Mary Nelligan Flashcards

1
Q

What part(s) of the nephron are mostly responsible for potassium handling?

A

Reabsorption: PCT (65%), Thick Ascending LOH (30%)

Secretion: Principal cells of DCT + Collecting duct/tubules

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2
Q

Explain the mechanism of potassium reabsorption and secretion

A

Reabsorption

(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
- Reabsorption is generally via passive diffusion paracellularly, driven by (i) Solvent drag with water reabsorption (ii) electrochemical gradient between lumen and interstitial fluid which is maintained through the Na+/K+ ATPase pumps on basolateral side.

(2) Thick Asc LOH
- Reabsorption is active transport of potassium via NKCC2 channels on apical side of epithelial cell.
- Some K+ ions will leak back into tubular lumen via ROMK channels in order to maintain normal NKCC2 function.
-Other K+ ions will diffuse into interstitial fluid via K+ channels.

Secretion

  • Potassium is pumped from interstitial fluid into the prinicpal cells, against its concentration gradient, via Na+/K+ ATPase pumps.
    -Potassium then diffuses out into lumen down its concentration gradient for excretion in urine.
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3
Q

Describe how the PCT manages acid-base balance.

A

In the PCT, Thick LOH

-Co2 from the tubular fluid/ blood enters the epithelial cells. Intracellular carbonic anhydrase produces H2CO3 which dissociates into H+ and HCO3-

-H+ ions are secreted at apical membrane via a sodium-hydrogen counter-transporter. This is upregulated by Angiotensin II.

-HCO3 is reabsorbed into interstitial fluid through the basolateral membrane via a bicarbonate-chloride exchanger and a bicarb-sodium symporter.

-H+ that is secreted into the lumen can re-combine with HCO3- to form H2CO3- which can dissociate into CO2 and H20. CO2 can then enter the cell to participate in the H+ and HCO3- production again. This allows for the cycle to continue and for efficient bicarb recovery.

-The Na+/K+ ATPase pump on the basolateral side is essential for maintaining the electrochemical gradient. It actively transports sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell, which helps drive the secondary active transport mechanisms and maintain the gradients necessary for the movement of bicarbonate and hydrogen ions

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4
Q

Explain how the distal nephron functions in acid-base homeostasis

A

*The Type A intercalated cells of the collecting duct are responsible for approximately 5-10% of acid-base handling in the kidneys, fine-tuning the acidity of excreted urine based on the homeostatic needs of the body.

*In the cells, CO2 combines with H2O to form H2CO3 (carbonic acid), catalyzed by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase.

*H2CO3 dissociates into H⁺ and HCO3⁻.
*H⁺ ions are actively secreted into the tubular fluid via two mechanisms:
o H⁺ ATPase pumps protons directly into the lumen.
o H⁺/K⁺ ATPase exchanges H⁺ for K⁺, allowing potassium reabsorption.

*HCO3⁻ is reabsorbed into the interstitial fluid via the HCO3⁻/Cl⁻ exchanger (anion exchanger, AE1) on the basolateral membrane. Chloride (Cl⁻) flows into the cell to balance the charge, enabling bicarbonate reabsorption.

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5
Q

Name the different forms of calcium in the plasma and briefly describe each.

A

Ionized Calcium (Ca²⁺): This is the free, biologically active form of calcium that constitutes about 50% of total plasma calcium. It is crucial for various physiological functions, including muscle contraction, blood clotting, and neurotransmitter release.

Protein-Bound Calcium: Approximately 40% of plasma calcium is bound to plasma proteins, primarily albumin. This form is not biologically active but can be released into the ionized form as needed.

Calcium Complexed with Anions: About 10% of plasma calcium is bound to anions such as phosphate, sulfate, and citrate. This form is also not biologically active but plays a role in maintaining calcium balance and availability

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6
Q

What parts of the nephron handle calcium? Describe this

A

PCT (65%), Thick Asc LOH (25%), DCT+CT (10%)

(1) PCT
- mostly via paracellular route via solvent drag
- some via transcellular route down its electrochemical gradient and pumped out by calcium-ATPase pumps as well as via sodium-calcium exhanger.
-PTH not very active on PCT

(2) Thick Asc LOH
-50% transcellular route as above - PTH acts to increase activity of calcium-sodium exchanger.
-50% paracellular- passive diffusion due to lumen being more positively charged relative to interstitial fluid.

(3) DCT + CD
- Transcellular down ECG and pumped out via calcium ATPase and calcium-sodium exhanger
-PTH increases luminal calcium channels + actiity of exchangers.

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7
Q

Name the enzyme that converts 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (its biologically active form).

A

1-alpha-hydroxylase (in the kidney)

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8
Q

How does calcitriol promote calcium absorption in the small intestine?

A

(1) Increases expression of calcium-binding proteins on the intestinal epithelial cells, such as calbindin

(2) Increases formation and activity of calcium channels and calcium-ATPase pumps in the epithelial brush border.

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9
Q

Describe the physiological effects of calcitonin on serum calcium levels.

A
  • Produced by parafollicular (C-cells) of the thyroid gland.

-Opposes the effects of PTH, aiming to reduce serum calcium levels.

(i) binds to and Inhibits osteoclast activity which inhibits bone demineralisation.

(ii) Decreases calcium reabsorption in the kidney, particularly in the distal nephron, by reducing its permeability to calcium ions.

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10
Q

Why does hyperparathyroidism occur commonly in CKD

A
  1. CKD can result in loss of 1-alpha-hydroxylase activity thereby causing reduced calcitriol formation (active vit D). This causes reduced absorption of calcium from the intestine causing hypocalcaemia.
  2. The resulting hypocalcaemia disinhibits the parathyroid glands which begin hyper-secreting parathyroid hormone in an attempt to return serum calcium levels to normal. This is acheived through stimulating osteoclast bone demineralisation and increasing tubular reabsorption of calcium (However reabsorption capabilities may be impaired in CKD leading to loss of calcium in urine).
  3. Hyperphosphatemia can occur as a result of reduced GFR and impaired ability of nephron to excrete phosphate as (as it should under PTH activity). The high levels of phosphate then act to bind to ionised calcium in the blood rendering it biologically inactive, thereby lowering ionised serum calcium levels.
  4. The result of all this is chronic hypersecretion of PTH i.e. secondary hyperparathyroidism which can result it osteodystrophy.
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11
Q

Define secondary hyperparathyroidism and outline 3 main aetiologies.

A

SHPT is the elevation of PTH secondary to hypocalcaemia. The disease is frequently associated with chronic kidney disease, however vitamin D deficiency is the most common cause.

  1. Chronic kidney disease resulting in loss of calcitriol production -> hypocalcaemia.
  2. Malabsorption of calcium in the gut e.g. Crohn’s disease or coeliac disease -> hypocalcaemia.
  3. Low exposure to sun light
    Reduced vitamin D synthesis in the skin (cholecalciferol) -> hypocalcaemia.
  4. Hypercalciuria secondary to loop diuretics
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12
Q

How might secondary hyperparathyroidism be managed in CKD?

A
  1. Lower serum phosphate levels to normal range
    - Usually through dietary restrictions on phosphate-rich foods.
    -Phosphate binders may be used if dietary approach is not adequate
  2. Vitamin D supplementation
    -Ergocalciferol or Cholecalciferol
    -Can help restore calcium levels without giving calcium salts.
  3. Calcium levels
    - Can use calcium salts such as calcium carbonate, acetate, gluconate or chloride if severe and persistent hypocalcaemia.
  4. Persistent PTH
    - Calcimimetics can be used to bind to calcium-sensing receptors in parathyroid glands thereby suppressing PTH release.
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13
Q

Define tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is the persistent, autonomous secretion of PTH in the absence of the original inciting stimulus, which occurs as a result of long-standing secondary hyperparathyroidism. The para-thyroid glands are therefore refractory to the normal feedback mechanisms which control it. This results in hypercalcaemia.

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14
Q

What type of hormone is erythropoeitin and where in the kidney is it produced?

What type of anaemia is associated with CKD?

A

EPO is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the interstitial peritubular cells in the cortex and outer medulla.

Normocytic normochromic anaemia.

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15
Q

What might be given to compensate for loss of EPO production?

A

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents such as erythropoeitin alfa (every 1-2 wks) or darbepoetin alfa (every 2-4 weeks).

These are generally reserved for those with a Hb <10 g/dL

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16
Q

What are normal Hb levels ?

A

Men 13.5-18 g/dL

Women 12-15 g/dL

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17
Q

Describe the autoregulation system intrinsic to the kidney that maintains GFR despite fluctuations in systemic MAP

A

Autoregulation is achieved via the tubuloglomerular feedback system.

This acts to maintain near to normal renal blood flow and therefore GFR between MAP ranges of 80-170mmHg.

-Reduced renal blood flow/ GFR results in reduced NaCl filtration.
-Low NaCl is sensed by macula densa cells of distal tubule which respond in the following way:

(i) Vasodilates afferent arteriole to increase hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries.
(ii) Stimulates the release of Renin from juxtaglomerular cells, which kicks of RAAS thereby producing angiotensin II
(iii)Angiotensin II vasoconstricts the efferent arteriole thereby further increasing hydrostatic pressure within the glomerular capillaries.

This restores normal GFR, normal NaCl filtration which therefore causes negative feedback loop to dampen this cycle.

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18
Q

Where are the cell bodies located for the sympathetic nerves innervating the kidney?

A

lateral horns of grey matter from T10-11 (lesser splanchnic) and T12 (least splanchnic). These preganglionic fibres synapse at aorticorenal and coeliac ganglia from where post-ganglionic fibres reach the kidney via renal plexus.

SNS:
-vasoconstricts afferent and efferent arterioles thereby reducing GFR
-stimulates renin release
-increases sodium and water reabsorption by the tubules

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19
Q

What part of the nephron is most responsible for sodium handling? How does it do it?

A

PCT reabsorbs 65-70% of filtered sodium.

(i) Na+/K+ ATPase pump on basolateral membrane creates an electrochemical gradient that allows for diffusion of sodium into cell at apical end down its electrochemical gradient. This is then pumped out at the BL side by this pump.

(ii) The Na+/H+ antiporter also transports sodium into the cell - this antiporter is upregulated by angiotensin II.

(iii) The sodium is reabsorbed into the peritubular capillaries from the interstitial fluid through a combination of hydrostatic and colloid pressures.

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20
Q

Name 3 hormones that regulate sodium handling in the kidney

A

(1) Angiotensin II
- Increase sodium reabsorption in the PCT through upregulating Na+/H+ antiporter activity.
-Vasoconstricts the efferent arteriole to increase GFR
-Indirectly acts by stimulating aldosterone release.

(2) Aldosterone
- Increases sodium reabsorption at collect tubule
- Released from adrenal gland in response to angiotensin II and high potassium levels.
- Increases synthesis of sodium channels (ENAC) and Na+/K+ ATPase pumps.

(3) Atrial natriuretic peptide
- Decreases sodium reabsorption and increases sodium and water excretion.
- Released from cardiac muscle fibres in response to high atrial pressures.
- Vasodilates afferent and vasocontricts efferent to increase GFR

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21
Q

How does PTH act to increase serum calcium levels normally?

A

(1) Stimulates 1-alpha hydroxylase to increase production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidneys which will promote calcium reabsorption in the intestine.

(2) Stimulates bone demineralisation through upregulation of osteoclast activity via RANK-L expression and inhibition of OPG release.

(3) Increases proliferation of osteoclasts moving towards a net bone resorption.

(4) Stimulates the reabsorption of calcium in the renal tubules

(5) Promotes the excretion of phosphate by the renal tubules.

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22
Q

How does calcitriol (active vit D) promote calcium absorption in the gut?

A
  1. Promotes the expression of calcium binding proteins such as calbindin in the intestinal epithelium
  2. Promotes the synthesis of calcium-stimulated ATPase pumps in the intestinal epithelial cells.
23
Q

What causes the acidosis in CKD (3 things)

A
  1. Impaired acid secretory mechanisms
    - The kidneys ability to excrete H+ ions becomes impaired resulting in accumulation of H+ ions in the blood.
    -Bicarbonate in the blood acts to buffer the excess H+ but eventually gets depleted.
  2. Impaired bicarb reabsorption
    -Reduced ability of nephron the reabsorb bicarbonate further hinders the buffering capacity and causes metabolic acidosis.
  3. Impaired ammoniogenesis
    - Ammonia (NH3) is produced from glutamine by the kidney tubules as a means of neutralising acid loads.
    -It is secreted by the PCT into the lumen to neutralise H+ ions, forming ammonium (NH4) which is then excreted.
    -Reduced ammonia production therefore results in reduced ammonium excretion meaning a net increase in H+ ions in the blood, further precipitating acidosis
24
Q

What is the single most significant factor in improving the prognosis of progressive renal disease?

A

Control of hypertension

25
Q

Define chronic kidney disease

A

CKD is a chronic and progressive decline in kidney function/ abnormal kidney structure, sustained for over 3 months, with subsequent implications on health. It is the result of progressive scarring from any type of kidney injury. It will eventually progress to end-stage renal failure where glomeruli, tubules, intersititum and blood vessels are sclerosed.

26
Q

Describe 5 morphological features of CKD

A
  1. Glomerular scarring/ glomerulosclerosis/hyalinosis due to deposition of plasma proteins and collegen matrix, with obliteration of the glomeruli seen in later stage disease.
  2. Interstitial fibrosis with atrophy and drop out of renal tubules/ loss of peritubular capillary network
  3. Hypertensive changes in arteries is seen as thick walled arteries with narrowing of the vessel lumen.
  4. Inflammatory infiltrates may be seen to invade the fibrotic interstitial tissue.
  5. Shrunken, often symmetrically contracted kidneys which are red-brown in colour with a granular surface.
27
Q

Describe the 4 main histological alterations seen in glomerular disease

A
  1. Hypercellularity
    - increase in number of cells in the glomerulus due to proliferation of mesangial and endothelial cells +/- leucocyte infiltration
  2. Basement membrane thickening
    -Deposition of immune complexes in the basement membrane.
    -Fibrin, amyloid or abnormal fibrillary proteins may also deposit.
    -Seen in membranous glomerulopathy.
  3. Hyalinosis and sclerosis
    - Hyalinosis of glomerulus occurs due to accumulation of material such as plasma proteins following capillary wall injury
    - seen in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
    -Sclerosis of the glomerulus occurs when extracellular collagenous matrix accumulates in the glomerulus
  4. Crescent formation
    - Accumulation of proliferating parietal cells and infiltrating leukocytes within the glomerulus following an immune or inflammatory injury.
28
Q

list 5 systems affected by uremia

A
  1. Gastro-intestinal
    - Uremic gastropathy/gastroenteritis
  2. Cardiovascular
    -Uremic fibrinous pericarditis
    -Pericardial effusion
  3. Nervous system
    -Peripheral neuropathy
    -Asterixis
    -Low mood
  4. Respiratory
    -Pulmonary oedema
    -Pleuritis
  5. Integumentary (skin)
    -Pruritis
    -Uremic frost
    -Calciphylaxis causing ulceration
29
Q

Why are ACE inhibitors beneficial in slowing progression of renal failure but why are they not suitable in advanced disease?

A

ACE inhibitors can slow the rate of progression of renal disease through lowering hypertension both systemically but also within the glomerulus.

ACEI’s act by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to II by ACE. This prevents vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole thereby lowering intraglomerular pressure.

This helps offset the complications of long-term hypertension within the kidney such as hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis as well as preventing sustained hyperfiltration in the functioning nephrons thereby preventing proteinuria.

ACE’Is are not suitable in late stage renal failure due to the risk of hyperkalemia caused by its inhibtion of aldosterone production and secretion. Aldosterone normally functions to up regulate potassium secretion (and sodium reabsorption).

As well as this, they reduce GFR due to their effects of reducing glomerular hydrostatic pressure which can cause accumulation of K+ in the blood.

30
Q

What is meant by “adjusted calcium” and how and why is it calculated?

A

Corrected or adjusted calcium is derived in order to determine how much ionized calcium in present in the blood. This is important because this is the biologically active form.

It is important to determine because Total serum calcium levels may appear low in patients with hypoalbuminemia because the portion of calcium bound to albumin (roughly 40% of total calcium) is lost.

Corrected ca2+ (mmol/L) = unadjusted ca2+ (mmol/L) + 0.02 x (40 - serum albumin g/L)

31
Q

Define and distinguish between Nephrotic syndrome and Nephritic syndrome

A

Nephrotic syndrome refers to excessive proteinuria (>3.5g/L/day), hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia and lipiduria. It results from damage to the glomerular filtration barrier often from primary glomerular diseases such as minimal change disease, Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, membranous nephropathy. Hyperlipidemia can result from increased lipid production by the liver as well as derranged lipid transport proteins as a result of the hypoalbuminemia.

Nephritic syndrome is a condition involving haematuria, mild to moderate proteinura (<3.5g/L/day), hypertension, oliguria and red cell casts in urine (indicating glomerular damage). It is caused by inflammatory glomerular pathologies such as post-strep glomerulonephritis/ IgA nephropathy which cause inflammatory infiltrate and capillary wall injuries allowing for passage of blood into filtrate. There is a reduction in GFR as well as increased sodium + water retention (RAAS ) which causes the oliguria.

32
Q

Explain why proteinuria occurs in CKD

A

There are 2 main reasons why proteinuria occurs in CKD and it can depend on the stage of the disease and the primary cause and site of damage within the kidney.

  1. In early stage CKD, proteinuria can occur due to adaptive mechanisms of functioning nephrons whereby they begin hyperfiltrating to compensate for overall net reduction in GFR. This is achieved through vasoconstriction of efferent arteriole to increase intraglomerular pressures. This in itself lead to increased glomerular permeability leading to protein filtration.
  2. In later stage disease, structural damage to the glomerulus can give rise to proteinuria due to the sustained high pressures within the glomerulus caused by prolonged adaptive mechanisms as well as glomerular pathologies themselves resulting in loss of glomerular filtration barrier.
33
Q

List 3 ACEI’s and 3 common side effects

A

Enalapril, Lisinopril, Ramipril

  1. Hyperkalemia due to inhibition of aldosterone production leading to reduced potassium secretion.
  2. Dry cough due to increased concentrations of substance P, prostaglandins, kinins and TXA2 as a result of ACE inhibition.
  3. Hypotension due to excessive vasodilation
34
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of osteitis fibrosa cystica.

A

OFC is associated with hyperparathryoidism.

High PTH levels increase osteoclast activity which begin resorbing bone, hollowing out osteons with desposition of collegenous matrix adjacent to trabeculae.

Eventually, Trabecular bone is resorbed and marrow is replaced by loose fibrous tissue and woven bone.

Degradation of bone marrow can further worsen anemia

Cystic degeneration occurs leading to bone destabalisation. Hemosiderin-laden macrophages and giant cells can be seen histologically, forming what is called a “brown tumour”.

35
Q

Name 5 bone diseases associated with renal disease

A
  1. Osteitis fibrosa cystica (most common)
  2. Mixed bone disease
  3. Osteomalacia (due to aluminium overload in bone caused by dialysis - prolongs mineralisation lag time)
  4. Adynamic bone disease (excessive suppression of PTH-> reduced osteoblasts/osteoid, bone instability and accumulation of old bone)
  5. Osteopenia- commonly due to glucocorticoid use after renal transplant (increase osteoclast activity)
36
Q

Describe polycystic kidney disease

A

PCKD is an inherited disorder characterised by the development of multiple cysts in the kidney which expand and destroy the kidney parenchyma.

It can be classified into 2 forms:

(1) Adult onset PCKD which is autosomal dominant caused by mutations in genes encoding for polycystin 1 + 2. Commonly associated with signs of CKD including fluid overload and HTN.

(2) Childhood onset PCKD which is autosomal recessive caused by muations in genes encoding fibrocystin. Commonly associated with pulmonary insufficiency, hepatomegaly, fluid overload.

37
Q

Describe the role of FGF 23

A

FGF23 is a phosphatonin, a glycoprotein hormone primarily produced by osteocytes that plays a key role in serum phosphate and vitamin D homeostasis.

It reduces serum phosphate levels by binding to its FGF receptor which reduces expression of sodium-phosphate cotransporters in the prox tubules, reducing phosphate reabsorption.

It also regulates vitamin D levels by inhibiting 1-alpha-hydroxylase production in the kidneys, preventing the formation of calcitriol (active vitamin D).

FGF23 levels are elevated in chronic kidney disease (CKD) to offset phosphate retention in the blood.

38
Q

Define CKD including two characteristic abnormalities other than elevated serum urea and creatinine that may be seen in this condition.

A
  • CKD is a chronic and progressive decline in kidney function/ abnormal kidney structure, sustained for over 3 months, with subsequent implications on health. It is the result of progressive scarring from any type of kidney injury. It will eventually progress to end-stage renal failure where glomeruli, tubules, intersititum and blood vessels are sclerosed
  • Two characteristic abnormalities associated with CKD, apart from elevated serum urea and creatinine levels, include:
    o Proteinuria: The presence of excess protein in the urine, which can indicate damage to the kidney’s filtering units (glomeruli) as well as hyperfiltration response in remaining nephrons.
    o Electrolyte Imbalances: Commonly seen imbalances include hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels) and metabolic acidosis, resulting from the kidneys’ reduced ability to excrete potassium and regulate acid-base balance.
39
Q

Explain the relationship between hypertension and CKD

A
  • Hypertension can result in damage to the glomeruli, particularly if it is chronically elevated or if there is an acute rise in blood pressure as seen in malignant/accelerated hypertension.
  • The most common manifestations of hypertension in the kidney are hyaline and hyperplastic glomerulosclerosis, the latter being associated with acute BP rises.
  • Both of these conditions involve thickening of the glomerular walls and narrowing of the lumen and can result in glomerular scarring , nephrosclerosis and/or necrotising arterolitis. This impairs the glomerular filtration barrier  proteinuria.
  • Conversely, CKD can cause hypertension as reduced kidney function results in inability to maintain fluid homeostasis. This can precipitate high blood volumes resulting in hypertension.
40
Q

Explain the effect of CKD on hemoglobin concentrations.

A
  • CKD results in a reduced hemoglobin concentration due to loss of EPO production. EPO is a glycoprotein hormone produced by the interstitial peritubular cells/fibroblasts in the cortex and outer medulla.
  • Along with GM-CSD and IL-3, EPO is responsible for stimulating erythropoiesis in the bone marrow and thus the production of RBC’s. The resulting normocytic normochromic anemia causes reduced Hb levels since hemoglobin is found in RBC’s.
41
Q

What effect does chronic renal failure have on serum phosphate?

A

Chronic kidney disease results in hyperphosphatemia due to phosphate retention from reduced GFR. Elevated phosphate levels decrease serum calcium by binding to free calcium, leading to hypocalcemia, which stimulates secondary hyperparathyroidism. Elevated PTH levels attempt to increase serum calcium by mobilizing calcium and phosphate from bones. However, while PTH would normally help excrete phosphate in the kidneys, this compensatory mechanism is impaired in CKD, resulting in persistent hyperphosphatemia.

42
Q

list 4 causes of CKD

A

Primary glomerular diseases:

Minimal change disease
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
Membranous nephropathy

Secondary causes of CKD (including both glomerular and vascular diseases):

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
Amyloidosis
Diabetes mellitus (via diabetic nephropathy)
Hypertension (via hypertensive nephropathy)

43
Q

Explain how GFR is measured

A

GFR = Urine concentration x urine flow / plasma concentration.

Can use creatinine or inulin.

eGFR is used most commonly used, using serum creatinine concentrations and taking into account: Age, Sex, Ethnicity, Weight.

44
Q

Why is eGFR useful in CKD

A

(1) Early detection of disease

(2) Establishes the stage of the disease

(3) Monitor progression of disease

(4) Guides treatment decision regarding suitable medications/dosages

(5) Determines management: e.g. EGFR < 15 patient needs to start dialysis/ prepare for kidney transplantation

45
Q

Describe how to kidneys concentrate urine

A

Urine is concentrated via the counter-current multiplier system, ADH and urea recycling.

Counter-current multiplier system
*The counter-current multiplier system involves reabsorption of sodium and chloride (and potassium) via the NKCC2 transporter on the apical membrane.
*Sodium is pumped out into the interstitial space by Na/K ATPase pump. Chloride can follow through chloride channels down its electrochemical gradient -> This creates a hypertonic medullary interstitium.
*The descending limb of the loop of henle is highly permeable to water and so water from here is reabsorbed via osmotic gradient created by the hypertonic medulla.

Urea recycling
*Urea recycling involved reabsorption of urea from the inner medullary collecting ducts via the action of ADH.
*The urea moves into the intersitial space, contributing to hypertonicity, and can re-enter the thin ascending limb.

ADH
*ADH acts in the principal cells of the collecting duct by binding to its V2 receptor and promoting aquaporin 2 channel insertion into the apical membrane.
*This allows for reabsorption of water, further concentrating the urine.

46
Q

Describe the initial adaptations seen in the functioning nephrons following initial nephron loss

A

*The main adaptations that remaining nephrons undergo are hyperfiltration and hypertrophy

*Hyperfiltration is necessary to maintain a normal GFR despite net-loss of functioning nephrons. This helps maintain filtration of blood to prevent retention of toxic metabolites.

*Hyperfiltration is mediated by endocrine regulation, particularly angiotensin II which maintains vasoconstriction on the efferent arteriole to increase glomerular hydrostatic pressure.

*Cellular hypertrophy occurs in the nephron as cells are effectively working harder to maintain homeostasis in the body.

*There is now an increased energy demand per cell to match its increased metabolic activity.

*Eventually, the needs of each functioning
nephron cannot be met and the adaptations become maladaptive, effectively causing progressive ischemia + hypoxia culminating in death of the remaining nephrons.

47
Q

Pathogenesis of pyelonephritis causing kidney damage

A

*E.coli colonizes the lower urinary tract and ascends to the kidneys via the bladder and ureters. It uses pilli to adhere to the urothelium.

*The renal medulla is particularly affected due to its low oxygen tension, increasing susceptibility to infection.

*Once in the kidney, the bacteria is recognised by toll-like receptors triggering epithelial cell activation and the release of inflammatory cytokines IL-6, IL-8 and TNF-a which attract neutrophils.

*Neutrophils release proteolytic enzymes and reactive oxygen species causing tissue damage and enhance inflammatory response.

*Complement system activation further enhances inflammatory response causing tissue damage and promoting an increased vascular permeability and oedema.

*Macrophages and dendritic cells participate in the immune response by producing additional cytokines and by presenting antigens to further amplify the inflammatory process.

*Repeated or untreated infections result in renal scarring and fibrosis, caused by the accumulation of extracellular matrix components and epithelial-to-mesenchymal transition (EMT), which leads to glomerulosclerosis and a progressive decline in kidney function.

*Bacterial endotoxin and subsequent cytokine release function as pyrogens triggering fever response.

48
Q

What type of bacteria is e.coli

A

Gram negative facultative anaerobic bacillus

49
Q

Explain why GFR is less reliable in AKI

A
  • In AKI there is a sudden decline in kidney function that is sustained over hours to days.
  • This can mean that there is a lag-time before serum creatinine levels rise
  • Therefore a GFR may not accurately reflect the degree of kidney function decline in AKI
  • GFR assumes a steady state without dramatic fluctuations in kidney function and fluid levels and so is more suited to monitoring chronic kidney disease which is slower in course.
  • Urine output and absolute creatinine levels/direct creatinine changes are more appropriate in the setting of AKI
50
Q

Describe the process of vitamin D production

A

SKIN
- UVB –> Epidermis
- 7-hydrocholesterol to pre vitamin D3 to vitamin D3

LIVER
- Vitamin D3 –> 25-hydroxycholecalciferol by 25-hydroxylase

KIDNEY
- 25-hydroxycholecaliferol to 1,25 dihydroxcholecalciferol by 1-alpha-hydrxylase

51
Q

Describe the difference between T score and Z score DEXA scan

A

T score = standard deviations from normal BMD (20-40 yo) of same sex and ethnicity
Normal: -1 and above
Osteopenia is -1 to -2.5
Osteoporosis: -2.5 or below

Z score: standard deviations from BMD of same age, sex and ethnicity
abnormal: -2.0 or below suggesting reduced BMD caused by something other than age

52
Q

Name 3 types of renal replacement therapy

A
  1. Dialysis (hemo or peritoneal)
  2. Hemofiltration
  3. Kidney transplant
53
Q

List 5 changes seen in kidneys in CKD

A

(1) Contraction/shrinking of kidneys

(2) Glomerulosclerosis

(3) Interstitial fibrosis

(4) Tubular atrophy/drop out

(5) Loss of peritubular capillaries

(6) Hypertensive changes