Mary Waters Flashcards

1
Q

Define “accommodation”

A

Accommodation refers t the eyes ability to change its focus from distant to near objects by adjusting the shape of the lens in order to maintain light convergence on the fovea. This process is primarily controlled by the ciliary muscles of the lens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outline the pathway of accommodation

A

Afferent pathway
-Light from nearby object is detected by the retina and processed via phototransduction.
-Signal passes through optic nerve to lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus and then through optic radiations to visual cortex in occipital lobe.

Efferent pathway
Signals from visual cortex are sent to superior colliculus and pre-tectal midbrain bringing about 3 main responses:

(i) Convergence: Pre-tectal area stimulates occulomotor nuclei –> oculomotor nerves stimulates contraction of left and right medial recti muscles to medially rotate eye.

(ii) Pupillary constriction: Direct stimulation of bilateral Edinger westphal nuclei from cortical neurons –> Parasympathetic fibres arise from the edinger westphal nucleus and travel within CNIII, synapse on the ciliary ganglion –> post ganglionic parasympathetic fibres then synapse on sphincter pupillae to constrict the pupil.

(iii) Lens accomodation: Parasympathetic fibres from E/W also stimulate the ciliary muscles to contract (M3 receptor) –> reduces tension on the zonular fibres of the lens which allow the lens to relax and become more convex which increases its refractive power.

Accomodation reflex is different from pupillary reflex in that in accommodation reflex there is direct stimulation of EW nuclei by cortical neurons, while in pupillary reflex it is the pretectal nuclei that stimulate EW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the production of aqueous humor

A

Aqueous humor is produced through the transport of ions across two main epithelial layers of the ciliary body: the pigmented epithelium (PE) and the non-pigmented epithelium (NPE). These two cell layers are arranged with the pigmented epithelium (PE) facing the ciliary stroma, while the non-pigmented epithelium (NPE) faces the posterior chamber.

Plasma components from nearby capillaries enter the ciliary stroma via ultrafiltration.

On the basolateral membrane of the PE cells, the Na+/K+/2Cl⁻ co-transporter moves Na⁺, K⁺, and Cl⁻ into the cell. This transporter utilizes the sodium gradient established by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump on the basolateral side of the PE. The Na+/K+ ATPase pump actively pumps sodium (Na⁺) out of the cell, creating a low intracellular sodium concentration, which drives the co-transporter.

Once inside the PE cells, the ions (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻) move toward the NPE layer. Sodium ions (Na⁺) are actively transported into the posterior chamber through the Na+/K+ ATPase pump on the basolateral surface of the NPE.

Chloride (Cl⁻) moves across the NPE membrane and follows its electrochemical gradient. This may occur through chloride channels on the basolateral side of the NPE cells.

Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) is produced by carbonic anhydrase in the NPE. Bicarbonate can be exchanged for chloride ions through an HCO₃⁻/Cl⁻ antiporter, which helps to increase the osmotic pressure in the posterior chamber.

The overall effect of this ion transport is the creation of an osmotic gradient that draws water into the posterior chamber, resulting in the formation of aqueous humor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the normal intraocular pressure?

A

10-20 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the 4 main determinants of intraocular pressure

A
  1. Rate of aqueous humor production (increased by B2 activation, decreased by alpha 2 activation)
  2. Rate of aqueous humor drainage–>Outflow resistance/ Episcleral venous pressure
  3. Aqueous humor volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

name 1 drug that increased aqueous humor production, and 1 that decreases its production

A

Beta 2 agonists increase production
-Epinephrine

Alpha 2 agonists decrease production
-Brimonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe 2 drugs that can dilate pupils (Mydriatics)

A

Pupil dilation achieved through either:

(i) Activation of SNS -> Phenylephrine -> alpha 1 receptors of dilator pupillae

(ii) Blockade of PSNS –> Tropicamide, Atropine –> M3 antagonists on sphincter pupillae –> inhibits constriction –> dilation

Atropine is a cycloplegic as well as a myadriatic and so can paralyse the ciliary muscle which can cause loss of accommodation reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Why might pilocarpine be used in the treatment of acute closed angle glaucoma?

A

Pilocarpine is an M3 receptor agonist

It causes contraction of the ciliary muscle and constriction of the pupil

This opens the iridocorneal angle by pulling both muscles towards the equator of the globe and away from the trabecular meshwork -> this allows for better drainage of aqueous humor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of Prostaglandin analogues in the treatment of open angle glaucoma

A

Latanoprost, Bimatoprost

Reduce resistance to outflow

  • Binds to prostaglandin F2-alpha receptors of the ciliary body and trabecular meshwork

-Enhances matrix metalloproteinase activity in trabecular meshwork

-Promotes extracellular matrix remodelling in uveoscleral pathway

-Promotes ciliary muscle relaxion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MOA of Beta blockers in glaucoma

A

Timolol, Betaxolol

Inhibit production of aqueous humor

Beta-blockers block beta receptors (mainly beta-2) in the ciliary body, reducing cAMP production, which in turn decreases the activity of ion transporters (such as Na+/K+/ATPase and Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporters), leading to a reduction in aqueous humor production and lowering intraocular pressure (IOP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MOA of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in glaucoma

A

Dorzolamide, Acetazolomide

Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase prevents the production of bicarbonate ions from Co2 and H20.

Since bicarbonate is a key ion involved in producing an osmotic gradient to drag water into the posterior chamber, by blocking its production it reduces the osmotic drive needed for aqueous humor production thereby reducing IOP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MOA of alpha-2 agonists in glaucoma

A

Brimonidine

Binds to alpha-2 receptors of the ciliary body which causes reduced activity of adenylate cyclase and subsequently a reduction in cAMP. This reduces the activity of ion/ membrane transporters involved in aqueous humor production. This therefore lowers IOP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List 4 classes of drugs used to treat open angle glaucoma

A

(1) Prostaglandin Analogues ( Latanoprost/ Bimatoprost) -> reduces resistance to outflow

(2) Beta blockers (Timolol, Betaxolol) -> Reduces the production of aqueous humour.

(3) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Dorzolomide, Acetazolomide) -> reduces production

(4) Alpha 2 agonists (Brimonidine) -> reduces production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the process of phototransduction

A
  1. Light enters the eye and reaches the retina, where it is absorbed
    by photoreceptor cells (rods and cones).
  2. In rods, light absorption causes conformational change in
    rhodopsin -> 11-cis retinal to all-trans retinal. In cones, similar
    changes occur with different opsins specific to cone types.
  3. This activates a G-protein called transducin.
  4. transducin activates phosphodiesterase (PDE), which catalyzes the
    breakdown of cyclic GMP (cGMP)
  5. Decrease in cGMP levels causes the closure of cGMP-gated ion
    channels (which are permeable to Na⁺ and Ca²⁺) leading to
    hyperpolarization of the photoreceptor membrane.
  6. The hyperpolarization reduces glutamate release from the
    photoreceptor onto bipolar cells. In the dark, glutamate is
    continuously released, but in the light, this release is reduced,
    allowing for the modulation of downstream signaling.
  7. The reduction in glutamate release allows on-centre bipolar cells
    to become activated.
  8. Bipolar cells transmit this information to ganglion cells
    which generate action potentials. along the optic nerve to the
    brain, where the visual information is processed, completing the
    visual processing pathway.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the 2 types of photoreceptor cells in the retina, the layer they are in and what aspect of vision they are responsible for

A

Rods and cones

Located in the outer nuclear layer and extend into outer plexiform layer to make contact with bipolar cells

Rods: located peripherally (none in fovea) - Black, white, grey-responsible for vision in the dark/dim light - low resolution (many rods to 1 bipolar cell)

Cones: Located centrally (in fovea) - colour vision - vision in bright environments- high resolution (1 cone to 1 bipolar cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Minimum visual acuity to legally drive?

A

6/12 with both eyes open

Patient can see at 6 meters what would normally be seen at 12 meters.

17
Q

Define visual acuity

A

Visual acuity is a measurement of clarity or sharpness of central vision at various distances.

18
Q

What is meant by emmetropia?

A

Emmetropia describe 20/20 vision - parallel light rays from distant object are in sharp focus on the retina when the ciliary muscle is relaxed

19
Q

What is meant by astigmatism?

A

Astigmatism occurs when the curvature of the cornea or lens is uneven in two different planes.

This means that light rays passing into the eye in different planes is refracted to different degrees.

This means that each plane of light focuses at different points within the eye, rather than all focusing at one spot.

This causes blurred vision/ reduced visual acuity.

Cylindrical lens.

20
Q

Define presbyopia

A

Presbyopia refers to the age-related decline in near vision caused by a progressive inability of the eye to focus on close objects (accommodation). This occurs due to structural and functional changes in the lens (loss of elasticity) and reduced effectiveness of the ciliary muscles, impairing the accommodation reflex. The result is a shift in the near-point of vision farther from the eye

21
Q

List 4 changes in the eye that occur in presbyopia

A
  1. Loss of lens elasticity and increased stiffness
  2. Thickening and flattening of the lens
  3. Ciliary muscle weakening
  4. Decreased accommodation amplitude

Usually occurs > 40

22
Q

Explain snell’s law and refractive index

A

Snell’s law

Snell’s law describes the relationship between the angle of incidence and the angle of refraction of light as it passes from one medium to another, with the refractive indices of the media determining the degree of bending (refraction) of the light

The largest degree of refraction occurs at the air-corneal interface.

The lens then fine-tunes the refractive angle to better focus the light on the retina.

The degree of refraction is determined by refractive indices of each material and the angle of incidence with which the light ray enters the material.

Refractive index

Refractive index refers to how much light slows down in a material compared to its speed in a vacuum/air- this determines the extent to which light is bent as it passes into a medium.

In corrective lenses, materials with appropriate refractive indices are used to ensure that the lights pathway is altered in such a way that it can be focused on the retina.

23
Q

Fundoscopic findings suggestive of glaucoma

A

1.Optic disc cupping and increased cup to disc ratio
a. Ischemia of retinal vessels caused by increased IOP results in ganglion cell death and retraction of their axons.
b. This results in excavation of the optic disc and increased cup to disc ratio.

2.Optic disc pallor
a. Pallor reflects loss of cellular and axonal components of optic nerve head caused by ischemic damage.
b. RGC’s experience an accumulation of toxic free radicals against which they cant produce antioxidants –> loss of cellular components and cell death.

3.Peripapillary atrophy
a. Caused by atrophy and thinning of the retina and retinal pigment epithelium
b. Local inflammatory reactions to dying retinal ganglion cells further contribute to structural changes of the retina, particularly the portion adjacent to optic disc.

24
Q

What visual field defect is most commonly associated with glaucoma

A

Arcuate scotoma

Arcuate scotoma is an arch-shaped region of visual loss in the superior nasal and temporal visual fields. It extends from the bind spot up and over the macula, towards the nasal septum. This is due to damage to retinal ganglion cells of the inferior nasal and temporal retina.

Bilateral progressive visual loss

25
Q

List 4 diagnostic investigations for glaucoma

A
  1. Goldmann applanation tonometry - IOP
  2. Slit lamp assessment for retina visualisation
  3. Gonioscopy to assess iridocorneal angle
  4. Central corneal thickness assessment
  5. Visual field assessment for peripheral visual field loss.
26
Q

Define visual field and what is the normal degree of visual field horizontally and vertically

A

Visual Field refers to the entire area that can be seen when the eyes are fixed in one position, without moving the head or eyes. It includes both the central vision (focused on the object of interest) and the peripheral vision

horizontal field range of 155 degrees and vertical field range of 135 degrees

27
Q

Explain how perimetry is used to assess visual field

A

Patient looks at a fixation point within the perimeter and keeps eyes and head focused in its direction.

Light stimuli appear in different regions of the visual field and the patient clicks a button each time they see a light.

Pattern of visual field loss is then derived based on this.

28
Q

Key features of acute glaucoma

A

Acute glaucoma is typically an angle-closure glaucoma

(i) Sudden onset
(ii) Unilateral inflamed, red and severely painful eye
(iii) IOP > 30mmHg
(iv) Headaches, nausea and vomiting
(v) Blurred vision and halos around light
(vi) Mid-dilated, unresponsive pupil

29
Q

Define glaucoma

A

Glaucoma is a group of conditions with different causes that results in damage to the optic nerve head, most commonly associated with increased intra-ocular pressure. In its early stages it affects peripheral vision but eventually progresses to loss of visual acuity and blindness. It can be classified into open-angle and closed-angle glaucoma each with primary and secondary causes.

30
Q

List 5 causes of cataract

A
  1. Age related –> nuclear sclerosis due to alterations in lens proteins.
  2. Galactosemia –> autosomal recessive confer deficiency causing impaired metabolism of galactose which then accumulates in the eye
  3. Diabetes –> sorbitol accumulation in the eye via the polyol pathway causes an increased osmotic gradient and oxidative stress –> disrupts structure and causes opacification
  4. Corticosteroids –> disrupts the lens proteins and reduces crystallin synthesis
  5. Smoking –> oxidative stress affects crystallins
  6. Congenital –> TORCH infections (especially rubella)
31
Q

Name 4 changes in the lens that cause age related cataract

A
  1. Nuclear sclerosis –> compaction and stiffening of the central lens material due to continued proliferation of cortical fibres (outer layer)
  2. Alterations in ionic components e.g. ion channel dysfunction can disrupt the ionic balance with the lens causing calcium and sodium accumulation –> protein dysfunction + water influx
  3. Abnormal changes in lens proteins, particauly crystallins reduced the transparency and causes opacification
  4. Pigementation of lens proteins (yellow –> brown)
32
Q

4 causes of unilateral painful red eye

A

(1) Acute angle closure glaucoma
(2) Infectious keratitis
(3) foreign body
(4) Anterior uveitis
(5) Corneal abrasion

33
Q

List 4 common organisms causing conjunctivitis

A

(1) Adenovirus
(2) Staph
(3) Strep pneumonaie
(4) Hemophillus influenzae