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BIO 125 > Quiz 3 > Flashcards

Quiz 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Periodic table

A

The ordered arrangement of atoms from low to high in atomic number

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2
Q

There are ____ known elements

A

118

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3
Q

The first ____ elements are naturally occurring

A

92

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4
Q

What is the 92nd element on the periodic table?

A

Uranium (U)

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5
Q

Helium - Give the
Atomic number:
Chemical Symbol:
And Atomic weight:

A

Atomic number: 2
Chemical Symbol: He
And Atomic weight: 4

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6
Q

Chemical symbol

A

A one or two letter representation of the English or Latin name of an element

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7
Q

Copper - Give the
Atomic number:
Chemical Symbol:
And Atomic weight:

A

Atomic number: 29
Chemical Symbol: Cu
And Atomic weight: 63.5

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8
Q

Atomic weight

A

Number of protons plus the number of neutrons in an element.

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9
Q

Atomic number

A

The number of protons (or electrons) in an element

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10
Q

How to get the number of neutrons?

A

Atomic weight - Atomic number (protons/electrons) = neutrons

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11
Q

Sodium - Give the
Atomic number:
Chemical Symbol:
And Atomic weight:

A

Atomic number: 11
Chemical Symbol: Na
And Atomic weight: 23

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12
Q

How do you get the number of electrons?

A

It’s the same as the number of protons/the atomic number

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13
Q

What charge does a proton carry?

A

Protons carry a positive charge

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14
Q

What charge does an electron carry?

A

Electrons carry a negative charge

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15
Q

What charge does a neutron carry?

A

Neutrons carry no charge

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16
Q

Where are protons located?

A

Protons are located in the nucleus

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17
Q

Where are electrons located?

A

Electrons are located in shells outside the nucleus

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18
Q

Where are neutrons located?

A

Neutrons are located in the nucleus

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19
Q

List the first, second, third, and forth electron shells:

A

K=1
L=2
M=3
N=4

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20
Q

Maximum number that the first electron shell can hold:

A

K(1st shell) can hold 2 electrons

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21
Q

Maximum number that the second electron shell can hold:

A

L(the second shell) can hold 8 electrons

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22
Q

Maximum number that the third electron shell can hold:

A

M(third electron shell) can hold 18 electrons

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23
Q

Maximum number that the forth electron shell can hold:

A

N(the forth electron shell) can hold 32 electrons.

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24
Q

When filling shells you start with the _______ shell and fill each shell _________.

A

Innermost shell (K, the first.); moving outward

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25
Q

Review how to diagram an atom.

A

Draw the nucleus, add the # of protons and neutrons. Then add # of electrons in the shells going outward.

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26
Q

Atom

A

The smallest particle into which a substance can be divided by ordinary chemical means.

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27
Q

Molecule

A

A group of atoms bonded together and acting as a unit.

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28
Q

Three type of chemical bonds

A

Ionic
Covalent
Hydrogen

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29
Q

Ionic chemical bond

A

Electrons are transferred from one atom to another

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30
Q

Covalent chemical bond

A

Electrons are shared by atoms - the strongest bond

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31
Q

Hydrogen chemical bond

A

Electrons are shared by hydrogen and small electronegative atoms - the weakest bond

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32
Q

How many molecules and atoms are in; 6NaH(2)SO(4)

How many total atoms?

A

6 molecules 8 atoms

Total atoms: 48 atoms

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33
Q

On the pH what is neutral?
What is an acid?
What is a base?

What does the scale range to?

A 
Neutral = 7
Acid = anything less than 7
Base = anything greater than 7

Ranges from 0 ——-> 14

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34
Q

How much water is in our bodies?

A

Water makes up 2/3 s of our body’s weight

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35
Q

What is the universal solvent?

A

Water, bc more substances will dissolve in water than any other liquid

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36
Q

_______ bonds hold separate water molecules together

A

Hydrogen

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37
Q

Water helps _____ hold its shape

A

The cell

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38
Q

1 trigger of daytime fatigue

A

Lack of water

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39
Q

Organic molecules always contain the element _____

A

Carbon

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40
Q

4 groups of organic molecules

A

Carbohydrates
Proteins
Lipids
Nucleus acid

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41
Q

Carbohydrates are composed of:

A

Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen

C, H, and O

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42
Q

Carbohydrates’ molecule C, H, and O are in a _____ ratio

Ex: if there was a carbohydrate with 6 carbon molecules you would get ________

A

1:2:1 ratio

C(6)H(12)O(6)

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43
Q

What are carbohydrates’ most important job?

A

To supply energy

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44
Q

What are carbohydrates found in?

A

Sugars, molasses, honey, potatoes, rice, pasta

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45
Q

3 groups of carbohydrates and the amount of sugars they are composed of:

A
  1. Monosaccharides - simple sugars
  2. Disaccharides - 2 simple sugars
  3. Polysaccharides - many simple sugars
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46
Q

The ending OSE indicates what?

A

You are looking at a sugar.

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47
Q

Types of Monosaccharides

A

Glucose, Galactose, and Fructose

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48
Q

All three monosaccharides have what formula?

A

The same formula; C(6)H(12)O(6)

1:2:1 ratio

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49
Q

Isomers

A

Molecules with the same chemical formula but a different arrangement of atoms

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50
Q

Glucose is known as _______

A

Blood sugar

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51
Q

What does glucose do?

A

Necessary for the body to function properly

Provides the energy that we need

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52
Q

What are normal blood glucose levels?

A

80-120

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53
Q

A blood glucose level above 120 can indicate:

A

Diabetes mellitus

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54
Q

A glucose level below 80 can indicate:

A

hypoglycemia

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55
Q

Why do blood sugars become elevated?

A

There is not enough insulin or insulin receptors do not work properly

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56
Q

What does insulin do?

A

It carries glucose from the blood into the cell.

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57
Q

Where is insulin produced?

A

The pancreas

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58
Q

Types of diabetes and when they occur:

A

Type I (juvenile onset) - IDDM; usually occurs early in life, before 20.

Type II (adult onset) - NIDDM; usually between 40&60 years

Gestational - occurs during pregnancy

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59
Q

What causes Type I diabetes?

A

Too little insulin is produced by the pancreas

It is autoimmune in nature

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60
Q

What causes Type II diabetes?

A

Insulin receptors do not work as well

Usually occurs as a person ages.

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61
Q

What causes gestational diabetes?

A

Usually too little insulin produced to accommodate mom and the baby

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62
Q

3 classic early signs of diabetes:

A

Polyuria - frequency of urination
Polydipsia - extreme thirst
Polyphagia - extreme hunger

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63
Q

What are other early signs of diabetes?

A
  • rapid loss of weight (10-15 lbs)
  • blurred vision
  • irritability
  • nervousness
  • sores that heal slowly or not at all
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64
Q

What are signs of advanced diabetes?

A
  • Gangrene
  • Amputations
  • Heart problems
  • Kidney failure
  • Blindness
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65
Q

Gangrene

A

An area of tissues is not getting the blood it needs and not getting the oxygen it needs and the tissue dies and becomes dark

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66
Q

How do you treat Type I diabetes?

A

Diet, exercise, insulin, insulin pump, B-cell transplant

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67
Q

How do you treat Type II diabetes?

A

Diet, exercise, oral meds

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68
Q

How do you treat gestational diabetes?

A

Diet, exercise, insulin

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69
Q

Problems with different diabetes treatments:

A

Insulin injections: glucose levels fluctuate too much, inconvenient

Oral Meds: digestive system breaks down oral insulin

Pump: awkward

Transplant: rejection, may need to take steroids and they cause some bloating and hair loss

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70
Q

Fructose

A
  • Fruit sugar

- Sweetest of the sugars

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71
Q

Galactose

A
  • not found free in nature, part of lactose (milk sugar.)

- we cannot use galactose in our bodies, we have to change it to glucose.

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72
Q

Galactosemia

A

Disease in which babies are unable to change galactose to glucose
Galactose builds up in their blood

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73
Q

What does galactosemia mean?

A

“Galactose in the blood.”

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74
Q

Symptoms of Galactosemia

A
  1. Clouding of cornea at 4 weeks
  2. Enlargement of the liver and spleen at 5 months, ascites (accumulation of fluid in the abdomen.)
  3. Cataracts at 6 months
  4. Mental retardation at 1 year

(All are reversible excepted retardation)

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75
Q

Why do some babies have galactosemia?

A

They are missing the enzyme that converts galactose to glucose, at about 1 year of age another enzyme takes over and can do it

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76
Q

Treatment of galactosemia?

A

Give injection of enzyme or
Galactose-free formula for a year (till new enzyme takes over)
And then Gradual return to full strength cow’s milk.

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77
Q

Disaccharides

A

Composed of 2 monosaccharides

Lactose - milk sugar
Sucrose - table sugar
Maltose - malt sugar (brewing industry)

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78
Q

What is lactose made up of?

A

Glucose and Galactose

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79
Q

What is sucrose made up of?

A

Glucose and Fructose

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80
Q

What makes up maltose?

A

Glucose and Glucose

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81
Q

Most complex group of carbohydrates

A

Polysaccharides

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82
Q

3 polysaccharides

A

Starch - storage form of glucose in plants
Glycogen - storage form of glucose in animals
Cellulose - cell walls of plants for strength

83
Q

All 3 polysaccharides are ____________ of __________

A

Long chains of glucose

84
Q

True or false: most Americans do not eat enough protein

A

False - most Americans eat 2x the RDA

85
Q

True or false: protein is not fattening

A

False - it has the same number of calories/gram as carbohydrates

86
Q

True or false: the body cannot store protein

A

True - the body stores its extra in the form of fats

87
Q

True or false: athletes need more protein than other people

A

True - because they have a higher % of muscle than most

88
Q

True or false: women who are pregnant or breastfeeding need extra protein

A

True - on average about 50% more than normal

89
Q

True or false: as an adult you can get all the protein your body needs without ever eating meat, fish, milk, cheese, poultry or eggs.

A

True - but plant protein is not as good

90
Q

True or false: an egg is almost pure protein

A

False - it is 2/3 fat

91
Q

True or false: the protein in expensive cuts of meat, such as prime steak, is of better quality than that in cheaper cuts such as stew meat

A

False

92
Q

True or false: eating a high-protein diet can help you lose weight because it takes more calories to digest protein than to digest other nutrients

A

False

93
Q

True or false: kidney beans contain a higher percentage of protein calories than whole milk.

A

True

94
Q

True or false: bologna and frankfurters are good inexpensive sources of protein.

A

False - four oz. of chicken has the same amount of protein as 5 hot dogs

95
Q

True or false: the protein in meat and eggs is better utilized by the body than the protein in cereals and legumes

A

True true

96
Q

True or false: green, yellow and starchy vegetables contain protein and can help meet your protein requirements.

A

True

97
Q

True or false: proteins are the principal suppliers of the body’s energy

A

False

98
Q

True or false: protein in gelatin supplements ensures strong fingernails

A

False

99
Q

True or false: since men have a higher percentage of muscle, pound for pound, than women, men require more protein

A

True - about 25% more

100
Q

Functions of proteins

A

Parts of the structure of the body- like hair, nails and muscles

Hormones- like estrogen and testosterone

Antibodies- for defense

Transport- like hemoglobin in the blood

Enzymes- that speed up reactions

101
Q

Proteins are composed of

A

Amino acids

102
Q

Proteins are composed of amino acids as we have learned. What are amino acids made up of?

A

C, H, O, and N

103
Q

Building blocks of proteins

A

Amino acids

104
Q

There are _____ different amino acids

A

20

105
Q

_____ amino acids are nonessential. (Why?)

A

11;the body can make them so they are not required in our diets

106
Q

____ amino acids are essential. (Why?)

A

9; we cannot make them so they must be part of our diet.

107
Q

When amino acids form a long chain a ______ is produced

A

Protein

108
Q

Denature

A

When a protein unwinds.

109
Q

The shape of a protein is determined by __________

A

It’s function

110
Q

Causes of Denature:

A

pH (extremes)

Temperature (very high)

111
Q

If a protein travels it may have a ________ shape which is typical of _______.

A

globular(round); enzymes

112
Q

When a protein denatures it means— (ex- globular)

A

It unwinds from that spherical shape and becomes a long protein again
Can’t function as it’s supposed to

113
Q

5 groups of lipids

A 
Fatty acids
Fats
Oils
Phospholipids 
Sterols
114
Q

2 characteristics of fatty acids:

A
  • ALWAYS have an even number of carbon atoms

- ALWAYS have an acid group on one end. (COOH group)

115
Q

Structure of fatty acid

A

COOH - C - C - C - C - C
^ COOH is acid group
^C atoms must be even. When counting C atoms be sure to count the C in the acid group ( COOH)

116
Q

How do you classify a fatty acid?

A
  • by length of chain

- by how saturated it is with hydrogen

117
Q

Three different chain lengths for fatty acids:

A

Short chain fatty acid:
2-10 C atoms (Butter)

Long chain fatty acid:
12-18 C atoms (animal fats and vegetable oils)

Extra long chain fatty acid:
20 or more C atoms (fish oils)

118
Q

Degree of saturation - how many bonds can carbon form, and how many bonds can hydrogen form?

A

Carbon forms 4 bonds

Hydrogen forms 1 bond

119
Q

Monounsaturated fatty acids

A

Mono- unsaturated

Has one double bond between carbon atoms

120
Q

Polyunsaturated fatty acids

A

(Has 2 or more double bonds between carbon atoms)

Not saturated

121
Q

Each carbon atom has 4 bonds and each hydrogen has 1 bond so it is said to be

A

A saturated molecule

122
Q

What degree of saturation is the most healthy?

Why?

A

Polyunsaturated; the other 2 more readily lead to the production of cholesterol

123
Q

Main difference between fats and oils?

A

At room temperature fats are solid and oils are liquid

124
Q

How are fats and oils alike?

A

Both have 4 components:

  • 3 fatty acids
  • a molecule of glycerol
125
Q

What are phospholipids’ function?

What are they composed of?

A

They make up cell membranes

  • 2 fatty acids
  • glycerol
  • phosphate group
126
Q

Sterols

What’s the most important?

A

They are composed of 4 rings of carbon (A,B,C,D)

Cholesterol is the most impt.

127
Q

Functions of Sterols:

A
  • Necessary for cell membranes
  • aid in production of vitamin D
  • basis of Hormones
  • bile salts (aid in digestion)
128
Q

Sources of cholesterol:

A

Eggs
Meat
Cheese
And our liver produces cholesterol

129
Q

Types of cholesterol and what they do:

A

LDL (bad cholesterol): leads to the production of plaque on artery walls. (Lousy–ldl)

HDL (good cholesterol): cleans up cholesterol from the vessels (happy—hdl)

130
Q

Cholesterol values

A

Total cholesterol: below 200
LDL: below 100
HDL: above 45
Triglycerides: below 200

131
Q

Why is cholesterol bad?

A

Too high of concentration of cholesterol in blood can be a bad thing — linked to CHD (coronary heart disease)

132
Q

What factors affect your blood cholesterol?

A

Diet
Exercise (exercise leads to decrease in cholesterol levels)
Age (as you age cholesterol levels climb)
Stress (stress can raise your blood cholesterol levels.)
Heredity (up to 80% of the cholesterol is made in the body primarily by the liver – there are some familial tendencies towards your cholesterol level bc of these genes.)

133
Q

Cholesterol diet examples

A

One Egg (255 mg cholesterol— over your recommended total cholesterol!)

1 Tbsp of butter (12 mg of cholesterol)

1 C of whole milk (25 mg cholesterol)

134
Q

Nucleic acid

A
  • DNA
  • RNA

Molecules that control inheritance

135
Q

RNA

5 facts/differences from DNA

A

Ribonucleic acid

  1. Located in the NUCLEOLUS
  2. 1 strand
  3. Ribose sugar
  4. Carries out protein synthesis
  5. Contains the base uracil
136
Q

DNA

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

  1. Located in the nucleus
  2. 2 strands
  3. Deoxyribose sugar
  4. Directs protein synthesis
  5. Contains the base thymine
137
Q

The cell theory

A

States that all life is composed of cells and that all cells come from other cells

138
Q

Plasma membrane: 3 impt functions

A
  1. Protection
  2. Hold in cell contents
  3. Regulate what passes into and out of the cell

Thin membrane, selectively permeable. Will allow some substances to pass through and others will not.
Composed of Lipids and proteins

139
Q

Cytoplasm

A
  • jelly like fluid that fills the cell, made up of water and salt
  • located between the cell membrane and the nucleus
  • the place where cell organelles are located
  • the place where most cellular activities are accomplished (including the transport of substances within the cell.)
140
Q

Mitochondrion

A
  • powerhouse of the cell
  • tiny, threadlike, sausage shaped organelles
  • has a double membrane, inner membrane is folded inward and forms layers known as cristae
  • they provide most of the cell’s ATP (
  • more active cells have more mitochondria
141
Q

There is a _______ around the outside of the mitochondrion

A

Double membrane

142
Q

The inner membrane has invaginations (Finger like projections) called ________

A

Cristae

143
Q

The purpose of cristae in the mitochondrion

A

Is to provide more surface area on which reactions can occur

144
Q

Ribosome

A
  • small, dark-staining granules composed of proteins and r-RNA
  • (looks like a snowman) composed of two subunits
  • are the site of protein synthesis
145
Q

2 types of Ribosomes

A

Free- in the cytoplasm

Bound- attached to ER (endoplasmic reticulum) then becomes known as RER or rough endoplasmic reticulum

146
Q

In between the two subunits of a ribosome are where ________ are made from _______

A

Protein; amino acids

147
Q

2 types of endoplasmic reticulum: (ER):

A
  1. Rough
  2. Smooth
    - type of organelle found in eukaryotic cells that forms an interconnected network of flattened membranes
148
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)

A
  • a series of membranes that have ribosomes on their surface
  • proteins are assembled on RER (ribosomes are the places where proteins are made, remember?)
  • plays a role in the transport of proteins once they are made
149
Q

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)

And its functions

A

-a continuation of RER
(No more ribosomes so appears smooth)

Functions

  1. Lipid Metabolism
  2. Synthesis of cholesterol and sex hormones
150
Q

Golgi (golgi apparatus or golgi complex)

A
  • flattened stacks of membrane
  • packages proteins for transport
  • located in both plant and animal cells

-identifiable from 5-8 stacks of membranes that look like pancakes

151
Q

Lysosomes

A
  • spherical membranous bags containing digestive enzymes
  • digest old worn out cell parts and dead micro organisms
  • thought to play a role in aging and arthritis
  • found in most animal cells
  • known to contain 60 different enzymes
152
Q

Nucleus

A
  • control center of the cell
  • most cells only have one
  • all cells of the body except mature RBC’s have a nucleus
  • largest organelle
  • located in eukaryotic cells
153
Q

What microscope can show organelles in detail?

A

Electron microscope

154
Q

Nuclear membrane

A
  • surrounding the nucleus and holding in the nuclear contents is a double nuclear membrane
  • contains small holes called nuclear pores which allow substances to pass between nucleus and cytoplasm
  • semipermeable, allows some substances to pass through, and others cannot. Depends on their size and size of nuclear pore
155
Q

Nucleolus

A
  • dark staining spherical bodies in the nucleus
  • usually 1 or 2 nucleoli inside of a nucleus
  • produce ribosomes
156
Q

Chromatin

A
  • located in side the nucleus
  • composed of DNA and proteins
  • when the cell divides, they coil and form chromosomes
  • contain hereditary info
157
Q

Two things making up a chromosome

A

Two strands called (1)sister chromatid identical to each other
In the center they are connected by a structure known as the (2)centromere

158
Q

The cell cycle also called _________

A

Cellular reproduction

159
Q

The cell cycle occurs in all cells except _________

A

Reproductive cells

160
Q

Where are the reproductive cells located?

A

In the testes and ovaries

161
Q

What is the cell cycle made up of

A

Interphase and cell division(mitosis)

162
Q

Cell division is composed of four phases:

A 
– Prophase
– Metaphase 
– Anaphase
– Anaphase
– Telophase
163
Q

The cell cycle

A

A series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and the duplication of its DNA(DNA replication) and leads to the production of two daughter cells

164
Q

Cell division is also called:

A

Mitosis

165
Q

The cell cycle is composed of 5 phases overall

A 
– Interphase
– Prophase
– Metaphase
– Anaphase
– Telophase
166
Q

Interphase

A

1st phase
The phase of the cell cycle in which the cell spends most of its life (90% of its life)
During this time the cell copies its DNA in preparation for cell division (mitosis)

Chromosomes are replicated here

167
Q

Prophase

A

2nd phase
In a diagram
– you can see actual individual chromosomes (formation of chromosomes from chromatin in the nucleus)
– The nucleus and nucleolus begin to break down
– Begin the formation of the spindle apparatus (held in place by centrioles)

168
Q

Metaphase

A

3rd phase
Meta = middle
Time that chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
-the centrioles help to anchor these chromosomes and hold them in the middle of the cell

169
Q

During metaphase chromosomes line up along ________

A

The center of the cell

170
Q

Anaphase

A

4th phase

  • chromosomes split apart and the two sister chromatids move to opposite ends of that cell
  • The sister chromatids are now each a chromosome
  • chromosomes move to poles
171
Q

Telophase

A

5th phase and last phase

  • nucleus forms, that membrane will form around those chromosomes at either end of the cell
  • cytokinesis occurs - division of the cytoplasm
172
Q

Cytokinesis

A

Division of the cytoplasm

173
Q

Mitosis results in production of _________

A

2 daughter cells

174
Q

The 2 cells formed in mitosis each have a ________number of chromosomes

A

Diploid number (the same number as the parent)

175
Q

In mitosis the original cell undergoes __________

A

One division

176
Q

Progeria

A

A disease that causes premature aging

177
Q

Normal humans have ____ chromosomes

A

46

178
Q

44 of human chromosomes are known as ________

A

Autosomes

179
Q

The other 2 chromosomes are the _________ chromosomes

A

Sex (X and Y)

180
Q

Whole chromosome disorders can affect either the ______ chromosomes or the _______ chromosomes

A

Sex; autosome

181
Q

Autosomal chromosome disorder

A

Trisomy 21

182
Q

Trisomy 21

A
  • down’s syndrome
  • three #21 chromosomes instead of the normal number of 2
  • reason they have this is because during meiosis the 2 #21 chromosomes did not separate (nondisjunction)
  • affects both male and females
183
Q

Nondisjunction in Trisomy 21

A

during meiosis the 2 #21 chromosomes did not separate

184
Q

Trisomy 21 occurs more frequently among mothers over ____; why?

A

45; eggs are older

185
Q

Characteristics of trisomy 21

A 
– Varying degrees of mental retardation 
- long forehead
– Large protruding tongue 
– Low set misshapen ears
– Malformed teeth 
– Eyes are wide set 
– Inter– Palmar crease (Simean crease) = one line across center of hand instead of two.
-pyramidal shaped fingers 
-short stature
186
Q

In Trisomy 21 1/3 have ___________

A

Congenital heart problems

187
Q

In trisomy 21 they have a total of___chromosomes

A

47; 45 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

188
Q

Karyotype

A

When a person’s chromosomes are extracted and pictures are taken

  • chromosomes are then lined up in order from the largest to the smallest
  • there are a total of 23 pair
  • the first 22 are autosomes, the last pair are the sex chromosomes
189
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

Affects the sex chromosomes
– The most common chromosome not variation in humans
– Usually diagnosed by doing a karyotype
– The genotype of these individuals is XXY

190
Q

Most common traits in Klinefelter’s syndrome

A 
– Sterility 
-fatty deposits like females, hips are enlarged
-breast development 
– High-pitched voice, sparse body hair 
-tall and lanky 
-social or school learning problems
191
Q

Treatment for klinefelters syndrome

A

No cure
– Testosterone injections – this will stop the production of fatty tissue in the hips and the breasts, also helps w voice and gives them a more even distribution of body hair
-surgery for gynecomastia - surgically remove fatty tissues from hips and breasts

192
Q

On a klinefelters syndrome karyotype you can tell by:

A

The extra X chromosome

-47 chromosomes

193
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A
  • The genotype is XO (the only disorder where you can lack a whole chromosome and live)
  • named after Dr. Henry Turner
  • affects the sex chromosome
194
Q

Turner’s syndrome characteristics

A

– Short in stature (the average woman with Turner syndrome reaches a height of 4 feet 8 inches)

  • sterile in most cases
  • webbed neck
  • hearing problems
  • hormone treatment is required = growth hormone and estrogen
  • no cure
195
Q

Karyotype for turners syndrome

A
  • 45 instead of 46

- only one X chromosome

196
Q

Failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis. This air results and an abnormal number of chromosomes. The resulting karyotype for these individuals can be turner syndrome Klinefelter syndrome or trisomy 21

A

Nondisjunction

197
Q

Progeria is also called

A

Hutchinson-Gilmore syndrome

198
Q

How many cases of progeria have been reported

A

100

199
Q

When does progeria usually occur?
When does death usually occur?
What is the median age of death?

A

Age 7; Age 26; Age 13

200
Q

What causes progeria? What races are affected by progeria?

A

Exact cause is unknown. Genetic abnormality, believed to be caused by a defective gene; all races

201
Q

And progeria neither parent carries the gene, so it is thought to be a ________________

A

Mutation at the time of conception

202
Q

When was progeria first identified?

A

1886

203
Q

Symptoms of progeria

A

– Growth failure during the first year of life
- small build, thin
-narrow faces
-large heads
– Baldness, alopecia
-Old – appearing skin
– Early arteriosclerosis (hardening of arteries)
-cause of death: most often and MI- heart attack, or stroke

BIO 125 (9 decks)

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