15 mmHg in supine, at rest.

CPP: 60-80mmHg

39
Q

Name 4 factors that should be considered when prescribing anti-convulsants in pregnancy

A

(1) Drug safety: Lamotrigine and levetiracetam are safe, carbamazepine and sodium valproate are teratogenic

(2) Dose: use lowest dose possible

(3) Side effects: drowsiness/dizziness could cause falls

(4) Drug interactions and monitoring - any medications during pregnancy, regular monitoring of drug levels.