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Anesthesia and Sugery > Quizzes 1-3 > Flashcards

Quizzes 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection is known as…

A

asepsis

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2
Q

The sterile field for a surgical gown is?

A

2 inches above the elbow to the edge of the cuff and the front of the chest to the level of the surgical table

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3
Q

Contamination of the sterile field that occurs through the passage of fluid through or a puncture in the microbial barrier is

A

Strike-through

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4
Q

Which of the following is usually not the responsibility of the circulating nurse?

A

they perform retraction during surgery

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5
Q

When planning the surgery schedule for the day one should schedule

A

the cleanest procedures first and progress with the dirties procedures last

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6
Q

When scrubbing in for a surgical procedure, which are considered the dirtiest area

A

under the fingernails and the webbing between the fingers

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7
Q

Open gloving would not be used for which of the following procedures

A

dog abdominal exploratory

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8
Q

Which of the following is true when handling a curved surgery needle

A

when placing suture material through the eye of a surgical needle, the suture passes through the eye from the inside of the curve to the outside

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9
Q

When quarter draping, what is the sequence of placing drapes

A

close, caudal, cranial, far

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10
Q

Which of the following states are true for suture patterns

A

the subcuticular pattern is placed at the skin margin just superficial to the subcutaneous and can circumvent the need for external skin sutures
the simple interrupted pattern has more knots which can lead to the increased possibility of the tissue reaction
the interrupted vertical mattress pattern offers tissue security with less compromised of blood supply compared to the horizontal mattress pattern

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11
Q

Which is true for surgical suction

A

the suction tube should be in a sterile package
the suction could be mechanical or manual
the suction tube end connected to the suction tip should be kept sterile

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12
Q

This suction tip is best for abdominal fluid suction during surgery

A

poole

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13
Q

Which needle holder has imbedded scissors in the jaw

A

Olsen-Hegar

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14
Q

Which forceps are best for intestinal surgery requiring an anastomosis?

A

Doyens

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15
Q

Which biopsy instrument is most appropriate for bone?

A

Michele

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16
Q

Which instrument is like a melon baller and is used to scoop out necrotic bone?

A

bone curette

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17
Q

Surgical wire

A

is usually made of stainless steel
has a gauge size that with increased gauge size there is decreased thickness
has little to no tissue reactivity

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18
Q

Which of the following surgical needles is most commonly used in veterinary surgery?

A

reverse cutting

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19
Q

Synthetic suture

A

if absorbable is done so by hydrolysis

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20
Q

Which of the following suture material has more ability to harbor bacterial contaminants

A

regular vicryl

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21
Q

when should a charcoal canister in a passive scavenging anesthetic system be changed based on weight of canister or time in use

A

at 50 grams of weight or 12 hours of use

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22
Q

before an anesthetic procedure occurs, the recommended minimum psi in the E tank that requires the tank to be switched out is

A

500 psi

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23
Q

Which of the following is true for using the oxygen flush valve when the anesthesia machine is connected to an anesthesia patient using a partial rebreathing system

A

it can dilute the anesthetic gas being delivered to the patient

it can be dangerous for the patient by delivering 35 to 75 mL/minute oxygen which can lead to alveolar rupture

it can bypass the flowmeter and vaporizer and deliver 100% oxygen

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24
Q

Inhalation anesthetic agents commonly in use today will require what type of vaporizer

A

precision vaporizer out of the circuit

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25
Q

What is the maximum pressure you should deliver when manually ventilating a small animal anesthetic patient

A

20 cm H20

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26
Q

How frequently should a test for low pressure leaks on an anesthetic system be performed

A

before each use

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27
Q

Why should PPE, a respiratory protective mask and gloves, be worn when changing the carbon dioxide absorbent granules

A

inhalation of the dust is corrosive to mucous membranes

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28
Q

A rebreathing system

A

should be used on patients that weigh 7 kg or more
uses less oxygen flow than a non-rebreathing system
conserves heat and moisture

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29
Q

Of the following which of the types of dead space can we control and modify

A

mechanical

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30
Q

The surgical/anesthesia owner consent form for a patient should include

A

signalment
procedure
owner contact information

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31
Q

Which are normal PCV %s for the dog and cat?

A

Dogs 36%-54%

Cats 25%-46%

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32
Q

What are normal total plasma protein levels

A

Dogs 5.5-7.5 g/dL

Cats 6.5-8.2 g/dL

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33
Q

Which lab results gauge indicative of hypoglycemia

A

blood glucose of 55 mg/dL

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34
Q

Using multiple anesthetic agents in smaller dosages to maximize positive effects and to minimize negative effects is the definition for

A

balanced anesthesia

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35
Q

Using multiple drugs to target multiple nociceptive pathways is known as

A

multimodal analgesia

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36
Q

These analgesics work in the peripheral and central nervous system. Members of this group can be agonists, partial agonists and agonist-antagonists

A

Opioids

37
Q

These analgesics are effective in reducing inflammation and work well given as pre-anesthetic agents. They may decrease platelet function and harm the production of cartilage.

A

NSAIDs

38
Q

These analgesics inhibit the release of norepinephrine and therefore inhibit nerve impulse transmission. They also cause sedation and muscle relaxation. Dexmedatomidine is a member of this group. Some of the side effects include hypertension and bradycardia.

A

Alpha 2 agonists

39
Q

These analgesics are a good alternative to general anesthesia and numb an area after injection. If toxicity occurs it is usually due to an overdose of the analgesic

A

local anesthetics

40
Q

Sedatives and tranquilizers are helpful in reducing stress, fear, and anxiety of a patient. Analgesic medications have better effects when patients receive these drug pairs.

A

Acepromazine and Midazolam

41
Q

Which of the following is true to confirm proper ET tube placement in an anesthetic patient

A

feeling air movement from the distal end of the ET tube
fogging of the tube from moist exhaled air
palpating only one firm central structure in the neck-trachea

42
Q

The anatomic opening through which an ET tube is passed

A

glottis

43
Q

Providone iodine characteristics

A

it can be used as a solution for ophthalmic surgery

it can be deactivated by organic debris

44
Q

Chlorhexadine gluconate characteristics

A

it is toxic to the eye and can damage the cornea

45
Q

When are the anesthetic patients most stable

A

induction and recovery

46
Q

Excitatory stage of anesthesia where the patient struggles

A

Stage 2

47
Q

ET tube intubation occurs during this stage

A

stage 3-light anesthesia

48
Q

This is true for laryngospasm in the anesthetic patient

A

can occur more commonly in cats than in dogs
can be elicited by ET tube stimulation
can be treated or subdued with topical lidocaine

49
Q

Clinical signs for an adult medium canine with the appropriate surgical level of anesthesia

A

ventrodorsal rotation of the globe (eye), absent palpebral reflex, 10 breaths/minute, 120 heart beats/minute, very slight jaw tone

50
Q

Should occur during the recovery period

A

the patient is extubated when swallowing reflex returns
the patient should receive 100% oxygen with no anesthetic agent until extubated
The patient should be stimulated and turned to avoid hypostatic congestion (blood settling to one side of the lungs)

51
Q

Sinus arrythmia is not considered a normal finding in this species

A

cats

52
Q

What is a 2nd degree AV heart block

A

when occasionally there is a P wave without a corresponding QRS-T segment

53
Q

Which ECG lead is to be placed on the right front leg

A

white

54
Q

What should the mean arterial pressure (MAP) be in an anesthetized dog or cat

A

70-90 mm Hg

55
Q

When evaluating mucous membrane color, cyanosis is seen as what color

A

purple/blue

56
Q

What is normal SpO2 of an anesthetized patient on 100% oxygen

A

should be above 95%
can be determined by a pulse oximeter
can be determined by a blood gas analyzer

57
Q

Which two monitoring parameters can be determined by the use of equipment designed to use in the esophagus

A

temperature and heart rate

58
Q

Normal ETCO2 is

A

35mmHg-45mmHg

59
Q

In which of the following clinical situations would an anesthesia patient need mechanical ventilation

A

the patient is obese
the patient is undergoing thoracic surgery
the patient received a neuromuscular blocking agent

60
Q

Onsior and meloxicam are in this drug class. They are pain relievers, non-controlled substances and decrease inflammation that may cause pain

A

NSAIDS

61
Q

This class of analgesic drugs have members that may have multiple different types binding activity )agonists, partial agonists, agonist-antagonists).

A

opioids

62
Q

What is an effect of NSAIDs

A

inhibiting the COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes
effective when incorporated into the surgical premedication protocol
can impair platelet function

63
Q

What is an effect of local anesthetic agents

A

inhibit transduction and transmission of nerve impulses

64
Q

Which of the following are signs of administering an anticholinergic/parasympatholytic

A

bronchodilation
dilation of the pupils
increased cardiac output

65
Q

Why don’t veterinarians use atropine in cats

A

cats can produce thick mucous causing ET tube obstruction as a result of atropine administration

66
Q

Physostigmine is a reversal agent for

A

glycopyrrolate

67
Q

Alpha 2 agnoists

A

cause bradycardia, vasoconstriction, and respiratory depression

68
Q

Which of the following opioid receptors when stimulated does not produce analgesia

A

sigma

69
Q

Which of the following can be adverse effects of opioid use

A

respiratory depression
constipation
increased sensitivity to noise

70
Q

Which of the following is an example of neuroleptanalgesia

A

hydromorphone and midazolam

71
Q

Which barbiturate is primarily used as a euthanasia agent

A

pentobarbital

72
Q

Ketamine and Tilemine are dissassociative anesthetics. These cyclohexamines are painful when administered IM

A

ketamine can be used as a CRI and offers analgesia by inhibiting NMDA receptors in the CNS
tilemine in veterinary medicine is combined with Zolazepam and sold as Telazol
they can have effects such as tachycardia, apneustic breathing, increased intraocular and CSF pressure

73
Q

Ketamine is frequently given in conjunction with other agents to facilitate muscle relaxation. Which is a combination of ketamine and a benzodiazepine

A

ketamine and midazolam

74
Q

Propofol is an injectable hypnotic agent that in some areas of the country is a controlled substance. It is a white milky emulsion and can be used as an indication or maintenance when administered IV. In addition…

A

propofol has a rapid induction and should be titrated to effect

75
Q

Which anesthetic agent is a neuroactive steroid that enhances GABA receptors by allowing an influx of chloride ions into cells

A

Alfaxalone

76
Q

Alfaxalone when compared to Propofol

A

has less cardiovascular suppression
has a lower risk of apnea
is a federally controlled substance in the US

77
Q

This anesthetic agent is a sedative hypnotic imidazole. It is administered IV and has minimal cardiovascular effects

A

Etomidate

78
Q

adverse effects of Etomidate

A

painful IV injection
vomiting
formation of sterile abscesses with perivascular injection

79
Q

Which medication frequently administered with other agents is administered IV primarily as a muscle relaxant offering poor sedation and poor analgesia

A

Guaifenesin

80
Q

is not a halogenated organic compound inhalation agent

A

nitrous oxide

81
Q

Inhalation anesthetic agents enter the bloodstream because of

A

the concentration gradient and lipid solubility at the level of the alveoli

82
Q

What is the target organ for the anesthetic effect of inhalation agents

A

brain

83
Q

The main method of elimination of commonly used anesthetic inhalation halogenated organic compounds

A

lungs

84
Q

An inhalation agent with a low solubility/parturition coefficient

A

has a quick induction and recovery time

85
Q

when comparing Sevoflurane and Isoflurane

A

Sevoflurane is less potent than Isoflurane
Sevoflurane has a quicker onset of action than Isoflurane
Sevoflurane is a better choice form mask induction than Isoflurane

86
Q

Based on MAC value, what is the target setting of a precision vaporizer using an inhalation agent to maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia

A

1.5 x the MAC value

87
Q

What are some of the adverse effects of most inhalation anesthetic agents

A

respiratory depression
decreased glomerular filtration rate with the need to use caution with NSAIDs
depressed myocardial function

88
Q

Which of the following inhalation agents is said to have a single breath induction

A

Desflurane

89
Q

This inhalation agent does not require a precision vaporizer. Its use can also decrease the anesthetic setting of the primary inhalation agent (second gas effect). It should never be used in a closed circuit, thoracic surgery or gastrointestinal surgery.

A

Nitrous oxide

Anesthesia and Sugery (15 decks)

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