Quizzes 1-3 Flashcards by Della Limon

The absence of pathogenic microorganisms that cause infection is known as…

asepsis

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The sterile field for a surgical gown is?

2 inches above the elbow to the edge of the cuff and the front of the chest to the level of the surgical table

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Contamination of the sterile field that occurs through the passage of fluid through or a puncture in the microbial barrier is

Strike-through

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Which of the following is usually not the responsibility of the circulating nurse?

they perform retraction during surgery

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When planning the surgery schedule for the day one should schedule

the cleanest procedures first and progress with the dirties procedures last

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When scrubbing in for a surgical procedure, which are considered the dirtiest area

under the fingernails and the webbing between the fingers

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Open gloving would not be used for which of the following procedures

dog abdominal exploratory

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Which of the following is true when handling a curved surgery needle

when placing suture material through the eye of a surgical needle, the suture passes through the eye from the inside of the curve to the outside

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When quarter draping, what is the sequence of placing drapes

close, caudal, cranial, far

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Which of the following states are true for suture patterns

the subcuticular pattern is placed at the skin margin just superficial to the subcutaneous and can circumvent the need for external skin sutures
the simple interrupted pattern has more knots which can lead to the increased possibility of the tissue reaction
the interrupted vertical mattress pattern offers tissue security with less compromised of blood supply compared to the horizontal mattress pattern

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Which is true for surgical suction

the suction tube should be in a sterile package
the suction could be mechanical or manual
the suction tube end connected to the suction tip should be kept sterile

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This suction tip is best for abdominal fluid suction during surgery

poole

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Which needle holder has imbedded scissors in the jaw

Olsen-Hegar

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Which forceps are best for intestinal surgery requiring an anastomosis?

Doyens

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Which biopsy instrument is most appropriate for bone?

Michele

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Which instrument is like a melon baller and is used to scoop out necrotic bone?

bone curette

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Surgical wire

is usually made of stainless steel
has a gauge size that with increased gauge size there is decreased thickness
has little to no tissue reactivity

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Which of the following surgical needles is most commonly used in veterinary surgery?

reverse cutting

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Synthetic suture

if absorbable is done so by hydrolysis

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Which of the following suture material has more ability to harbor bacterial contaminants

regular vicryl

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when should a charcoal canister in a passive scavenging anesthetic system be changed based on weight of canister or time in use

at 50 grams of weight or 12 hours of use

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before an anesthetic procedure occurs, the recommended minimum psi in the E tank that requires the tank to be switched out is

500 psi

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Which of the following is true for using the oxygen flush valve when the anesthesia machine is connected to an anesthesia patient using a partial rebreathing system

it can dilute the anesthetic gas being delivered to the patient

it can be dangerous for the patient by delivering 35 to 75 mL/minute oxygen which can lead to alveolar rupture

it can bypass the flowmeter and vaporizer and deliver 100% oxygen

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Inhalation anesthetic agents commonly in use today will require what type of vaporizer

precision vaporizer out of the circuit

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What is the maximum pressure you should deliver when manually ventilating a small animal anesthetic patient

20 cm H20

How frequently should a test for low pressure leaks on an anesthetic system be performed

before each use

Why should PPE, a respiratory protective mask and gloves, be worn when changing the carbon dioxide absorbent granules

inhalation of the dust is corrosive to mucous membranes

A rebreathing system

should be used on patients that weigh 7 kg or more uses less oxygen flow than a non-rebreathing system conserves heat and moisture

Of the following which of the types of dead space can we control and modify

mechanical

The surgical/anesthesia owner consent form for a patient should include

signalment procedure owner contact information

Which are normal PCV %s for the dog and cat?

Dogs 36%-54% | Cats 25%-46%

What are normal total plasma protein levels

Dogs 5.5-7.5 g/dL | Cats 6.5-8.2 g/dL

Which lab results gauge indicative of hypoglycemia

blood glucose of 55 mg/dL

Using multiple anesthetic agents in smaller dosages to maximize positive effects and to minimize negative effects is the definition for

balanced anesthesia

Using multiple drugs to target multiple nociceptive pathways is known as

multimodal analgesia

These analgesics work in the peripheral and central nervous system. Members of this group can be agonists, partial agonists and agonist-antagonists

Opioids

These analgesics are effective in reducing inflammation and work well given as pre-anesthetic agents. They may decrease platelet function and harm the production of cartilage.

NSAIDs

These analgesics inhibit the release of norepinephrine and therefore inhibit nerve impulse transmission. They also cause sedation and muscle relaxation. Dexmedatomidine is a member of this group. Some of the side effects include hypertension and bradycardia.

Alpha 2 agonists

These analgesics are a good alternative to general anesthesia and numb an area after injection. If toxicity occurs it is usually due to an overdose of the analgesic

local anesthetics

Sedatives and tranquilizers are helpful in reducing stress, fear, and anxiety of a patient. Analgesic medications have better effects when patients receive these drug pairs.

Acepromazine and Midazolam

Which of the following is true to confirm proper ET tube placement in an anesthetic patient

feeling air movement from the distal end of the ET tube fogging of the tube from moist exhaled air palpating only one firm central structure in the neck-trachea

The anatomic opening through which an ET tube is passed

glottis

Providone iodine characteristics

it can be used as a solution for ophthalmic surgery | it can be deactivated by organic debris

Chlorhexadine gluconate characteristics

it is toxic to the eye and can damage the cornea

When are the anesthetic patients most stable

induction and recovery

Excitatory stage of anesthesia where the patient struggles

Stage 2

ET tube intubation occurs during this stage

stage 3-light anesthesia

This is true for laryngospasm in the anesthetic patient

can occur more commonly in cats than in dogs can be elicited by ET tube stimulation can be treated or subdued with topical lidocaine

Clinical signs for an adult medium canine with the appropriate surgical level of anesthesia

ventrodorsal rotation of the globe (eye), absent palpebral reflex, 10 breaths/minute, 120 heart beats/minute, very slight jaw tone

Should occur during the recovery period

the patient is extubated when swallowing reflex returns the patient should receive 100% oxygen with no anesthetic agent until extubated The patient should be stimulated and turned to avoid hypostatic congestion (blood settling to one side of the lungs)

Sinus arrythmia is not considered a normal finding in this species

cats

What is a 2nd degree AV heart block

when occasionally there is a P wave without a corresponding QRS-T segment

Which ECG lead is to be placed on the right front leg

white

What should the mean arterial pressure (MAP) be in an anesthetized dog or cat

70-90 mm Hg

When evaluating mucous membrane color, cyanosis is seen as what color

purple/blue

What is normal SpO2 of an anesthetized patient on 100% oxygen

should be above 95% can be determined by a pulse oximeter can be determined by a blood gas analyzer

Which two monitoring parameters can be determined by the use of equipment designed to use in the esophagus

temperature and heart rate

Normal ETCO2 is

35mmHg-45mmHg

In which of the following clinical situations would an anesthesia patient need mechanical ventilation

the patient is obese the patient is undergoing thoracic surgery the patient received a neuromuscular blocking agent

Onsior and meloxicam are in this drug class. They are pain relievers, non-controlled substances and decrease inflammation that may cause pain

NSAIDS

This class of analgesic drugs have members that may have multiple different types binding activity )agonists, partial agonists, agonist-antagonists).

opioids

What is an effect of NSAIDs

inhibiting the COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes effective when incorporated into the surgical premedication protocol can impair platelet function

What is an effect of local anesthetic agents

inhibit transduction and transmission of nerve impulses

Which of the following are signs of administering an anticholinergic/parasympatholytic

bronchodilation dilation of the pupils increased cardiac output

Why don't veterinarians use atropine in cats

cats can produce thick mucous causing ET tube obstruction as a result of atropine administration

Physostigmine is a reversal agent for

glycopyrrolate

Alpha 2 agnoists

cause bradycardia, vasoconstriction, and respiratory depression

Which of the following opioid receptors when stimulated does not produce analgesia

sigma

Which of the following can be adverse effects of opioid use

respiratory depression constipation increased sensitivity to noise

Which of the following is an example of neuroleptanalgesia

hydromorphone and midazolam

Which barbiturate is primarily used as a euthanasia agent

pentobarbital

Ketamine and Tilemine are dissassociative anesthetics. These cyclohexamines are painful when administered IM

ketamine can be used as a CRI and offers analgesia by inhibiting NMDA receptors in the CNS tilemine in veterinary medicine is combined with Zolazepam and sold as Telazol they can have effects such as tachycardia, apneustic breathing, increased intraocular and CSF pressure

Ketamine is frequently given in conjunction with other agents to facilitate muscle relaxation. Which is a combination of ketamine and a benzodiazepine

ketamine and midazolam

Propofol is an injectable hypnotic agent that in some areas of the country is a controlled substance. It is a white milky emulsion and can be used as an indication or maintenance when administered IV. In addition...

propofol has a rapid induction and should be titrated to effect

Which anesthetic agent is a neuroactive steroid that enhances GABA receptors by allowing an influx of chloride ions into cells

Alfaxalone

Alfaxalone when compared to Propofol

has less cardiovascular suppression has a lower risk of apnea is a federally controlled substance in the US

This anesthetic agent is a sedative hypnotic imidazole. It is administered IV and has minimal cardiovascular effects

Etomidate

adverse effects of Etomidate

painful IV injection vomiting formation of sterile abscesses with perivascular injection

Which medication frequently administered with other agents is administered IV primarily as a muscle relaxant offering poor sedation and poor analgesia

Guaifenesin

is not a halogenated organic compound inhalation agent

nitrous oxide

Inhalation anesthetic agents enter the bloodstream because of

the concentration gradient and lipid solubility at the level of the alveoli

What is the target organ for the anesthetic effect of inhalation agents

brain

The main method of elimination of commonly used anesthetic inhalation halogenated organic compounds

lungs

An inhalation agent with a low solubility/parturition coefficient

has a quick induction and recovery time

when comparing Sevoflurane and Isoflurane

Sevoflurane is less potent than Isoflurane Sevoflurane has a quicker onset of action than Isoflurane Sevoflurane is a better choice form mask induction than Isoflurane

Based on MAC value, what is the target setting of a precision vaporizer using an inhalation agent to maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia

1.5 x the MAC value

What are some of the adverse effects of most inhalation anesthetic agents

respiratory depression decreased glomerular filtration rate with the need to use caution with NSAIDs depressed myocardial function

Which of the following inhalation agents is said to have a single breath induction

Desflurane

This inhalation agent does not require a precision vaporizer. Its use can also decrease the anesthetic setting of the primary inhalation agent (second gas effect). It should never be used in a closed circuit, thoracic surgery or gastrointestinal surgery.

Nitrous oxide