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Anesthesia and Sugery > Quizzes: 4-6 > Flashcards

Quizzes: 4-6 Flashcards

1
Q

The reduction in alveolar minute ventilation leading to an insufficient elimination of CO2 from the body is known as…

A

hypoventilation

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2
Q

The insufficient amount of oxygen in arterials blood that results in reduced oxygen concentration is known as…

A

hypoxemia

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3
Q

The clinical situation where there is below normal arterial blood pressure is known as…

A

hypotension

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4
Q

The clinical situation where there is a body temperature that is below normal is known as…

A

hypothermia

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5
Q

Which of the following PaCO2 levels would be considered also known Hypercapnia

A

50 mm Hg

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6
Q

Which of the following are contributors to hypoventilation?

A

anesthetic agents

increased mechanical dead space

exhausted CO2 absorbent

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7
Q

How can hypoventilation be prevented?

A

Providing an anesthetic patient 1 – 2 positive pressure ventilations / minute.

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of Hypoxemia?

A

V/Q mismatch

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9
Q

V/Q mismatch is defined as…

A

ventilation of a lung area without sufficient perfusion of the lung area.
perfusion of a lung area without sufficient ventilation of the lung area.

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10
Q

Which of the following would be a cause of V/Q mismatch?

A

Long term lateral recumbency of a canine anesthesia patient

Atelectasis

Bronchial intubation

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11
Q

Severe hypoventilation, which can lead to hypoxemia, is of most concern during which period of anesthesia?

A

Recovery

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12
Q

Which of the following is / are a method(s) for preventing Hypoxemia?

A

Intubating and placing an anesthetic patient on 100% oxygen regardless of inhalation anesthetic use.

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13
Q

Treating Hypoxemia can be difficult. Of the following, which option would be recommended?

A

Positive pressure ventilation, holding the inspiratory pressure of 15 – 20 cm of H2O for 3-5 seconds.

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14
Q

A MAP that is less than 60 mm Hg in an anesthetized cat is an indication of…

A

hypotension

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15
Q

Excessive Inspiratory Pressure (Inspiratory positive pressure ventilation – IPPV) can lead to…

A

increased pressure on the vena cava resulting in decreased blood returning to the heart (preload)

rupture of alveoli
pneumothorax and hypoxia

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16
Q

Which of the following could be used for treating hypotension?

A

Fluids

Inotropes

Sympathomimetics

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17
Q

Relative Hypovolemia is due to…

A

Vasodilation

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18
Q

Which of the following physical parameters may indicated hypovolemia?

A

Prolonged capillary refill time (CRT)

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19
Q

What is the percentage of total blood volume loss that a healthy patient undergoing surgery
Would NOT be able to tolerate?

A

21%

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20
Q

What is the ratio of the volume of crystalloids administered to the volume of blood loss?

A

3 ml for every 1 ml of blood loss

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21
Q

Which of the following fluid types may be beneficial for the treatment of blood loss?

A

Hypertonic Saline

Synthetic Colloids

Blood Products

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22
Q

Which of the following statements if FALSE for hypothermia?

A

The use of electrical heating pads or warming fluid bags in the microwave are acceptable methods of warming patients.

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23
Q

Which of the following statements if FALSE for hypoglycemia?

A

Blood glucose levels are less important to monitor in pediatric patients than is healthy adults.

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24
Q

Hyperthermia has many causes including anesthetic medication. Which of the following
statements if FALSE for hyperthermia?

A

The use of icepacks, full submersion in a cool water or alcohol bath is the treatment of choice for hyperthermia.

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25
Q

Hyperventilation occurs when PaCO2 is less than 35 mm Hg. It can be caused by…

A

Pain perception during anesthesia

Positive pressure ventilation that results in an excessive tidal volume administration or an excessive respiratory rate. Hyperthermia

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26
Q

Which of the following drugs would NOT have a side effect of hypertension?

A

acepromazine

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27
Q

Which of the following is / are appropriate treatment(s) for apnea of an anesthetic patient?

A

Decrease the delivery % of the inhalation agent

Use PPV until the patient begins spontaneous ventilation

Administer butorphanol if a pure Mu agonist had been administered.

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28
Q

In general, which of the following anesthesia patients would be more prone to postoperative myopathy?

A

an 80 pound Labrador Retriever.

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29
Q

Which of the following is / are a warning sign(s) for Cardiopulmonary Arrest CPA?

A

Agonal breaths

Unresponsive hypotension

Irregular pulses

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30
Q

Which of the following from the lecture were drugs to be used cautiously or not at all compared to the reading assignment?

A

Lidocaine and Doxapram

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31
Q

When administering an IV crystalloid fluid, how much of the fluid stays in the intravascular space?

A

one third

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32
Q

What is the preferred route of fluid administration?

A

IV

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33
Q

What is the phase of fluid therapy related to restoring vascular volume or reversing hypovolemic shock?

A

Resuscitation phase

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34
Q

When correcting for dehydration, which of the following statement is FALSE?

A

The patient only needs to be given the volume of fluids to correct for dehydration

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35
Q

Maintenance fluids are to be administered at which rate(s)

A 
40 – 60 ml / kg / day 
or 
30 ml / lb / day 
or 
2 – 4 ml / kg / hour
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36
Q

Which of the following analgesic medications are available as a transdermal patch?

A

Fentanyl and Lidocaine

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37
Q

Based on lecture, which of the following analgesic medications has action at the NMDA Receptor?

A

Ketamine and Methadone

38
Q

What is the newer NSAID that is unique by not affecting COX-1 or COX-2 enzyme activity but specifically blocks a type of prostaglandin receptor that normally medicates pain and inflammation?

A

Grapiprant (Galliprant)

39
Q

Packed Red Cells for transfusion contain…

A

Red Blood Cells and White Blood Cells only

40
Q

What component is missing in stored whole blood compared to fresh whole blood?

A

Platelets

41
Q

Which of the following is / are indications for the transfusion of Frozen Plasma?

A

hypoproteinemia

rodenticide toxicity

Von Willebrand’s Disease

42
Q

What are some transfusion reactions (side effects from transfusion) ?

A

fever

hives

circulatory overload

43
Q

For which DEA (Dog Erythrocyte Antigen) is the most important to cross match?

A

DEA-1

44
Q

A DEA-1 negative dog can be a donor for…

A 
DEA-1 negative dog 
or
A DEA-1 positive dog 
or
 A DEA-4 positive dog
45
Q

Which of the following statements is / are TRUE for transfusion medicine in cats?

A

most cats a blood type A

many cats in Hawaii are blood type B

cats must be cross matched before transfusion

46
Q

Which of the following statements is / are TRUE for the transfusion or packed red blood cells to a dog?

A

Temperature and heart rate of the patient should initially be monitored every 5 minutes, then every 15 minutes

47
Q

What is the maximum amount of time a bag of packed Red Blood Cells, once spiked (open) should be allowed to be at room temperature?

A

4 hours

48
Q

Which of the following statements is / are TRUE for administering a frozen plasma product?

A

The plasma should be allowed to thaw slowly.

A fluid pump can be used for the administration of thawed plasma.

The plasma should be placed inside a “ziplock” bag and placed in a 30 – 37 degree (C ) water bath.

49
Q

Rehabilitation is primarily used to treat which of the following?

A

Musculoskeletal and neurologic disorders

50
Q

Which exercise is targeted for better awareness of where the body is in relationship to the surroundings?

A

Proprioceptive

51
Q

Which exercise is targeted for better posture and gait?

A

Neuromuscular Reeducation

52
Q

Passive Range of Motion therapy is…

A

Flexion and extension of a joint within its normal ability to move.

53
Q

Therapeutic ultrasound therapy is…

A

The use of sound waves that can increase circulation, reduce joint contractures, enhance wound healing or stretching scar tissue.

54
Q

Massage therapy is…

A

The systematic and scientific manipulation of soft tissues of the body which can relieve soft-tissue pain from trigger points

55
Q

Pulsed Electromagnetic Field Therapy (PEMF)

A

The use of magnetic energy waves that stimulated the production of proteoglycans and collagen by cartilage cells and connective tissue.

56
Q

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) is…

A

The use of electrical stimulation to produce analgesia for chronic and acute pain.

57
Q

Neuromuscular Electrical Stimulations (NMES) is…

A

The use of electrical stimulation to decrease muscle atrophy by contracting muscle fibers resulting in decreased fatigue of those fibers.

58
Q

Cryotherapy is…

A

The use of cold modalities to cause vasoconstriction (which decreases bruising), slows nerve conduction (decreasing pain) and decreases enzyme activity (decreasing inflammation).

59
Q

Low-Level Laser Therapy (LLLT) is…

A

The use of light waves to treat pain, stimulated healing, stimulate acupuncture points and reduce edema.

60
Q

Which of the following is are benefits of hydrotherapy?

A

Increased joint range of motion

Enhanced circulation

Facilitates balance

61
Q

For post-surgical go-home instructions, what is the minimum frequency an owner should monitor the surgical site?

A

at least twice daily

62
Q

Which of the following is / are TRUE when managing a feeding tube patient?

A

Using a therapeutic recovery diet will ensure that no large chunks of food are present to get lodged in the tube.

63
Q

A patient that has undergone perianal surgery should…

A

have a high fiber diet to keep the stool soft.

have the surgical site kept clean using warm water soaked cloths to remove discharge

have petroleum jelly applied to the surgical site to help prevent serum scald.

64
Q

Which of the following is / are TRUE for a post-surgical onychectomy patient?

A

The patient should have shredded newspaper as a litter substrate

65
Q

Which of the following is / are TRUE for Aural Hematomas?

A

They are more common in the dog than the cat

A placed drain will usually need to be in for 2 – 3 weeks

66
Q

The Second Phase of Wound healing involves….

A

proliferation of fibroblasts

67
Q

Which of the following structures is considered the weakest after surgical healing?

A

skin

68
Q

What is the term for a non-traumatic surgical wound that does not have any infected or nonviable tissue?

A

clean

69
Q

A wound in the oral cavity is considered…

A

contaminated

70
Q

Which of the following steps should be taken in order to clean a wound?

A

Prior to clipping the hair around the wound, sterile lube should be placed to cover the wound.

71
Q

This type of wound closure occurs within 1-5 days after an injury occurs. It is used for moderately contaminated or traumatized wounds. The wound should be free of infection.

A

Delayed Primary Closure

72
Q

This type of wound is not surgically closed. “Closure” is by contraction and epithelialization.

A

Secondary Intention Healing

73
Q

The primary bandage layer…

A

Delivers medication and transmits wound exudate away from the wound.

74
Q

The secondary bandage layer…

A

Absorbs serum, blood, exudate and acts as padding for the wound.

75
Q

The tertiary bandage layer…

A

Is composed of stiff material and prevents contamination, minimizes swelling and minimizes motion.

76
Q

Topical Dressings / Medications include which of the following?

A

Iodine impregnated Telfa pad.

Silver impregnated gauze

Hydrogels

77
Q

Honey can be used as a topical dressing because…

A

it has an acidic pH that encourages blood hemoglobin to release oxygen.

the sugar has an osmotic effect

it has an antibacterial effect especially with methicillin-resistnat Staphylococus aureus (MRSA)

78
Q

Which of the following sterile packs has the longest shelf life?

A

Heat-sealed paper and transparent plastic pouches in an open cabinet

79
Q

Which of the following sterile packs has the shortest shelf life?

A

Single wrapped muslin pack in an open cabinet

80
Q

Which of the following agents are Bacteriocidal and NOT inactivated by organic matter?

A

Phenolic compounds

81
Q

What are the sterile settings needed for a Gravity Air Displacement Sterilizer?

A

250 degrees F, 15 psi, 13 minutes

82
Q

A laparosope is usually cleaned with…

A

Alcohol and gauze

83
Q

An Endoscope is usually cleaned with…

A

an enzymatic cleaner

84
Q

Which of the following is / are sources for waste anesthetic gas?

A

exhalation of patient

escaped gasses from an anesthesia machine

filling an anesthetic vaporizer

85
Q

In general, adverse health effects are associated with…

A

high levels of waste anesthetic gas

86
Q

When choosing a mask to filter waste anesthetic gas…

A

choose one that has an activated charcoal filter

87
Q

Activated Charcoal cartridges are….

A

a means to scavenge waste anesthetic gas if an active savenging system is not present.

88
Q

Common areas of leakage of waste anesthetic gas from an anesthesia machine….

A

reservoir bag connection, flutter valves, carbon dioxide absorber canister

89
Q

What method(s) is / are able to be utilized to accurately determine levels of waste anesthetic gas in a hospital environment?

A

dosimeter badge

90
Q

What precautions should be in place when handling injectable anesthetic agents?

A

reversal agents should be present

a first aid kit should be available

never work alone when handling these drugs

Anesthesia and Sugery (15 decks)

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