Mark james Flashcards

lung cancer

1
Q

What are the 3 subtypes of NSCLC?

A

(i) Squamous cell carcinoma (25%)- central
(ii) Adenocarcinoma (40%)- peripheral
(iii) Large cell carcinoma (10%) - either

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2
Q

Give 5 histological features of SCC of the lung (KIMND)

A

(1) Keratinization with keratin pearls
(2) Intercellular bridges
(3) High nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
(4) Increased mitotic figures
(5) Desmoplastic stroma surrounding the tumour

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3
Q

Give 5 histological features of adenocarcinoma of the lung

A

(1) Glandular differentiation
(2) Acinar or papillary pattern
(3) Presence of mucin within cells
(4) Desmoplastic stroma
(5) increased mitotic figures

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4
Q

list the 3 pre-cursor lesions for lung carcinomas

A

(1) Squamous cell dysplasia / carcinoma in situ -> SCC
(2) Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia/ adenocarcinoma in situ -> Adenocarcinoma
(3) Diffuse idiopathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia -> SCLC

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5
Q

Carcinomas arise from what cells?

A

Epithelial cells (derived from all 3 germ layers, endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm)

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6
Q

list the 4 stages of malignant cell spread

A

(1) loosening on inter-cellular connections (E-cadherin) due to mutational inactivation or suppression of E-cadherin genes

(2) Degradation of BM and interstitial connective tissue
–> Proteolytic enzymes (MMP’s, Type IV collagenase, urokinase plasminogen activator, cathepsin D)

(3) Detachment of cell from BM (loss of polarity)

(4) Locomotion through BM and ECM
-> autocrine motility factors enhance and direct movement of cells
-> Insulin-like growth factors attract tumour cells

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7
Q

describe 4 reasons why cancer cells commonly metastasize to bone

A

(1) Chemokine/cytokines
-> Cancer cells can be “homed” to bone tissue due to expression of certain receptors which are attracted to chemokines released from bone cells. Example: Cancer cells expressing CXCr4 can be homed to bones through chemokine CXCL2 release.

(2) Factors released from bone
-> TGF-B, PDGF and IGF released from the bone can promote cancer cell growth and proliferation making the bone microenvironment conducive for tumour growth.

(3) Modulation of immune response.
- Cancer cells can suppress cytotoxic T-cell activity and upregulate T-regulatory cell activity. This creates an immunosuppressed environment which facilitates tumour growth.

(4) Bone remodelling
- regular bone remodelling can allow for tumour cells to lodge in the boney matrix.
-This can be enhanced by upregulation of osteoclast activity by tumour cells which can create lytic lesions allowing for further invasion into the bone.

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8
Q

What is atelectasis, what are the different types?

A

Atelectasis is the collapse of alveoli within the lung

(1) Obstructive atelectasis, also called resorptive atelectasis, occurs when there is obstruction to airflow to the alveoli (mucous plug, tumour, foreign body). The trapped air in the alveoli eventually gets resorbed into the pulmonary circulation causing alveolus collapse.

(2) Non-obstructive atelectasis
-Adhesive atelectasis: caused by surfactant deficiency which results in increased surface tension and alveolar collapse. Often caused by general anaethesia use as this reduces surfactant.

  • Compression atelectasis: caused by compression of the lungs from pleural effusion, tumour, diaphragmatic hernia which causes alveolar collapse.
  • Contraction atelectasis: caused by fibrosis and scarring of the lungs which causes collapse: seen in TB and sarcoidosis.

Most common cause is post-surgery and general anaesthesia which reduces surfactant and alveolar volume.

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9
Q

based on light’s criteria, what suggests an exudative pleural effusion

A

(1) Protein:
-Pleural fluid protein vs serum protein ratio > 0.5

(2) LDH
-Pleural fluid LDH vs serum LDH > 0.6
-Pleural LDH is > 2/3rds the upper limit of normal serum LDH levels.

Additionally
-Low glucose (<60mg/dL) in exudative effusions
-Pleural fluid cholesterol vs serum cholesterol ratio >0.3 or > 55mg/dL

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10
Q

4 signs of effusion on CXR

A

(1) Blunting of costophrenic angles
(2) Opacification of lungs (if large effusion)
(3) Meniscus sign due to fluid accumulation at base of lungs.
(4) Tracheal deviation away from effusion if large
(5) loss of visualisation of heart contour and hemidiaphragm if severe

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11
Q

What suggests effusion on ultrasound?

A

Hypo-echoic or anechoic (dark) collection in the costo-diaphragmatic recess.

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12
Q

Classify pneumothorax with causes of each

A

(1) Spontaneous pneumothorax
-Primary: no underlying disease - seen in young, tall, thin men/ rupture of bullae on lung surface
-secondary: underlying lung disease - CF, TB, COPD, lung cancer

(2) Iatrogenic
-Thoracentesis, central venous catheter placement, lung biopsy, mechanical ventilation

(3) Traumatic
- direct chest wall injury

(4) Tension
- Medical emergency whereby creation of one-way valve allows for air to enter pleural space with each inspiration but cannot escape - pleural pressure increases and compresses lung, heart and major vessels, impairs venous return-> cardiac arrest

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13
Q

describe the pathophysiology of finger clubbing

A

(1) Right to left shunts or pulmonary disease allows for megakaryocytes to enter systemic circulation. These are generally broken down in pulmonary capillary beds. These cells lodge in nail beds and release platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) and VEGF which causes connective tissue hypertrophy and increased capillary permeability.

(2) Secretion of growth factors (e.g., platelet-derived growth factor and hepatocyte growth factor) from the lungs.

(3) Overproduction of prostaglandin E2 by other tissues

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14
Q

list 4 paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer and for each indicate the cancer subtype it is most associated with

A

Neuromuscular SCLC
-Lambert Eatson Myasthenic Syndrome: Antibodies produced against the pre-synaptic VG calcium channels of cholinergic neurons. This causes reduced Ach release - proximal muscle weakness, reduced or absent tendon reflexes, dry mouth, visual disturbance

Neurological SCLC
-Limbic encephalitis: Antibodies produced against brain tissue, particularly that of the limbic region. Associated withAnti-Hu antibodies.

Endocrine
-Hypercalcemia (SCC) - PTHrP production
-Cushings (SCLC) - ACTH production
-SIADH (SCLC) - ADH production

Integumentary
-Acanthosis nigricans (adenocarcinoma) : tumour secretion of growth factors such as TGF-a –> darkened skin patches in skin folds

Skeletal
- Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy: NSCLC : Clubbing + Periostitis -> Megakaryocytes accumulate in distal vessels of the phalanges and release growth factors such as PDGF and VEGF -> fibrovascular proliferation

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15
Q

Explain how immune checkpoint inhibitors work in cancer treatment

A

PD-1 inhibitors (pembrolizumab)
PDL-1 inhibitors (atezolizumab)
CTLA-4 inhibitors (ipilimumab)

Checkpoints act to mediate and dampen down T cell activity in the body. This normally functions to prevent inappropriate and over-reactivity of cytotoxic T cells towards normal tissues, but also prevents T cells from recognising and attacking cancer cells.

PD1 and PDL-1 inhibitors
PDL-1 (on tumour cell) binds to PD1 (on T cell) to activate this immune checkpoint and effectively put a brake on the T cells response towards the cancer cell. This means the T cell does not attack and kill the cancer cell.

Therefore by blocking and inhibiting either of these receptors with a monoclonal antibody means that the checkpoint is not activated and the T cells response against the cancer cell is upregulated.

CTLA-4 inhibitors
CTLA-4 on T cells is normally bound by CD80/86 on an APC, again to dampen down and mediate T cells cytotoxic effects in the body. This again that prevent T cells from recognising cancer cells.

Therefore blocking CTLA4 on the T cell prevents this checkpoint from happening.

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16
Q

List 4 causes of haemoptysis and explain how each causes it

A
  1. Mitral stenosis
    -> increased hydrostatic pressures within the pulmonary capillaries disrupts vascular permeability allowing for extravasation of RBC’s out of the capillaries and into the alveoli/airways
  2. Pneumonia
    -> Inflammatory process within the lung parenchyma can result in increased vascular permeability leading to RBCs entering alveoli.
  3. Cancers of the respiratory tract
    -> Cancers that erode through the mucosa of the respiratory tree can ulcerate and bleed
  4. Tissue infarction
    ->Pulmonary embolism can result in tissue infarction if collateral blood supply to the lungs is insufficient. Infarcted tissue can result in bleeding into airways

Blood from respiratory system is usually Bright, Frothy and alkaline

17
Q

Normal pleural fluid measurements

A

Typical findings of normal pleural fluid are as follows:

Appearance: clear
pH: 7.60-7.64
Protein: < 2% (1-2 g/dL)
White blood cells (WBC): < 1000/mm³
Glucose: similar to that of plasma
LDH: <50% plasma concentration
Triglycerides: <2 mmol/l
Cholesterol: 3.5–6.5 mmol/l

18
Q

3 causes of an exudative pleural effusion

A

(1) Pneumonia (empyema)
(2) Tumour
(3) Lung infarction (PE)
(4) Chylothorax due to damage to thoracic duct

19
Q

3 causes of transudative pleural effusion

A

(1) Left heart failure
(2) Nephrotic syndrome
(3) Liver cirrhosis –> Hypoalbuminemia

20
Q

Differentiate between dysplasia and anaplasia

A

Dysplasia refers to disordered cellular growth confined to the epithelium. Characteristic findings include pleomorphism (variation in cell size and shape), loss of polarity (disruption of normal cell orientation), and an increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio. Dysplastic cells retain some degree of differentiation, and the changes are potentially reversible if the causative factor is removed. Dysplasia is considered a pre-malignant condition because it can progress to invasive cancer if untreated.

Anaplasia, on the other hand, refers to cells that are poorly differentiated or undifferentiated. These cells exhibit similar features to dysplastic cells, but the changes are more severe. Anaplastic cells lack functional and morphological specialization and often resemble primitive or stem cell types. Anaplastic changes are irreversible and are a hallmark of high-grade malignancy, indicating an aggressive tumor.

21
Q

Explain the pathphysiology behind horners syndrome

A

Compression of the sympathetic chain supplying the face

Ptosis (partial eye lid droop) due to loss of sympathetic innervation to the Superior tarsal muscle (smooth muscle). Usually functions to elevate eye lid along with levator palpebrae superioris. LPS is still working as it is innervated by occulomotor nerve and so it prevents total eyelid closure.

Miosis (pupil constriction) -> Loss of sympathetic innervation to dilator pupillae muscle results is unopposed parasympathetic innervation of sphincter pupillae -> pupil constriction.

Anhydrosis -> loss of sweat gland sympathetic innervation

Deficits are only ipsilateral

22
Q

Describe 4 features of pancoast tumour in terms of presentation

A

(1) Horners syndrome
(2) Superior vena cava syndrome
(3) Intrinsic muscle wasting
–> Hypothenar, interossei, 3rd+4th lumbricals, adductor pollicus
(4) Pain in shoulder and upper back

23
Q

4 clinical features of SVC obstruction

A

(1) Distended veins of the head and neck including elevated jugular venous pressure
(2) Facial and upper extremity oedema
(3) Plethoric face
(4) Dyspnoea