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ENI 2 > quizzes etc > Flashcards

quizzes etc Flashcards

1
Q

what is the predominant glucocorticoid in avian species

A

corticosterone

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2
Q

you have performed a low dose dexamethasone supression test in dogs with suspected hyperadrenocorticism. the results were:
0hrs: 195
4 hrs: 75
8hrs: 120.
what is the appropriate interpretation

A

could be pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism

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3
Q

you have performed a low dose dexamethasone supression test in dogs with suspected hyperadrenocorticism. the results were:
0hrs: 120
4hrs: 35
8hrs: 27

A

normal, hyperadrenocorticism excluded

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4
Q

mammalian and avian species who maintain their body temp within a narrow limit can be described as:

A

endotherm/homeotherm

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5
Q

what hormone is an anorexigenic peptide hormone secreted fromadipose tissue

A

leptin

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6
Q

what blood glucose levels would you expect to see in a compensated insulin resistance

A

normoglycemia

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7
Q

what cell is responsible for modifying the concentration and location of melanin in reptiles and lizards

A

melanophor

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8
Q

what bone is visible through the tympanic membrane

A

malleus

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9
Q

what is the histological term to describe a pathological increase in epidermis

A

acanthosis

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10
Q

which enzymatic activity does the tyrosine kinase receptors catalyze

A

phosphorylation

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11
Q

what is your first choice diagnotic test for hyperthyroidism

A

Total T4

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12
Q

in dogs which type of diabetes mellitus is most prevalent

A

type 1

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13
Q

_________ is produced under the influence of growth hormone in the _____

A

IGF-1
liver

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14
Q

for a hematology test which anticoagulent is usually used

A

EDTA

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15
Q

what is the dominant hormone(s) responsible for increasing blood calcium

A

PTH and calcitriol

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16
Q

why does hypocalemia as a clinical or subclinical condition occur in dairy cattle

A

the regulatory mechanism is slow to respond

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17
Q

What are the sensitive and insensitive structures called that suspend the pedal bone within the hoof capsule?

A

lamellae

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18
Q

Which bone is visible through the tympanic membrane?

A

malleus

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19
Q

name structure at A

A

follicular (or dermal) papilla)

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20
Q

What is a feature of atrophic dermatosis?

A

thinned epidermis

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21
Q

A type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which immunoglobulin?

A

IgE

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22
Q

When setting up a
microscope for bright-field
work, Koehler illumination:

A

gives even unblemished background illumination

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23
Q

Which skin cells are embryologically derived from the neural tube?

A

melanocytes

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24
Q

What is the technical term to describe a pathological increase in depth of the
epidermis?

A

acanthosis

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25
Q

What is the technical term to describe thickening and hardening of the skin
characterised by exaggeration of the superficial skin markings?

A

lichenification

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26
Q

Which cytokine is specifically targeted by a therapeutic agent licensed for
allergic pruritus?

A

IL-31

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27
Q

In which stage of the hair cycle is this hair? (Image)

A

telogen

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28
Q

What would be the most appropriate sample to take if you wish to
demonstrate Malassezia organisms on the interdigital skin of a dog?

A

a stained acetate tape strip

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29
Q

Which is the lowest power microscope objective that would be routinely used
to detect Sarcoptes mange mite?

A

X4

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30
Q

Which microscope objective would you select to detect staphylococcal
bacteria?

A

X 100 (oil)

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31
Q

Which bacterium is most commonly associated with skin infections of dogs?

A

staphylococcus pseudointermedius

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32
Q

When preparing a trichogram, how will you process the hair after plucking
with haemostats?

A

mount in liquid paraffin but do not stain

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33
Q

In ringworm diagnostics what is the general name for this elongated oval
structure? (Image)

A

macrocondidia

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34
Q

In the equine foot, what alternative name is given to the dermis?

A

Corium

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35
Q

When taking a history for a skin case, what facts should be established
about the flea treatment regimen?

A
  • product used
  • frequency used
  • Tx od in contacts
  • Tx of environment
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36
Q

Name the four regions of the hair follicle A-D indicated in the image

A

A: follicular orifice (opening at the surface)
B: Isthmus (The isthmus – where the sebaceous gland attaches divides the hair
between infundibulum & inferior portion)
C: infundibulum
D: Inferior portion

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37
Q

From the list of hypersensitivity reactions and combinations, select the
most appropriate for the situations below:
- atopic dermatitis
- cutaneous vasculitis and glomerulonephritis
- pemphigus foliaceus
- intradermal allergen test
- TB testing in cattle

A
  • Atopic dermatitis (Type IV and Type 1 hypersensitivities)
  • Cutaneous vasculitis and glomerulonephritis (Type III)
  • Pemphigus foliaceus (Type II)
  • Intradermal allergen test (Type I hypersensitivity)
  • TB testing in cattle (Type IV Hypersensitivity)
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38
Q

should you fine macrophages, neutrophils and lymphocytes in a normal epidermis

A

no

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39
Q
A

pars flaccida

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40
Q

name lesion

A

crust

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41
Q

In terms of their lifecycles what distinguishes lice from fleas and flies?

A

flies undergo full metamorphosis (holometabola)

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42
Q

What genus of sucking louse contains species which parasitise pigs, horses
and cattle?

A

haematopinus

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43
Q

How can you identify different species of fleas?

A

ctenidia and head shape

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44
Q

The genus Culicoides is otherwise known as..

A

the biting midge

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45
Q

When doing the open mouthed rostral caudal view of the tympanic bullae
for radiography it is important to remove the……………………………………….. just before
exposure to avoid an artefact.

A

endotrachial tube

46
Q

In autumn, longitudinal growth of antlers stops and
…………………………………… is shed, leaving mineralised tissue on the surface

A

velvet

47
Q

I have six legs, no wings and like sheep. What am I?

A

a sheep ked

48
Q

name infections spread by fleas

A
  • Myxomatosis
  • tapeworm (Dipylidium)
  • FIA
  • Bartonella
  • Yersinia
49
Q

This drain works by ……… and …………… (IMAGE)

A

capillary action and gravity

50
Q

A 10kg dog needs a drip to deliver drug X (at 1mg/ml concentration) in
the period before surgery. The dose rate is 5mg/kg/hr. What is the drip rate? (i.e. amount of fluid to be delivered within the period of one hour)

A

50ml/hr

51
Q

What action would you take if you saw the following organisms on cytology
taken from the ear of a dog with otitis externa? Why? (Diff Quick x 1000) (IMAGE)

A

Send sample of exudate for bacterial culture and antibiotic susceptibility/sensitivity testing in case is Pseudomonas (potential multi-resistant bacterium that should not be treated empirically)
If students really can’t see these bacteria, tell them they are rods.
Give 1 mark for swabs/C+S testing, extra mark if mention possibility of
Pseudomonas

52
Q

In the image, several lesion types are present. Provide 2 appropriate
lesion terms (IMAGE)

A
  • pustules
  • erythematous papules
  • comedones
  • patchy hyperpigmentation
53
Q

What is the distinguishing feature between ticks and mites?

A

Mites are usually less than 0.5mm however ticks are between 2-20mm.

54
Q

Provide 3 ways to manage risk of fly strike in Rabbits

A
  • Check the whole rabbit, paying special attention to the back end
    and tail area, at least daily in warm months. If the rabbit has a
    dirty bottom, clean it immediately.
  • Can get preventative washes.
  • Clean litter trays daily and remove all soiled bedding from hutches
    daily.
  • Staple net curtains over the hutch/run to insect proof them.
  • Watch out for conditions that prevent rabbits from cleaning
    themselves eg dental, spinal problems and obesity.
  • Incorrect diets – leading to too many caecotrophs
55
Q

Why do water soluble hormones require a cell surface receptor?

A

Water soluble hormones cannot pass the lipid rich cell
membrane.

56
Q

In endocrinology, what is signal transduction?

A

The transfer of biological message from a cell surface receptor to an intracellular target protein

57
Q

The concentration of a signalling molecule was measured at multiple time points and the following results generated: 0 minutes 150 units, 5 minutes 107 units, 10 minutes 75 units, 15 minutes, 53 units and at 20 minutes 38 units. What is the half-life of the molecule?

A

10 minutes

58
Q

An endocrine cycle that repeats each 24 hours is what kind of rhythm?

A

circadian

59
Q

When another condition (such as hypercalcaemia, glucocorticoids) causing polyuria by inhibiting ADH action it is a

A

secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

60
Q

What molecules are the major contributors to renal medullary tonicity

A
  • Na
  • Cl
  • K
  • Urea
61
Q

This is the process where stored glycogen is broken down into glucose by the liver

A

glycogenolysis

62
Q

A metabolic pathway that produces ketone bodies to provide an alternative
form of energy from fatty acids & amino acids.

A

ketogenesis

63
Q

The metabolic pathways that result in the generation of glucose from noncarbohydrate carbon substrates

A

gluconeogenesis

64
Q

Which macronutrient in excess requires conversion by the liver into urea for
elimination?

A

protein

65
Q

Which enzymatic activity does the tyrosine kinase receptors catalyse?

A

phosphorylation

66
Q

………… is an example of a second messenger molecule

A
  • cAMP
  • cGMP
  • Ca2+
  • diacylglycerol (DAG)
67
Q

Name two things the hypothalamus can sense directly

A
  • Osmolarity (osmoreceptors)
  • temperature (thermoreceptors)
  • glucose (satiety and hunger)
  • Blood volume/pressure (stretch
    receptors)
68
Q

The posterior pituitary is ……………….. in embryological origin

A

neuronal/neuroectoderm

69
Q

When there is more glucose in glomerular filtrate and that causes polyuria, the mechanistic description we use is:

A

osmotic diuresis

70
Q

The 2 main ways in which azotaemia can occur due to reduced glomerular
filtration rate are: ………. or …………

A

insufficient functional nephrons or insufficient renal perfusion
(blood supply)

71
Q

The piuitary corticotroph produces which hormone?

A

ACTH

72
Q

which hormone does the pineal produce

A

melatonin

73
Q

What effect could increasing pineal hormonal output have?

A

stimulate repro cycles in short-day breeders

74
Q

Plasma from which of the following selection of blood sample types would be most appropriate for the measurement of total calcium?

A

lithium heparin

75
Q

What volume of fluid/day must cats consume to be considered polydipsic?

A

> 45 ml/kg/day

76
Q

Which of these tests has the greatest diagnostic specificity for hyperadrenocorticism (fewest false positives)?

A

ACTH stim

77
Q

What type of blood sample would you use this tube for? (IMAGE)

A

serum

78
Q

From which part of the pituitary does this tissue comes from? (IMAGE)

A

pars distalis

79
Q

from which part of which gland does this tissue come from

A

Corticomedullary junction, adrenal gland

80
Q

Two dogs (A and B) have been given an ACTH stimulation test. Which dog
has a positive result for hyperadrenocorticism? (IMAGE)

A

A

81
Q

The zona ……….. is the outer zone of the adrenal cortex and secretes …………

A

The zona glomerulosa is the outer zone of the adrenal cortex and secretes
mineralocorticoids/aldosterone (accept either)

82
Q

The clinical term for excessive hair growth in ponies with PPID is ……………..

A

hypertrichosis

83
Q

Name four ways in which body shape changes in ponies with PPID

A
  • POT BELLY
  • FAT ABOVE EYES (supraorbital)
  • CRESTY NECK
  • DIPPED BACK
84
Q

Name three clinical signs commonly associated with canine hyperadrenocorticism

A

Accept three from abdominal enlargement, polyuria/polydipsia (count as one), lethargy, polyphagia, muscle wastage, alopecia/dermatological changes.

85
Q

List the three most commonly identified changes on a ROUTINE biochemical profile (not hormone measurements) of a dog whose adrenal cortices have been destroyed by immunological attack?

A

Hyperkalaemia (or accept increased potassium), hyponatraemia (or accept decreased sodium), hypochloraemia (or accept decreased chloride), increased urea, increased creatinine, increased calcium.

86
Q

Dilute urine is commonly seen in canine hyperadrenocorticism. What is the physiological mechanism behind this?

A

Inhibition of the action of ADH in the kidney (secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus)

87
Q

List three abdominal radiographic changes seen in canine hyperadrenocorticism?

A
  • Good contrast
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Pot-bellied appearance
  • Calcinosis cutis
  • Distended bladder
  • Adrenal enlargement/ calcification
  • Osteoporosis
88
Q

Vetoryl® is a treatment used for hyperadrenocorticism. The starting dose in 2mg/kg SID. It comes in capsules and is available as 10mg, 30mg, 60mg in pack sizes of 30 capsules. The capsules cannot not be split. You have a 26 kg dog
What are your dispensing options and costs for 1 months’ supply?

A

26kg x 2mg/kg = 52mg
1x30 mg + 2 x10mg SID = 1.9mg/kg (28.70+28.70+36.53 = £93.93)
1 x60 mg SID = 2.3 mg/kg (£46.31)

89
Q

A salesman for an in-clinic laboratory device leaves a demonstration machine with you for you to evaluate. You want to check the imprecision of the machine when measuring cortisol. You run the same patient sample through the machine 4 times and obtain the following results:
Calculate the mean, the Standard deviation (SD) and the coefficient of variation
(%).
Round your mean to the nearest whole number before calculating SD to make
the calculations easier. The formula for SD is provided below:

A

Mean = 401/4 = 100.25 (round to 100)
Differences = 3, 4, 5, 5
Differences squared = 9, 16, 25, 25
Sum of squares = 75
Sum of squares divided by n-1 = 75/3 = 25
SD = sqrt of 25 = 5
CV = 5/100 = 0.05 = 5%

90
Q

Where in the body does 1-alpha hydroxylation of 25-hydroxyvitamin D occur?

A

kidney

91
Q

What is the name of the hormone produced by certain tumours that may result in humoral hypercalcaemia of malignancy

A

PTHrp

92
Q

What is the preferred first choice diagnostic test for choice for feline hyperthyroidism?

A

Total T4

93
Q

FGF-23 has a central role in secondary renal hyperparathyroidism. What does it do?

A
  • promote real phosphate loss
  • inhibit calcitriol production
94
Q

Stimulation of the alpha and beta adrenoceptors in smooth muscles generally cause which combination of outcomes?

A

A1 constriction/contraction
B2 dilation/relaxation

95
Q

What is the most likely presentation for acute hypocalcaemia in a dairy cow?

A

recumbency - with muscle weakness

96
Q

Where is it best to administer a calciumborogluconate solution to a recumbent dairy cow affected by acute periparturient hypocalcaemia?

A

in to the jugular vein

97
Q

Which of the following GI symptoms is a sign of hypocalcaemia in a dairy cow?

A

constipation

98
Q

Why do cows with hypocalcaemia become tachycardic?

A

reduced force of contraction, reduced stroke volume

99
Q

Dogs with hypothyroidism often present with alopecia because the hair is retained in which phase of the hair cycle?

A

Telogen

100
Q

Lymphocytic thyroiditis is a common cause of thyroid disease in dogs, how would you classify this type of hypothyroidism?

A

primary hypothyroidism

101
Q

An increase in which ROUTINE biochemical parameter is commonly seen in hypothyroid dogs?

A

cholesterol

102
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for the production of active T3?

A

deiodinase

103
Q

An increase in epinephrine will cause blood glucose concentrations to ………….

A

increase

104
Q

Which piece of equipment is used to administer calcium borogluconate solution intravenously through a needle to cows with milk fever?

A

flutter valve

105
Q

A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal ……………. which secretes …………

A

A phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal medulla which secretes catecholamines (accept norepinephrine [noradrenalin] or epinephrine [adrenalin]).

106
Q

Name a therapeutic steroid which has both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid activity?

A

prednisolone

107
Q

Name the three mechanisms by which PTH acts to increase plasma calcium in response to hypocalcaemia?

A

increased reabsorption from bone, increased absorption from intestine/GIT, increased renal reabsorption/conservation (OK to say some of these are mediated/augmented by vit D3 “activation”)

108
Q

List three of the more commonly identified changes on a biochemical profile of a dog with hyperadrenocorticism?

A
  • increased ALP
  • Increased ALT
  • cholesterol
  • triglycerides
  • glucose
  • decreased BUN
109
Q

The x-ray highlights a number of changes observed in a dog with an endocrinopathy, please
describe A, B and C and suggest which endocrinopathy is present.

A

A: excessive SC fat (obesity),
B: enlarged bladder/bladder stones (uroliths),
C: enlarged liver (hepatomegaly). Suggestive of HAC.

110
Q

You need to administer soluble insulin in an infusion at a dose of 0.05IU/kg/hour to treat a case of diabetic ketoacidosis. Your patient weighs 9kg but you estimate he is 10% dehydrated. You have calculated a 2ml/kg/hr maintenance fluid. After correcting 90% of the deficit in 4 hours, you plan to correct his remaining fluid deficit and deliver maintenance over 20 hours resulting in a calculated fluid flow rate of 25mls per hour. You have only 1 good vein and you can’t find any 3-way taps or multi-ports. A) How many units of insulin would you add to a 500ml bag of fluid? B) How many ml of 100IU/ml soluble insulin would that be?

A

0.05IU/kg x 9kg = 0.45units per hour
0.45IU in 25ml = 0.018IU/ml [0.45(units)/25(ml)]
To achieve this concentration in 500ml = 0.018 x 500 = 9IU
B:9IU of 100IU/ml = 0.09ml

ENI 2 (81 decks)

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