Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesia and Sugery > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

While monitoring an animal under isoflurane anesthesia on a partial rebreathing system, your oxygen tank is getting low. The surgery is going to take longer than expected and you realize you will run out of oxygen before the surgery is over. What is the best course of action?

A

a. Have a colleague prep a second isoflurane anesthesia machine for you with an appropriate amount of oxygen. Then, disconnect the patient from the first machine and reconnect to the second machine.
b. If no other anesthetic machine is available, have a colleague get another oxygen tank with enough oxygen, disconnect the patient from the machine and quickly, reattach the new tank, and reconnect the patient to the machine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is / are TRUE for Pediatric Patients that are undergoing anesthesia?

A

a. The dose of injectable anesthetics administered is often 1/2 to 2/3 the dose given to mature animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following induction agents is especially a good choice for cardiac patients?

A

Etomidate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the most common cause of death of the postanesthetic period patient?

A

Dyspnea from upper airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following premedications should be avoided for use in a patient with cardiovascular disease?

A

Ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Relative Hypovolemia is due to…

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the ratio of the volume of crystalloids administered to the volume of blood loss?

A

3 ml for every 1 ml of blood los

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following drugs would NOT have a side effect of hypertension?

A

acepromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following 7% hypertonic saline administration rates is recommended for a cat?

A

3 ml / kg delivered over 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the NSAID that has the primary effect of decreasing prostaglandin synthesis in the
Brain tissue, is central acting, is very toxic to, and can be fatal to, cats?

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Untreated pain can lead to…

A

a. wasting
b. arrhythmias
c. death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is / are the major adverse effect(s) of NSAIDs that causes them not to be used as pre-emptive or intraoperative analgesics unless IV fluids and arterial blood pressure monitoring is available?

A

Decreased renal blood flow, renal hypoxia and possible renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following analgesic plans target three different pain mechanisms?

A

Morphine IM, Ketamine CRI, Lidocaine nerve block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Based on lecture, which of the following has action at the NMDA Receptor?

A

Ketamine and Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following statements is / are TRUE for the transfusion or packed red blood cells to a dog?

A

Temperature and heart rate of the patient should initially be monitored every 5 minutes, then every 15 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which exercise is targeted for better posture and gait?

A

Neuromuscular Reeducation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which is / are the primary influence for decreasing anesthetic gas levels during surgery?

A

The scavenging system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation (TENS) is…

A

The use of electrical stimulation to produce analgesia for chronic and acute pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When using an active scavenging system, what happens if the suction is excessive?

A

The reservoir bag collapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT HELP DECREASE waste gas exposure?

A

Use anesthetic induction chambers and anesthetic masks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When extubating an anesthetic patient, an alternate strategy is to leave the E.T. tube cuff inflated until the patient swallows. What is / are the rationale for this?

A

This will help prevent the patient from aspirating vomitus

22
Q

Which of the following is TRUE for the treatment of hypoglycemic patients that are slow to recover?

A

Intravenous injection via CRI may be required

23
Q

Which of the following is / are TRUE when managing a feeding tube patient?

A

Using a therapeutic recovery diet will ensure that no large chunks of food are present to get lodged in the tube.

24
Q

For post-surgical go-home instructions, what is the minimum frequency an owner should monitor the surgical site?

A

at least twice daily

25
Q

A patient that has undergone perianal surgery should…

A

a. have a high fiber diet to keep the stool soft.
b. have the surgical site kept clean using warm water soaked cloths to remove discharge
c. have petroleum jelly applied to the surgical site to help prevent serum scald.

26
Q

A wound in the oral cavity is considered…

A

Contaminated

27
Q

Which of the following steps should be taken in order to clean a wound?

A

Prior to clipping the hair around the wound, sterile lube should be placed to cover the wound.

28
Q

Which of the following agents are Bacteriocidal and NOT inactivated by organic matter?

A

Phenolic compounds

29
Q

What method(s) is / are able to be utilized to accurately determine levels of waste anesthetic gas in a hospital environment?

A

dosimeter badge

30
Q

What is the placement of the OHE patient on the surgery prep table?

A

a. Dorsal recumbency

b. Lateral (Left) recumbency if pregant

31
Q

If the neonate has no heart beat and compressions were unsuccessful, what drug should be administered under the tongue?

A

epinephrine

32
Q

What is TRUE for an intra-abdominal approach to neutering a cryptorchid dog?

A

The surgical incision must continue passing by the lateral aspect of the penis

33
Q

Scrotal bleeding can occur with canine and feline castration. Which of the following
postoperative treatments is beneficial to establish hemostasis?

A

cryotherapy

34
Q

Which of the following medications may be contraindicated in a cat with urolithiasis?

A

meloxicam

35
Q

When an Intussusception occurs…

A

the proximal end (oral) of the intestine usually telescopes into the distal end (aboral)

36
Q

When performing an intestinal resection with anastomosis which of the following is / are TRUE for clamping technique?

A

Carmalt forceps should be used on the side of the intestine that is to be removed and Doyen clamps should be used on the side of the intestine that is going to be anastomosed.

37
Q

What diagnostic procedure may be indicated with a partial obstruction from an intussusception?

A

barium contrast study

38
Q

Which of the following is / are physical exam findings of a patient with a GDV?

A

tympanic abdomen

39
Q

Which of the following radiographic positions should not be attempted on a patient with a GDV?

A

Ventrodorsal view

40
Q

Most PSS are…

A

extrahepatic

41
Q

After incising and draining the aural hematoma, why is plastic tubing placed

A

The plastic tubing allows for even pressure to be placed on either side of the incision site without the suture digging into the tissue.

42
Q

Common outcome to untreated entropion is / are…

A

a. Corneal ulceration
b. Corneal hyperpigmentation
c. Visual defects

43
Q

Which of the following patients is / are predisposed to prolapse gland of the nictitans?

A

6 month old French Bulldog

44
Q

Which of the following would be a reason to remove the gland of the nictitans?

A

tumor of the gland

45
Q

Anal Sacculectomy is NOT indicated for…

A

acute anal sac infection

46
Q

A patient that has a femoral fracture should be seen by a veterinarian right away because…

A

the patient is usually a trauma patient and needs to be stabilized

47
Q

Which of the following is / are TRUE for scapulohumeral disarticulation?

A

increased potential for pressure sores

48
Q

What is the general outcome for a scapulothoracic amputee?

A

Most dogs return to a high level of activity for their age

49
Q

Which of the following is FALSE for a femoral head osteotomy?

A

it is the surgery of choice for the treatment of hip dysplasia.

50
Q

FHO surgery requires…

A

the patient placed in lateral recumbency with the affected side “up”

Anesthesia and Sugery (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions