Angela robinson PE Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the mechanisms by which the body prevents inappropriate thrombus formation

A

This is achieved through various mechanisms carried out by the endothelium of vessels

(1) Anti-platelet effects
-Prostacyclin (PGI2) release prevents platelet activation and aggregation
-Nitric oxide release causes vasodilation and prevents platelet adhesion
-Adenosine diphsophatase production breaks down ADP which is used by platelets to bind to a growing platelet plug via P2Y12 receptors.

(2) Anti-coagulant effects
(i) - Thrombomodulin receptor expressed by endothelial cells can bind to thrombin and prevent it from activating platelets, fibrinogen (to fibrin) and clotting factors V, VIII and IX
-Instead, Protein C is cleaved and activated which, along with protein S, can degrade clotting factors Va and VIIIa.

(ii) Heparin like molecules on the surface of endothelial cells can bind to and activate anti-thrombin III which can then inactivate factors 9a->12a.

(iii) laminar flow dilutes clotting factors by maintaining normal flow

(3) Fibrinolytic effects
- Endothelial cells can synthesise tissue-plasminogen activator (t-PA) which can then activate thrombin-bound plasminogen to plasmin to initiate fibrinolysis and clot dissolution.

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2
Q

Describe how endothelial dysfunction/injury promotes thrombosis

A

Endothelial damage/dysfunction can result in a shift towards a prothrombotic state which facilitates thrombus formation.

  • Direct endothelial injury can expose underlying subendothelial collagen which allows for the binding of vWF and subsequently platelets
  • Inflammatory responses due to cytokine release or bacterial endotoxins result in the production of Tissue Factor by endothelial cells -> activates extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
  • Downregulation of thrombomodulin results in sustained thrombin activity -> clotting factor and platelet activation.
  • Downregulation of endogenous anticoagulant production; protein C and S.
  • Reduced fibrinolytic effects due to secretion of plasminogen-activator-inhibitor (PAIs) which downregulate tPA + fibrinolysis -> favours thrombus formation.
  • Reduced production of prostacyclin + nitric oxide release
  • Increased adhesion molecules, and endothelin
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3
Q

4 contraindications to thrombolysis

A
  1. Active bleeding
  2. Recent sx/trauma/head injury in last 3 weeks
  3. hx of intracranial haemorrhage
  4. Ischemic stroke in last 6 months
  5. GI bleed in last month
  6. CNS neoplasm
  7. Severe uncontrolled HTN
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4
Q

name the 3 antibodies associated with anti-phospholipid syndrome

what is it associated with?

A
  1. Anti-cardiolipin antibody
  2. Lupus anticoagulant
  3. Anti-beta 2 glycoprotein antibody

Associated with:
-Recurrent venous and arterial thrombosis
-Recurrent fetal loss- particularly >3 consecutive fetal losses before 3 weeks.

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5
Q

list 5 indications that may prompt a hypercoagulable work up on a patient

What tests are available to run>

A

Indications

  1. Unprovoked DVT or PE
  2. Stroke/MI if young <40 years
  3. Thrombosis at an unsual site e.g. hepatic or portal veins.
  4. Recurrent or late miscarriages
  5. Warfarin induced skin necrosis.
  6. family hx of thrombophilia

Tests to run

  1. Antithrombin level
  2. Protein C and S levels
  3. Factor V leiden gene mutation
  4. Prothrombin gene mutation
  5. Antiphospholipid antibodies
  6. Cancer screen
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6
Q

Why might you choose a direct thrombin inhibitor over a direct Xa inhibitor or vice versa as an anticoagulant?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors e.g. Dabigatron
-may be preferred in cases of heparin induced thrombocytopenia as they do not interact with platelets.
-There is a reversal agent/antidote for anticoagulant reversal in emergencies: idarucizumab.

Direct Xa inhibitors: Apixiban, rivaroxiban, edoxaban.
-Have lower bleeding risk
-more predictable pharmacokinetically allowing for more fixed dosing.

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7
Q

list 4 ADRs of heparin

A
  1. Haemorrhage
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Thrombosis
  4. Thrombocytopenia
  5. Hypoaldosteronism -> hyperkalemia
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8
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of heparin induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis

A

HIT
- Heparin binds to platelet activator 4 (a platelet derived chemokine), forming a complex.
-This complex can then be targeted and bound by antibodies IgG or IgM
-The heparin-PA4-antibody complex can then bind to circulating platelets -> thrombocytopenia.

thrombosis
-Heparin can target PA4 associated with the endothelial cells of vessel walls leading to endothelial injury and thrombus formation.

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9
Q

what drug reverses the effects of heparin?

A

Protamine sulphate - binds to and inactivates heparin

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10
Q

When is warfarin most teratogenic?
How does it cause bone deformities?

A

6-12 weeks.

Causes bone deformities by inhibiting normal function of the vitamin-k dependent protein osteocalcin. This results in impaired cartilage and bone development. Most notably nasal bridge hypoplasia, absent nasal septum, microcephaly.

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11
Q

Name 4 drugs that increase and decrease warfarins anticoagulant effects

A

Increase warfarin effects
CYP450 inhibitors
-“Azole” antifungals e.g. Fluconazole
-Macrolides
-Quinolones e.g. ciprofloxacin
-Amiodarone (Anti-arrythmic)

Decrease warfarin effects
CYP450 inducers
-Phenytoin
-Phenobarbitol
-Carbemezepine
-Rifampicin

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12
Q

Describe the Extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade

A
  • The extrinsic pathway is activated following direct endothelial injury (i.e. skin tissue).
  • Tissue factor is exposed to the blood stream as a result of endothelial injury.
  • Tissue factor becomes bound by calcium (factor IV), its cofactor.
  • Factor VII is activated when bound to this complex –> VIIa
  • The TF-VIIa-calcium-membrane phospholipid complex can then activate factor X –> Xa which can then enter to common pathway –> prothrombinase complex activates prothrombin to thrombin –>cleaves fibrinogen to fibrin.
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13
Q

Describe the Intrinsic pathway of coagulation

A
  • The intrinsic pathway can be activated by surface contact, when damage to the vascular endothelium leads to exposure of clotting factors to negatively charged subendothelial surfaces, mediated by the molecule Kallikrein.
  • Factor XII is exposed to collagen, kallikrein and kininogen and is activated -> XIIa
  • XIIa activates factor XI -> XIa
  • XIa + Calcium then activate factor IX -> IXa
  • Complex: IXa-calcium-VIIIa -membrane phospholipid activates X -> Xa
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14
Q

Describe the common pathway of coagulation

A
  • Factor Xa combines with calcium, Va + membrane phospholipids to form the prothrombinase complex.
  • Prothrombinase complex cleaves prothrombin to form thrombin.
  • Thrombin then:
    o Cleaves fibrinogen to form fibrin -> fibrin deposits in clot
    o Cleaves stabilizing factor XIII -> XIIIa
  • XIIIa + Ca2+ can then act to cross-link fibrin strands -> stable fibrin clot formed.
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15
Q

Describe the process of primary hemostasis (platelet plug)

A
  • Damage to endothelium results in transient vasoconstriction due to endothelin release and neural reflexes.
  • von-willebrand factor, found in alpha granules of platelets and weibel palade bodies of endothelial cells, binds to exposed collagen at site of injury.
  • Platelets then use vWF as anchorage, binding to it via GPLB receptors.
  • Activated platelets release TXA2, serotonin, vWF, ADP and Ca2+ to enchance activity of other platelets.
  • More platelets bind to ADP using P2Y12 receptors which stimulates expression of GIIb/IIIa on platelets surface. Fibriogen can then bind to these glycoproteins and become activated to fibrin via Thrombin.
  • Fibrin can then cross link the platelets, forming a meshwork which traps platelets and red blood cells thereby forming a fibrous plug/growing thrombus.
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16
Q

List 5 hereditary causes of hypercoagulability and for each indicate how it causes increased clot risk

A
  1. Factor V leiden mutation –> results in resistance to activated protein C.
  2. Protein C deficiency –> normally functions to inactivate factors Va + VIIIa
  3. Protein S deficiency –> enhances the activity of protein S
  4. Antithrombin III deficiency –> normally inactivates factors IXa and Xa.
  5. Prothrombin mutation –> causes elevated prothrombin levels.
17
Q

list the 5 potential fates of an arterial thrombus once formed

A
  1. Lysis and resolution
  2. Propagation (gains more platelets)
  3. Organisation -> engulfed by SMCs, endothelial cell and fibroblasts
  4. Canalisation -> small channels form within to restore blood flow
  5. Embolisation
18
Q

list 4 differential diagnoses for DVT and how each differs in presentation

A
  1. Acute limb ischemia caused by peripheral arterial disease.
    ->cool, pulseless, parasthesia and pale suggests arterial obstruction (not DVT)
  2. Cellulitis
    -> mimics DVT in terms of presentation but will generally have systemic signs of infection + skin breaks where bacteria entered.
  3. Ruptured bakers cyst
    -> localised to popliteal fossa
  4. Compartment syndrome
    -> will have a history of trauma/injury
19
Q

What signs should you look for if you suspect DVT

A

(1) Erythema of lower limb due to pooling of blood
(2) oedema due to extravasation of fluid into interstitial space –> pitting oedema
(3) difference >3cm in leg circumference measured 10cm below tibial tuberosity
(4) Distended peripheral veins suggesting engorgement of collateral circulation to try bypass the clot
(5) Varicose veins suggest venous insufficiency

20
Q

list 5 consequences of an untreated DVT

A

(1) Pulmonary embolism (saddle)
(2) Pulmonary hypertension caused by recurrent small emboli
(3) Venous gangrene or limb loss
(4) Destruction of venous valves –> valvular insufficiency/ venous obliteration
(5) Pain, swelling, ulceration

21
Q

define embolus

A

An embolus is any undissolved material that originates from one part of the body, travels in the blood and impacts the cardiovascular system distal to its point of origin - fat, air, septic, thromboembolus.

22
Q

What is the normal pressure in the pulmonary artery? At what pressure will the RV fail?

A

11-20mmHg with a mean of 15mmHg at rest

Right ventricular failure occurs if PA pressure >40mmHg

23
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pleuritic chest pain

A

Inflammation, ischemia, trauma activates nociceptors of the parietal pleura.

The costal pleura is innervated by the intercostal nerves (T1-T11)
The diaphragmatic and mediastinal pleura is innervated by the phrenic nerve (C3,4,5)

Pain relayed via A-delta fibres to the spinothalamic tract

24
Q

List 4 heart sound changes in PE

A

(1) Loud P2 (pulmonic component of S2)
-This is due to increased pressure in the pulmonary artery causes pulmonary valves to snap shut forcefully

(2) Split S2
-Pulmonary valves close after the aortic valve due to increased right ventricular ejection time.

(3) Tricuspid regurgitation
-RV dilation causes valve dysfunction
-Holosystolic murmur heard best in lower left sternal edge which may become louder on inspiration.

(4) S3 or S4 gallop on RHS
-Due to abnormal RV filling pressures
- S3 RHS may indicate RV failure/dilation
- S4 RHS may indicate RV hypertrophy/stiffness

25
Q

List 4 ECG changes in PE

A

(1) Sinus tachycardia- most common

(2) Right ventricular strain patter: T wave inversion in anterior leads (V1-V4) +/- inferior leads (II, III, AVF)

(3) Right axis deviation: Neg deflection lead I, Pos deflection leads II, III, AVF

(4) S1Q3T3: Large S wave lead 1, Q wave lead 3, inverted T wave lead 3.

26
Q

What is D-Dimer and how is it formed

A

D-dimer is a fibrin degradation product that is released into the blood following fibrinolysis of a clot.

When plasminogen breaks down cross linked fibrin strands, fibrin degradation products are released into the blood.

D-dimer consists of 2x D fragments which remain bound by a cross-link.

High levels indicate high levels of fibrinolysis to combat an ongoing clot formation.

27
Q

list 4 other conditions/causes of a raised D-dimer other than DVT/PE

A
  1. Malignancy
  2. Liver disease
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  5. Recent trauma/surgery
  6. Severe infection or inflammatory disease
28
Q

Explain why anti-platelets are not use in the treatment of DVT?

A

Anti-platelets are not suitable for the treatment of DVT’s because venous thromboses are primarily composed of fibrin meshwork, surrounding red blood cells. This is because thrombus formation in veins typically form through the activation of coagulation factors as opposed to platelets, which play much less of a role than they do in arterial thrombosis.

Anti-platelets work to prevent platelet aggregation, adhesion and activation and do not interfere with the coagulation cascade so would be ineffective.