Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a false statement for a monopolar electrosurgery unit?

A

has a hand piece that resembles thumb tissue forceps and therefore does not require a ground plate for the patient.

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2
Q

Which of the following is false when administering an injectable anesthetic induction
drug?

A

The dose in volume is appropriate as the only entry of the amount administered into the medical record.

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3
Q

Which of the following would be the most correct process for the Final (Sterile) Preparation of the surgical site?

A

Scrubbed with Chlorhexidine Gluconate Scrub, Rinsed with 70% Isopropyl Alcohol, Painted with a 0.2% Chlorhexidine Solution

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4
Q

What surgical preparation clipping guide would be necessary for a Spay (ovariohysterectomy – OHE)?

A

xiphoid to pubis, laterally to edge of ribs

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5
Q

Which of the following is FALSE when wearing a surgical mask in surgery?

A

If you need to sneeze you should step away from the sterile field and turn your head away from the sterile field.

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6
Q

“E” tanks containing compressed oxygen…

A

when full have a pressure reading of 2200 psi

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7
Q

This structure on the anesthetic machine decreases the oxygen pressure to 15 psi.

A

Oxygen Flow Meter

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8
Q

Which of the following scissors are used for delicate surgical dissection, with thin blades and about 1/4th the overall length of the instrument?

A

Metzenbaum Scissors

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9
Q

What are the hemostats that have horizontal serration that only extend ½ the length of the jaw?

A

Kelly Hemostats

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10
Q

This absorbable monofilament suture material has good relative knot security, mild tissue reactivity, maintains up to 69% tensile strength at 42 days post-surgery and is completely absorbed in 180 days.

A

PDS

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11
Q

This anesthesia machine structure delivers pure oxygen at a rate of 35 to 75 Liters per minute when used. What is this structure?

A

oxygen flush valve

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12
Q

Immediately after administering a manual ventilation (with a partial-rebreathing (semi closed) system the anesthetist…

A

opens the “pop-off” valve

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13
Q

After injectable anesthetic induction, continued gas anesthetic induction is usually necessary to have the patient achieve maintenance anesthesia. Which of the following
anesthetic gas induction protocols is best for a 30 kg patient on a partial rebreathing
system (semi-closed)?

A

Isoflurane at 3% and Oxygen Flow rate at 3 Liters per minute

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14
Q

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection is known as…

A

asepsis

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15
Q

Which of the following is usually NOT the responsibility of the circulating nurse?

A

They perform retraction during surgery

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16
Q

When scrubbing in for a surgical procedure, which are considered the “dirtiest” areas?

A

Under the fingernails and the webbing between the fingers.

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17
Q

When Quarter Draping, what is the sequence of placing drapes?

A

close, caudal, cranial, far

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18
Q

Which of the following suture material has more ability to harbor bacterial contaminants?

A

regular Vicryl

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19
Q

Inhalation anesthetic agents commonly in use today will require what type of vaporizer?

A

precision vaporizer out of the circuit

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20
Q

Dehydration can be assessed by PCV, TP/PP, Skin Turgor, position of the globe in the orbit,
mucous membrane moistness. At what point can dehydration be assessed on physical
assessment?

A

5%

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21
Q

Which of the following statements is / are true for an IV catheter for a small animal
anesthesia patient?

A

Choose one that is the largest in diameter that will fit into the lumen of the vein.

22
Q

What would be the minimum acceptable heart rate for a 4 year old, 66 pound (30 kg) mixed
breed dog in Stage III, Plane 2 (Moderate / Surgical) anesthesia?

A

70 beats per minute

23
Q

Which of the following is / are a normal for an anesthetized cat?

A

Arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) of 97%

24
Q

When during general anesthesia does endotracheal intubation usually occur?

A

Stage III plane 1 / Light

25
Q

The P wave of an ECG tracing is indicative of…

A

atrial depolarization

26
Q

What is the term for ineffective circulation or lack of movement of the heart while still having electrical activity seen on the ECG?

A

Pulseless Electrical activity

27
Q

These Analgesics are effective in reducing inflammation and work well given as pre-anesthetic agents. They inhibit the activity of COX-1 and/or COX-2 enzymes, may decrease platelet function and can harm the production of cartilage. What is this group of drugs?

A

NSAID’s

28
Q

These Analgesics inhibit the release of norepinephrine and therefore inhibit nerve impulse transmission. They also cause sedation and muscle relaxation. Some of the side effects include hypertension and bradycardia. What is this group of drugs?

A

Alpha-2 agonists

29
Q

Which of the following is/are TRUE to confirm proper endotracheal tube placement in an anesthetic patient?

A

a. Feeling air movement from the distal end of the endotracheal tube.
b. Fogging of the tube (assuming it is a clear tube) from moist exhaled air.
c. Palpating only one firm central structure in the neck (trachea).

30
Q

Povidone Iodine has which of the following characteristics?

A

a. It can be used as a solution for ophthalmic surgery

b. It is deactivated by organic debris.

31
Q

Chlorhexidine Gluconate has which of the following characteristics?

A

It is toxic to the eye and can damage the cornea

32
Q

Which of the following clinical signs, when monitoring an adult medium sized canine anesthetic patient, informs the anesthetist that the patient is at an appropriate surgical level of anesthesia?

A

ventrodorsal rotation of the globe (eye), absent palpebral reflex, 10 breaths/minute, 120 heart beats/minute, very slight jaw tone.

33
Q

Which of the following species is (respiratory) sinus arrythmia NOT considered a normal finding?

A

cats

34
Q

What is Second degree AV heart block?

A

When occasionally there is a P wave without a corresponding QRS – T segment

35
Q

What should the Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) be in the anesthetized dog or cat?

A

70-90 mmHg

36
Q

Normal ETCO2 is…

A

35mmHg - 45mmHg

37
Q

Local Anesthetics can block…

A

a. Transduction

b. Transmission

38
Q

When administering an anticholinergic / parasympatholytic, what type(s) of additional care should be provided to an anesthetic patient?

A

Eye lubrication needs to be administered

39
Q

Paradoxical effects like disorientation in dogs and aggression in cats can occur with this
group of controlled drugs and is recommended to be used in combination therapy with other preanesthetic agents.

A

Benzodiazepines

40
Q

These noncontrolled drugs when administered can cause vomiting and have an early dose
dependent vasoconstriction resulting in hypertension and reflex bradycardia.

A

Alpha-2 Agonists

41
Q

This group of noncontrolled drugs have antiarrhythmic and antihistamine effects but can
cause vasodilation induced hypotension.

A

Phenothiazines

42
Q

This injectable sedative-hypnotic imidazole has minimal cardiovascular and respiratory
effects, and is thought to augment the action of GABA. It is also costly, painful upon
injection, and causes nausea and vomiting.

A

etomidate

43
Q

This injectable dissociative anesthetic is commonly mixed with diazepam or midazolam and
Administered IV. When this mixture is administered IV, intubation can occur.

A

ketamine

44
Q

The lower the partition coefficient for an inhalation anesthetic means that patients …

A

have a faster induction to maintenance anesthesia and a faster recovery.

45
Q

An inhalation anesthetic agent with a higher M.A.C. value will have…

A

a higher precision vaporizer setting for induction and maintenance

46
Q

Which of the following is / are reasons some veterinarians do not use atropine in cats?

A

Cats can produce thick mucous causing E.T. tube obstruction as a result of atropine administration.

47
Q

Which of the following is an example of neuroleptanalgesia

A

hydromorphone and midazolam

48
Q

Barbiturates are not commonly used in veterinary anesthesia. Which of the following barbiturates is primarily used as a Euthanasia Agent?

A

Pentobarbital

49
Q

Which anesthetic agent is a neuroactive steroid that enhances GABAA receptors by allowing an influx of chloride ions into cells?

A

Alfaxalone

50
Q

Propofol, when compared to Alfaxalone ….

A

a. Propofol has more cardiovascular suppression

b. Propofol has a higher risk of apnea