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BIO 125 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

At what sperm count is a male considered sterile?

Why?

A

Sperm count less than 20 Million/ml

-Many are lost as they travel through the female reproductive tract and many are required to dissolve the outer covering of the ovum.

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2
Q

Function of Prostate

A

Produces secretions that are important in the transport of sperm cells.

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3
Q

Function of Scrotum

A

The sac that holds the testes
- the cremaster muscle and dartos muscle elevate the testes inside the sac if it is too cold. If the temp is too high, they will lower the testes

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4
Q

Function of Epididymis

A
  • place where cells mature
  • a collection of tubules that help transport sperm from the testes to the Vas Deferens.
  • place where sperm gain ability to swim, takes 20 days
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5
Q

Seminiferous Tubules

A

Small tubes that make up the testes

  • where sperm production occurs
  • they are surrounded by interstitial cells of Leydig that produce testosterone
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6
Q

Testosterone

A

Primary male steroid hormone and is produced in the testes.

-levels tend to decline as men age

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7
Q

Function of Vas Deferens

A

tubes that carry sperm from Epididymis to the Urethra

-Sperm is produced in the testes, and pass through the Vas Deferens where they mix with seminal fluid to form semen.

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8
Q

Cryptorchidism

Treatment

A

A condition is which testicles have not descended.
Usually they descend within the first 2 years.

If they do not, it requires surgery; because temperature is too high and sperm cannot survive in abdominal cavity.

If not corrected, will result in sterility

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9
Q

Cryptorchidism

Treatment

A

A condition is which testicles have not descended.
Usually they descend within the first 2 years.

If they do not, it requires surgery; because temperature is too high and sperm cannot survive in abdominal cavity.

If not corrected, will result in sterility

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10
Q

Unilateral Cryptorchidism

A

One testicles has descended into the scrotal sac, but the other has not.

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11
Q

Cryptorchidism

Treatment

A

A condition is which testicles have not descended.
Usually they descend within the first 2 years.

If they do not, it requires surgery; because temperature is too high and sperm cannot survive in abdominal cavity.

If not corrected, will result in sterility

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12
Q

Factors that affect sperm production

A
  1. Cryptorchidism
  2. Tight Pants
  3. Long distance running
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13
Q

Factors that affect sperm production

And why?

A
  1. Cryptorchidism
  2. Tight Pants
  3. Long distance running

All 3 raise the temperature of the sperm cell making it nonviable.

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14
Q

Testicular Cancer

A

Affects 1 in 20,000 males,
Most common cancer of men age 15- 35
Mumps can increase risk
Most important risk factor is Cryptorchidism

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15
Q

Most common sign of testicular cancer:

A

A painless, solid mass in the testis, 90% detected early can be cured.

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16
Q

Survival rate for men w test. cancer that has not spread beyond the testicles:
Survival rate for men w test. cancer that has spread to the lymph nodes in the back of the abdomen:

A

99%; 96%

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17
Q

The cremaster muscle and dartos muscle

A
  • elevate the testes inside the sac if it is too cold. If the temp is too high, they will lower the testes
  • regulate temp in the testes and be sure that the temp is not too high or too low.
  • Cremaster muscle also helps to retract testes to guard against injury
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18
Q

epididymitis

A
  • Inflammation of the epididymis, very painful condition.

- usually a result of trauma or infection

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19
Q

Epididymitis

A
  • Inflammation of the epididymis, very painful condition.

- usually a result of trauma or infection

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20
Q

What is semen?

A

The fluid containing sperm cells and male secretions

  • Sticky
  • Provides a medium for transport and nutrients
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21
Q

What is semen?

A

The fluid containing sperm cells and male secretions

  • Sticky, bc it contains a sugar
  • Provides a medium for transport and nutrients
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22
Q

Accessory glands of Male reproductive system

A

-Contributes to reproduction but the sperm cell does not pass through it.

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23
Q

Where are male secretions produced?

A

The Accessory glands:

  • Seminal Vesicles
  • Cowper’s Glands
  • Prostate Glands
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24
Q

Vasectomy

A

Blocks the Vas Deferens and keeps sperm out of the seminal fluid.

  • Testicles continue to produce sperm.
  • Sperm are reabsorbed by the body.
  • Permanent method of birth control
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25
Q

Parts of the Sperm Cell and their Function:

A
  1. Head - Contains the DNA
  2. Acrosome - Covers the head and contains digestive enzymes that will penetrate coatings around the ovum.
  3. Midpiece - Contains the mitochondria (for energy.)
  4. Tail - Locomotion
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26
Q

Sperm, how many are produced, and in how many ml of semen.

A

Men produce 200-300 million sperm/day

Sperm are carried in about 3 ml of semen.

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27
Q

Functions of Fimbriae

A
  • fingerlike projection at the end of the fallopian tube near the ovary
  • sweep ovum into fallopian tube
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28
Q

Functions of Uterus

A

-Hollow and thick walled organ
-Receives the fertilized egg
(where implantation occurs)
-Neck of the uterus is called the cervix

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29
Q

Functions of Fallopian Tube

A
  • Also called Uterine tubes (2 tubes)
  • Carry an egg from the ovary to the uterus (receive oocyte from the ovary)
  • They are the site of fertilization (fertilized egg cell then moves onto uterus for implantation)
  • They are about 10 cm long
  • Have no direct contact with ovary which puts women at risk for an ectopic pregnancy and PID
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30
Q

Functions of Ovary

A
  • Almond shaped organ
  • Most impt organ in reproductive system bc they play a role in the production of both female sex hormones that control reproduction and the female gametes (or eggs) that are fertilized to form embryos.
  • At birth, ovaries contain all the eggs a woman will ever have.
  • Produce hormones estrogen and progesterone that trigger menstruation and also release one egg each month for possible fertilization.
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31
Q

Hormone injections: advantages and disadvantages

A

Advantages: safe, convenient, long acting, reversible, can use after childbirth, works for three months
Disadvantages: Irregular or no periods, Weight gain, hair loss, bone thinning, loss of interest in sex, no protection from STDs

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32
Q

Birth control effectiveness relates to human error generally the ________You have to do the__________effective the option

A

Less; more

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33
Q

Functions of Ovary

A
  • Almond shaped organ
  • Most impt organ in reproductive system bc they play a role in the production of both female sex hormones that control reproduction and the female gametes (or eggs) that are fertilized to form embryos.
  • At birth, ovaries contain all the eggs a woman will ever have.
  • Produce hormones estrogen and progesterone.
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34
Q

Ovary composition

A
  • composed of a cortex (outer portion) and the medulla (inner portion)
  • As cells mature they move from the outside of the cortex down through the cortex and into the medulla.
  • Most immature cell is a primordial follicle: from there it forms a secondary follicle and then moves on through the medulla, eventually forming a mature Graafian follicle which forms the egg.
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35
Q

Most important organs of the reproductive system:

A

Ovaries

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36
Q

Ovarian pain can be caused by

A

cysts, tumors,

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37
Q

Ovary composotion

A
  • composed of a cortex (outer portion) and the medulla (inner portion)
  • As cells mature they move from the outside of the cortex down through the cortex and into the medulla.
  • Most immature cell is a primordial follicle: from there it forms a secondary follicle and then moves on through the medulla, eventually forming a mature Graafian follicle which forms the egg.
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38
Q

4 Parts of a Mature Graafian Follicle

A
  1. Zona Pellucida
  2. Antrum
  3. Corona Radiata
  4. Oocyte (egg)
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39
Q

Ectopic Pregnancy

A
  • Implantation of zygote occurs in some place besides the uterus.
  • Can occur in the fallopian tubes and also the peritoneal cavity
  • Usually spontaneously abort (in most cases)
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40
Q

Pap smear

A
  • Simple test for cervical cancer
  • Scraping of the cervical cells which are then viewed under a microscope to check for pre-cancerous and cancerous changes
  • painless, although there might be slight bleeding
  • recommended that a woman have a pap smear ever three years ages 21-65
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41
Q

The Ovarian Cycle

A

The monthly series of events associated with the maturation of the egg.

  • 2 Ovaries alternate releasing an egg
  • Avg Cycle is 28 Days, ranges from 21-40 days
  • The Ovarian cycle is closely tied to the Uterine Cycle
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42
Q

Cancer of the Cervix

Ages, risk factors

A
  • Women ages 30-50 most common
  • Risk Factors: STD’s, Frequent cervical inflammations
  • Multiple pregnancies
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43
Q

Pap smear

A
  • Simple test for cervical cancer
  • Scraping of the cervical cells which are then viewed under a microscope to check for pre-cancerous and cancerous changes
  • painless, although there might be slight bleeding
  • recommended that a woman have a pap smear ever three years ages 31-65
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44
Q

The Ovarian Cycle

A

The monthly series of events associated with the maturation of the egg.

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45
Q

How do you determine the day of ovulation?

A

Subtract 14 from the length of the cycle:

ex. 40 day cycle, 40-14=day 26

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46
Q

Ovarian Cycle 2 Phases

variance in length

A
  1. Follicular phase (days 1-13)

Day 14 Ovulation Occurs!

  1. Luteal phase (days 15-28)

**the length of the follicular phase changes but the luteal phase is always 14 days.

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47
Q

Uterine Cycle 3 phases

A
  • Also known as the menstrual cycle
    1. Days 1-5, The menstrual phase: Uterus shed endometrium (your period), ovarian hormones are at their lowest
    1. Days 6-13, The proliferative phase: endometrium rebuilds as blood levels of estrogen rise, ovulation (release of egg) occurs on day 14
    1. Days 15-28, the secretory phase: endometrium prepares for implantation of embryo, progesterone levels are rising
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48
Q

Ovulation

A

Day 14

LH spike occurs

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49
Q

Luteal Phase

A

(Days 15-28)

  • LH secretion continues
  • Corpus luteum forms
  • Progesterone secretion is prominent
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50
Q

Uterine Cycle 3 phases

A
  • Also known as the menstrual cycle
    1. Days 1-5, The menstrual phase: Uterus shed endometrium, ovarian hormones are at their lowest
    1. Days 6-13, The proliferative phase: endometrium rebuilds as blood levels of estrogen rise, ovulation (release of egg) occurs on day 14
    1. Days 15-28, the secretory phase: endometrium prepares for implantation of embryo, progesterone levels are rising
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51
Q

When does the Uterine Cycle typically begin and for how long, what can delay the onset

A
  • Usually occurs ages 12-55, age of onset continues to get younger
  • Strenuous exercise and dieting can delay the onset
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52
Q

Amenorrhea

A

The cessation of menses

happens during pregnancy

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53
Q

Fertilization

A

The process in which a sperm cell unites with an egg cell

-usually occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tube

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54
Q

Human Zygote

A

Result of an ovum (egg cell) and a sperm cell.

-remains a zygote (one cell organism) until it begins to divide; at that point, the zygote then becomes an embryo.
Contains the genetic material from both parents.

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55
Q

Capacitation

A
  • Freshly deposited sperm cells cannot fertilize the egg
  • Must first capacitate (break their membranes so enzymes can be released from the acrosome.)
  • Takes about 6-8 hours as they travel.
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56
Q

Implantation

A
  • When the embryo is embedded in the wall of the uterus
  • Six days after ovulation, implantation occurs. (should occur in uterus, if it occurs in uterine tube or abdomen it is ectopic pregnancy.)
  • In some cases, implantation bleeding occurs.
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57
Q

Human Zygote

A

Result of an ovum (egg cell) and a sperm cell.

-remains a zygote until it begins to divide; at that point, the zygote then becomes an embryo.
Contains the genetic material from both parents.

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58
Q

Important Facts to Remember about when Pregnancy can Occur

A
  • Egg is Viable for 12-24 hours after release
  • Sperm is Viable 24-72 hours after ejaculation
  • So, a woman can become pregnant from 3 days BEFORE ovulation to one day after ovulation (about a 5 day span.)
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59
Q

Implantation

A
  • When the embryo is embedded in the wall of the uterus
  • Six days after ovulation, implantation occurs.
  • In some cases, implantation bleeding occurs.
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60
Q

Ovulation

A

-A mature ovarian follicle discharges and egg, day 14

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61
Q

What is the most common STD?

A

HPV

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62
Q

Women who have had an STD are at an increased risk for:

A
  • Infertility
  • HIV/AIDS
  • Cervical cancer
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63
Q

What STD is bacterial that experts call “the silent epidemic”?

A

Chlamydia, because 70% of women and 50% of men with the disease experience no symptoms

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64
Q

What age group is at the greatest risk for STD’s?

A

Women 15-19 years of age

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65
Q

Greatest obstacle people name that they say they face in trying to protect themselves against STD’s is:

A

Embarrassment, people of all ages cite this as the biggest obstacle.

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66
Q

Experts now recommend that sexually active young people be immunized against what STD?

A

HPV–Gardasil vaccination

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67
Q

What STD’s cannot be cured?

A

Herpes and Genital Warts: treatable but not curable

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68
Q

For Women the most common symptom of chlamydia and gonorrhea infection is:

A

It is estimated that 70% of women with chlamydia and 50% of men with gonorrhea experience no symptoms.

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69
Q

You may be at increased risk for HIV/AIDS:

A

You have had many sex partners in the last 10 years

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70
Q

The best form protection against contracting STD’s during sex:

A

Condoms, used correctly every time.

Cannot protect you from every STD– herpes for example.

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71
Q

Sexually Transmitted Diseases:

A

Infectious disease that spreads by sexual contact
Also called venereal disease
The US has the highest rates of infection among developed countries
20 million people per year in US contract an STD

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72
Q

Common STD’s

A 
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Chlamydia 
Genital warts (HPV)
Herpes
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73
Q

Gonorrhea
Also known as:
Caused by:

A

Known as “the clap” or “the drip”
-Transmitted through sexual contact with another person, or cot with infected bodily fluids
-Easily spread and occurs most often in people who have multiple sex partners
Caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae bacterium
Can be passed through the birth canal– Silver Nitrate and Protargol

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74
Q

Why is Silver Nitrate and Protargol sometimes used in newborns?

A

Gonorrhea can be passed through the birth canal, Silver Nitrate and Protargol have both been used to prevent eye infection in newborns born to mothers with gonorrhea.

  • They are also treated with IV antibiotics.
  • If left untreated, can lead to blindness
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75
Q

Symptoms of Gonorrhea

A

Some people have no symptoms

  • Symptoms should appear in 2-14 days
  • often there is a discharge from the penis or vagina
  • frequency of urination, burning or pain with urination
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76
Q

Complications with untreated Gonorrhea

A

Epididymitis- an inflammation of the testicles that can cause sterility in men

PID- a serious infection of female reproductive organs that can lead to sterility

Ectopic pregnancy- a pregnancy that occurs outside the uterus

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77
Q

itis means

A

“inflammation of”

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78
Q

Treatment for Gonorrhea

A
  • Antibiotics
  • drug of choice has been azithromycin but now CDC recommends dual therapy (using 2 drugs) to treat gonorrhea: 1. an injection of ceftriaxone 2. oral azithromycin
  • don’t quit when you feel better, take meds as prescribed
  • there has been concern about the development of antimicrobial resistance in gonorrhea
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79
Q

Syphilis
Caused by
Affects on baby

A

Caused by bacterium Treponema Pallidum

  • infected mother can pass it to a fetus, if infected fetus is usually stillborn or dies after birth
  • if the fetus lives, the child may remain in the latent period until childhood or adulthood
  • One characteristic of these children is saddlenose which is the result of the destruction of the vomer bone.
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80
Q

Syphilis Transmission

A

Transmitted by direct contact with a syphilitic red sore called a chancre; occurs on or around external genitals, mouth, in the vagina, around the anus, in the rectum

  • inclubation period is 2-3 weeks
  • Chancre appears, then becomes crusty and disappears
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81
Q

Secondary Signs of Syphilis (left untreated, after primary sign of red chancre)

A
  • several weeks later secondary signs can appear:
  • a pink skin rash, fever, and joint pain.

-these signs also disappear spontaneously

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82
Q

If secondary Syphilis is left untreated:

A

The infection will progress to the latent and possibly tertiary stage of the disease

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83
Q

Latent Phase of Syphilis

A

“Hidden phase” of syphilis. A time when there are no visible symptoms. Without treatment they will continue to have syphilis in their bodies. Can last for years. Only detectable by a blood test. The causative organism may be killed by the immune system, or it may go into tertiary syphilis.

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84
Q

Tertiary Syphilis

A
  • characterized by gummas

- gummas are soft tumor-like lesions of the central nervous system, blood vessels, bones and skin

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85
Q

Tertiary Syphilis

A
  • characterized by gummas
  • gummas are soft noncancerous tumor-like lesions of the most commonly found in the liver, also found in central nervous system- the brain, blood vessels- the heart, bones, testes and skin
  • form of a granduloma
  • can lead to heart valve disease and certain neurological problems.
  • develops in response to the immune system’s failure to kill off syphilis
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86
Q

Second most common STD in the US

A

Chlamydia

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87
Q

Chlamydia

Caused by

A
  • 2nd most common STD in the US
  • Caused by the organism chlamydia trachomatis
  • is a bacterium
  • Inclubation period is one week
  • Responsible for 25-50% of all diagnosed cases of PID
  • About 20% of men and 30% of women diagnosed with gonorrhea are also infected with chlamydia
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88
Q

Two troubling facts of Chlamydia

A
  1. About 70% of women and 50% of men do not know they are infected because they have no symptoms. Called the “Silent epidemic”
  2. The prevalence of chlamydia is highest among sexually active women less than 20 years of age.
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89
Q

Complications of a late diagnosis of Chlamydia

A
  • PID
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Infertility
  • Complications during pregnancy and birth
  • Inflammation of the testicles
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90
Q

Symptoms of Chlamydia

A
  • Urethritis and painful, frequent urination
  • Thick penile or vaginal discharge
  • Abdominal, rectal or testicular pain
  • Painful intercourse
  • Irregular menses
  • Sterility in women
  • Newborns may have conjunctivitis and pneumonia
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91
Q

Diagnosis of Chlamydia

A
  1. Swab: males- swab of urethra; females- swab of cervix; those who have receptive anal sex- a swab of the rectum. Staining techniques known as immunofluorescence are used for identification
  2. Urine
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92
Q

Chlamydia Treatment

A

Because it is caused by a bacterium it is easily cured with antibiotics:

  • Azithromycin: given as two or four tablets at once
  • Doxycycline: given as two capsules a day for a week

-Abstain from sexual activity for 7 days after single dose antibiotics; or until completion of a 7 day course of antibiotics.

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93
Q 
Genital Warts (HPV)
Caused by, puts you at greater risk for which cancers
A
  • Viral STD
  • Caused by a group of 60 viruses called the HPV (human papillomavirus)

-Increase risk for certain cancers: penile, vaginal, cervical, and anal

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94
Q

Appearance/Characteristics of Genital Warts

A
  • May be raised or flat,
  • May be single or multiple
  • May have a cauliflower appearance
  • usually painless
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95
Q

Genital Warts Diagnosis

A
  • diagnosed by looking for them
  • no blood tests or swabs
  • if present in cervix, may show up on a pap smear
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96
Q

Genital Warts Treatment

A

Visible warts are removed in 3 ways:

  1. cryotherapy- warts are frozen
  2. podophylin paint- caustic plant extract that burns warts
  3. laser treatment- used to treat warts that are difficult to reach or warts are unaffected by other methods.
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97
Q

Genital Herpes

Caused by

A
  • Viral STD
  • Caused by Herpes Simplex 2
  • Among the most difficult human pathogens to control
  • Transmission is only through vaginal, anal, or oral sex. Usually get herpes from contact with open sores, but can get it without them too.
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98
Q

Symptoms of Genital herpes

A
  • Remains silent for weeks to years
  • First attack symptoms: fever, flu like symptoms, nausea, muscle aches, painful urination, tingling itching burning sensation in the area where blisters will appear.
  • A burst of blister-like lesions on reproductive organs.
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99
Q

Congenital Herpes

A
  • rare but very serious condition
  • “Neo-natal herpes simplex”
  • usually caused by vertical transmission of herpes simplex virus from mother to newborn during delivery
  • 1 in every 3,500 babies in the US contract the virus
  • Can cause severe malformations of a fetus
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100
Q

Sign of Congenital Herpes

A

-typical sign is vesicular eruption (appearance of small fluid filled vesicles), which may progress to disseminated disease (extended to other areas.)

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101
Q

How is congenital herpes Diagnosed?

A
  • Viral Culture
  • PCR
  • Immunofluorescence
  • electron microscopy
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102
Q

Most frequently prescribed treatment for genital herpes:

A
  • Acyclovir: anti-viral agent taken orally

- in addition sometimes topical antiviral agents are used

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103
Q

Pathway of air through the body

A 
Nose
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Primary bronchus
Secondary bronchus
Tertiary bronchitis
Bronchiole
Terminal bronchiole
Alveolus (air sac) - where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged
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104
Q

Vocal chords

A

Allow production of sounds
Are elastic and can be stretched
Are thicker in males than females
This is the reason men have deeper voices – testosterone is responsible for this
When vocal chords are relaxed, the sound is lower
When they tighten, the sound is higher

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105
Q

Functions of the respiratory system

A 
– Carry air to and from the lungs
– Replenish oxygen
– Get rid of carbon dioxide
– Produce sounds
– Maintain PH
– Perceive odors
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106
Q

Rohypnol facts

A

“Roofies”

  • inexpensive
  • 10x as strong as Valium
  • manufactured in Europe and Latin America.
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107
Q

Intended uses of rohypnol

A

To treat insomnia

Used as pre surgery medication

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108
Q

What does Rohypnol do

A

Muscle relaxation
Lowers inhibitions
Amnesia

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109
Q

How long does it take for rohypnol to take effect?

A

20-30 minutes

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110
Q

Your body’s responses to stress:

A
  1. Increases heart rate
  2. Increased blood pressure
  3. Pupils dilate
  4. Peristalsis decreases - what moves food through the body
  5. Decrease in digestive juices
  6. Liver releases glucose
  7. Urinary and anal sphincters will close
  8. Increase in sweating
  9. Increase in respiration
  10. Bronchi dilate
  11. Blood vessels of the skin constrict
111
Q

Two parts of the brain involved in OCD.

A

Orbital Frontal Cortex

Basal Ganglia

112
Q

What neurotransmitter does not function properly in those with OCD?

A

Serotonin

113
Q

Drugs commonly used to treat OCD:

A

Clomipranine
Prozac
Both drugs affect the neurotransmitter serotonin

114
Q

What are obsessions?

A

Unwanted thoughts or worries that run through a person’s mind repeatedly.

115
Q

What are compulsions?

A

Repetitive, purposeful behaviors.
(Cleaning, checking, repeating.)
Often take the form of rituals which patients are compelled to perform.

116
Q

What are rituals?

A

Learned behaviors that reduce anxiety.

Can be time consuming if someone spends more than 1 hour a day performing them.

117
Q

Depression occurs in ?/3 of OCD patients

A

2/3

118
Q

Average age of onset for OCD for men and women:

A

17;21

119
Q

Individuals raised in ________ with _________ practices may be more susceptible to developing compulsive behaviors.

A

Religions;ritualistic

120
Q

Trichotilomania

A

Uncontrollable urge to pull out ones hair

121
Q

Two causes of depression

A

Endogenous- comes from within the body

Exogenous- comes from outside the body

122
Q

Two important neurotransmitters that are correlated with depression:

A

Serotonin

Norepinephrine (Adrenaline)

123
Q

How is depression diagnosed?

A

Person must have four or more symptoms of depression everyday for two weeks.

124
Q

Most common symptom of depression:

A

Fatigue

125
Q

Treatments for depressive illness

A
  • antidepressants
  • psychotherapy
  • combo of both
  • ECT (may make you lose short term memory)
126
Q

When do antidepressants take effect? When is the peak effect?

A

2-3 weeks; 6-8 weeks

127
Q

Example of an MAOI:
Side effects?
Facts?

A
  • oldest group of meds for depression
  • Nardil - ex
  • increased BP with sudafed, red wine or aged cheese.
128
Q

Tricyclics
Example:
Side effects?
Facts?

A
  • most important group of drugs to treat depression
  • Elavil - ex
  • side effects: dry mouth, constipation, difficulty urinating, and blurred vision
129
Q

Lithium

Used for?

A

To treat manic depression (bipolar disorder)

130
Q

SSRI
Examples:
Facts?
Side effects?

A
  • newest medication for depressive disorders
  • examples: Prozac, Paxil and Zoloft
  • side effects: insomnia loss of appetite
131
Q

What are co-carcinogens? (what are in cigs?)

A

Do not cause cancer alone, but combine with other chemicals that stimulate growth of cancer.

In Cigs: Formaldehyde
Phenol

132
Q

Hazardous substances/carcinogens in tobacco smoke:

A
  • Benzopyrene
  • Vinyl chloride
  • Arsenic
133
Q

Common traits of alcoholism

A
  • Gregarious
  • Impulsive
  • Rebellious
134
Q

Alcohol causes vasodilation which is:

A

results in heat loss

blood vessels get larger

135
Q

What does alcohol proof mean?

A

Proof is 2x the % of alcohol content in a drink

136
Q

Alcohol absorption distribution:

A
  • Mouth (5%)
  • Stomach (20%)
  • Small Intestine (75-80%)
137
Q

Where is most alcohol metabolized?

Where does the rest go?

A 
Most is metabolized in the liver.
The rest (2-10%) is given off by the lungs, kidneys and sweat glands.
138
Q

.03-.05% BAC

A

Effects first felt, light-headed, relaxed.

139
Q

.10-.15% BAC

A

6-10 hours metabolize

sensory and motor functions are decreased

140
Q

.2% BAC

A

most are unable to function

141
Q

.35% BAC

A

Coma

142
Q

.35% + BAC

A

Death

143
Q

Effects of inhalant chemicals

A

IC increase heart’s sensitivity to adrenalin > person becomes frightened by hallucination causing adrenalin to be released > sensitized heart beats widely and erratically > can lead to cardiac arrest or a heart attack

144
Q

Effects of inhalants on the brain

A
  • chemical solvents can damage protective fatty coating around brain cells, resulting in brain damage.
145
Q

Diagnosing death from inhalants

A

hard to diagnose bc they leave body very quickly, coroner may assume person died from cardiac arrest

146
Q

Klinefelter’s syndrome

A

Affects the sex chromosomes
– The most common chromosome not variation in humans
– Usually diagnosed by doing a karyotype
– The genotype of these individuals is XXY

147
Q

Most common traits in Klinefelter’s syndrome

A 
– Sterility 
-fatty deposits like females, hips are enlarged
-breast development 
– High-pitched voice, sparse body hair 
-tall and lanky 
-social or school learning problems
148
Q

Treatment for klinefelters syndrome

A

No cure
– Testosterone injections – this will stop the production of fatty tissue in the hips and the breasts, also helps w voice and gives them a more even distribution of body hair
-surgery for gynecomastia - surgically remove fatty tissues from hips and breasts

149
Q

On a klinefelters syndrome karyotype you can tell by:

A

The extra X chromosome

-47 chromosomes

150
Q

Turner’s syndrome

A
  • The genotype is XO (the only disorder where you can lack a whole chromosome and live)
  • named after Dr. Henry Turner
  • affects the sex chromosome
151
Q

Turner’s syndrome characteristics

A

– Short in stature (the average woman with Turner syndrome reaches a height of 4 feet 8 inches)

  • sterile in most cases
  • webbed neck
  • hearing problems
  • hormone treatment is required = growth hormone and estrogen
  • no cure
152
Q

Karyotype for turners syndrome

A
  • 45 instead of 46

- only one X chromosome

153
Q

Nondisjunction

A

Failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis. This air results and an abnormal number of chromosomes. The resulting karyotype for these individuals can be turner syndrome Klinefelter syndrome or trisomy 21

154
Q

Characteristics of trisomy 21

A 
– Varying degrees of mental retardation 
- long forehead
– Large protruding tongue 
– Low set misshapen ears
– Malformed teeth 
– Eyes are wide set 
– Inter– Palmar crease (Simean crease) = one line across center of hand instead of two.
-pyramidal shaped fingers 
-short stature
155
Q

In Trisomy 21 1/3 have ___________

A

Congenital heart problems

156
Q

In trisomy 21 they have a total of___chromosomes

A

47; 45 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

157
Q

Nondisjunction in Trisomy 21

A

during meiosis the 2 #21 chromosomes did not separate

158
Q

The cell cycle is composed of 5 phases overall

A 
– Interphase
– Prophase
– Metaphase
– Anaphase
– Telophase
159
Q

Interphase

A

1st phase
The phase of the cell cycle in which the cell spends most of its life (90% of its life)
During this time the cell copies its DNA in preparation for cell division (mitosis)

Chromosomes are replicated here

160
Q

Prophase

A

2nd phase
In a diagram
– you can see actual individual chromosomes (formation of chromosomes from chromatin in the nucleus)
– The nucleus and nucleolus begin to break down
– Begin the formation of the spindle apparatus (held in place by centrioles)

161
Q

Metaphase

A

3rd phase
Meta = middle
Time that chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell
-the centrioles help to anchor these chromosomes and hold them in the middle of the cell

162
Q

During metaphase chromosomes line up along ________

A

The center of the cell

163
Q

Anaphase

A

4th phase

  • chromosomes split apart and the two sister chromatids move to opposite ends of that cell
  • The sister chromatids are now each a chromosome
  • chromosomes move to poles
164
Q

Telophase

A

5th phase and last phase

  • nucleus forms, that membrane will form around those chromosomes at either end of the cell
  • cytokinesis occurs - division of the cytoplasm
165
Q

Plasma membrane: 3 impt functions

A
  1. Protection
  2. Hold in cell contents
  3. Regulate what passes into and out of the cell

Thin membrane, selectively permeable. Will allow some substances to pass through and others will not.
Composed of Lipids and proteins

166
Q

Cytoplasm

A
  • jelly like fluid that fills the cell, made up of water and salt
  • located between the cell membrane and the nucleus
  • the place where cell organelles are located
  • *****-the place where most cellular activities are accomplished (including the transport of substances within the cell.)
167
Q

Mitochondrion

A
  • powerhouse of the cell
  • tiny, threadlike, sausage shaped organelles
  • has a double membrane, inner membrane is folded inward and forms layers known as cristae
  • they provide most of the cell’s ATP (
  • more active cells have more mitochondria
168
Q

There is a _______ around the outside of the mitochondrion

A

Double membrane

169
Q

Ribosome

A
  • small, dark-staining granules composed of proteins and r-RNA
  • (looks like a snowman) composed of two subunits
  • are the site of protein synthesis
170
Q

The inner membrane has invaginations (Finger like projections) called ________

A

Cristae

171
Q

2 types of Ribosomes

A

Free- in the cytoplasm

Bound- attached to ER (endoplasmic reticulum) then becomes known as RER or rough endoplasmic reticulum

172
Q

In between the two subunits of a ribosome are where ________ are made from _______

A

Protein; amino acids

173
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER)

A
  • a series of membranes that have ribosomes on their surface
  • proteins are assembled on RER (ribosomes are the places where proteins are made, remember?)
  • plays a role in the transport of proteins once they are made
174
Q

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)

And its functions

A

-a continuation of RER
(No more ribosomes so appears smooth)

Functions

  1. Lipid Metabolism
  2. Synthesis of cholesterol and sex hormones
175
Q

Golgi (golgi apparatus or golgi complex)

A
  • flattened stacks of membrane
  • packages proteins for transport
  • located in both plant and animal cells

-identifiable from 5-8 stacks of membranes that look like pancakes

176
Q

Lysosomes

A
  • spherical membranous bags containing digestive enzymes
  • digest old worn out cell parts and dead micro organisms
  • thought to play a role in aging and arthritis
  • found in most animal cells
  • known to contain 60 different enzymes
177
Q

Nucleus

A
  • control center of the cell
  • most cells only have one
  • all cells of the body except mature RBC’s have a nucleus
  • largest organelle
  • located in eukaryotic cells
178
Q

Nuclear membrane

A
  • surrounding the nucleus and holding in the nuclear contents is a double nuclear membrane
  • contains small holes called nuclear pores which allow substances to pass between nucleus and cytoplasm
  • semipermeable, allows some substances to pass through, and others cannot. Depends on their size and size of nuclear pore
179
Q

Nucleolus

A
  • dark staining spherical bodies in the nucleus
  • usually 1 or 2 nucleoli inside of a nucleus
  • produce ribosomes
180
Q

Chromatin

A
  • located in side the nucleus
  • composed of DNA and proteins
  • when the cell divides, they coil and form chromosomes
  • contain hereditary info
181
Q

RNA

5 facts/differences from DNA

A

Ribonucleic acid

  1. Located in the NUCLEOLUS
  2. 1 strand
  3. Ribose sugar
  4. Carries out protein synthesis
  5. Contains the base uracil
182
Q

DNA

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

  1. Located in the nucleus
  2. 2 strands
  3. Deoxyribose sugar
  4. Directs protein synthesis
  5. Contains the base thymine
183
Q

On the pH what is neutral?
What is an acid?
What is a base?

What does the scale range to?

A 
Neutral = 7
Acid = anything less than 7
Base = anything greater than 7

Ranges from 0 ——-> 14

184
Q

How many molecules and atoms are in; 6NaH(2)SO(4)

How many total atoms?

A

6 molecules 8 atoms

Total atoms: 48 atoms

185
Q

Maximum number each electron shell can hold

A

K-2
L-8
M-18
N-32

186
Q

3 groups of carbohydrates and the amount of sugars they are composed of:

A
  1. Monosaccharides - simple sugars
  2. Disaccharides - 2 simple sugars
  3. Polysaccharides - many simple sugars
187
Q

Types of Monosaccharides

A

Glucose, Galactose, and Fructose

188
Q

All three monosaccharides have what formula?

A

The same formula; C(6)H(12)O(6)

1:2:1 ratio

189
Q

Disaccharides

A

Composed of 2 monosaccharides

Lactose - milk sugar
Sucrose - table sugar
Maltose - malt sugar (brewing industry)

190
Q

Most complex group of carbohydrates

A

Polysaccharides

191
Q

3 polysaccharides

A

Starch - storage form of glucose in plants
Glycogen - storage form of glucose in animals
Cellulose - cell walls of plants for strength

192
Q

What makes up maltose?

A

Glucose and Glucose

193
Q

What is sucrose made up of

A

Glucose and Fructose

194
Q

What is lactose made up of?

A

Glucose and Galactose

195
Q

A blood glucose level above 120 can indicate:

A

Diabetes mellitus

196
Q

What causes Type I diabetes?

A

Too little insulin is produced by the pancreas
It is autoimmune in nature
IDDM

197
Q

What causes Type II diabetes?

A

Insulin receptors do not work as well
Usually occurs as a person ages.
NIDDM

198
Q

3 classic early signs of diabetes:

A

Polyuria - frequency of urination
Polydipsia - extreme thirst
Polyphagia - extreme hunger

199
Q

What causes gestational diabetes?

A

Usually too little insulin produced to accommodate mom and the baby

200
Q

What are other early signs of diabetes?

A
  • rapid loss of weight (10-15 lbs)
  • blurred vision
  • irritability
  • nervousness
  • sores that heal slowly or not at all
201
Q

What are signs of advanced diabetes?

A
  • Gangrene
  • Amputations
  • Heart problems
  • Kidney failure
  • Blindness
202
Q

How do you treat Type I diabetes?

A

Diet, exercise, insulin, insulin pump, B-cell transplant

203
Q

How do you treat Type II diabetes?

A

Diet, exercise, oral meds

204
Q

How do you treat gestational diabetes?

A

Diet, exercise, insulin

205
Q

Polyunsaturated fatty acids

A

(Has 2 or more double bonds between carbon atoms)

Not saturated

206
Q

Each carbon atom has 4 bonds and each hydrogen has 1 bond so it is said to be

A

A saturated molecule

207
Q

Monounsaturated fatty acids

A

Mono- unsaturated

Has one double bond between carbon atoms

208
Q

Degree of saturation - how many bonds can carbon form, and how many bonds can hydrogen form?
(for a saturated fatty acid)

A

Carbon forms 4 bonds

Hydrogen forms 1 bond

209
Q

Cholesterol values

A

Total cholesterol: below 200
LDL: below 100
HDL: above 45
Triglycerides: below 200

210
Q

Bone

A

– Function: support and protection, stores calcium (Ca) and phosphorus (P)
– Location: skeletal system

211
Q

Rule of Nines percentages of body surface area

A 
Anterior Trunk-18%
Posterior Trunk- 18%
Each Leg-18%
Each Arm-9%
Head and Neck-9%
Perineum(genitals)-1%
212
Q

Rule of nines*

A
  • helps assess how much fluid was lost and how much is needed to replace it
  • allows you to estimate amount of surface area involved
213
Q

Basal Cell Carcinoma

A
  • The most common type of skin cancer
  • occurs most often on the sun exposed areas of the face
  • are shiny dome-shaped nodules
  • the basal layer is the most active mitotic layer
  • layer in which melanocytes are located
  • slow growing, seldom there is metastasis
214
Q

in 99% of cases ____ is the cure for Basal Cell Carcinoma

A

Surgery

215
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A
  • layer is mitotic, but not as active as the basal layer.
  • originates in keratinocytes of stratum spinosum
  • occurs most often on scalp, ears, and lower lip
  • grows rapidly and will metastasize if not removed
216
Q

Keratinocyte

A

water-proofing cells in stratus spinosum

an epidermal cell that produces keratin.

217
Q

Malignant Melanoma

A
  • Most dangerous/deadly kind of skin cancer
  • orignates in the melanocytes located in basal layer
  • spreads rapidly
218
Q

Most common procedure/surgery for Malignant Melanoma

A

MOHS surgery Mole is removed and they check the edges for cancerous cells, and if there are cancerous cells they go back in and cut them our

219
Q

Carcinoma

A

Cancer that originates in coverings of the body such as skin or linings

220
Q

Sarcoma

A

cancer that originates in the supportive tissue such as bone, cartilage or muscle

221
Q

Leukemia

A

Cancer of white blood cells

222
Q

Kaposi’s Sarcoma

A

A Sarcoma often seen in AIDs patients because of their compromised immune system

223
Q

Classification of Bones

A
  1. Long bone– More long then wide (ex. most bones of the limbs)
  2. Short bones – they are as long as they are wide. Their function is to provide support and stability with little to no movement. They are roughly cubed shaped.
    (Ex. Bones of the wrist(carpals) and the ankles.)
  3. Flat bones – principal function is either extensive protection or The provision of a broad surface For muscular attachment. Thin, flattened, have a bit of a curve.
    (Ex. Sternum and most skull bones.)
  4. Irregular bone – fit none of the other classes, serve purposes such as protection of the nervous tissue
    (Ex. Vertebrae - protects spinal cord, and the hip bones.)
224
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Bone–forming cells

225
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Bone – destroying cells

226
Q

Hematopoiesis

A
  • The process in the body by which all blood cells are formed
  • this process occurs only in the red marrow
  • in adults the long bones are filled with yellow marrow so hematopoiesis does not occur
  • yellow marrow can convert to red marrow if a person becomes very anemic
227
Q

Where are spongy bones primarily located?

impt because

A

The ends of bones; acts as a shock absorber

228
Q

Osteogenesis

A

– The formation and development of bony tissue

– At six weeks, the skeleton is fibrous membrane and cartilage which needs to be converted to bony tissue

229
Q

Simple fracture

A

– Also called a closed fracture

– Bones break cleanly but do not penetrate the skin

230
Q

Compound fracture

A

– More serious than simple
– Broken ends of the bones penetrate the skin
– Bone infections known as osteomyelitis are possible
– Antibiotics are required

231
Q

Comminuted fracture

A

– Bone fragments into many pieces

– Common in the aged where bones are brittle

232
Q

Compression fracture

A

– Bone is crushed

– Common in porous bones (those with osteoporosis)

233
Q

Depression fracture

A

– Bone is pressed inward

– Typical of skull fracture

234
Q

Impacted fracture

A

-broken bone ends are forced into one another

– Common when trying to break a fall with one’s arm

235
Q

Spiral fracture

A

Ragged break that occurs with a twist to the bone
– Common sports fracture
(Running and came down on their foot, leg twisted bc they had so much momentum)

236
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

– Bone breaks incompletely
– Common in children with flexible bones
Even mild greenstick fracture’s are usually immobilized in a cast, in addition to holding the cracked pieces of the bone together so they can heal, The cast will prevent the bone from breaking all the way through.

237
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

What is it, cause, age onset, sexes affected, Life expectancy

A

– A genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness.
– Cause: caused by the absence of dystrophin-protein that helps keep muscles intact. Also carried on the X chromosome
– Onset is in early childhood usually between ages three and five
– Disease primarily affects boys, but in rare cases it can affect girls
– Rarely live beyond adolescence

238
Q

Genetics for Duchenne muscular dystrophy/inheritance pattern

A

-mother is a carrier but not affected and the father is normal
– There is a One in four chance of having an effective child, there’s a One in two chance that if it is a boy he will have it

239
Q

Symptoms of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

– Calf muscles appearance well-developed(hypertrophy) but are actually wasted away (atrophy); muscle was replace by fat so they’re weak instead of muscular
– Other muscles are actually wasted (atrophy) and appear so: 1. Walk later and fall frequently 2. Walk in a waddling manor with a scissors gait
– lordosis (swayback)

240
Q

Struggles with Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

– trouble getting up after sitting on the floor
– Typically they will use their arms to climb up their legs to standing

– Difficulty with resistance using shoulder girdle, muscles in the shoulder have atrophied

241
Q

Prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

– Progresses slowly
– Eventually involves all voluntary muscles
– Wheelchair bound by 10
– Survival rare beyond 20
– That is usually due to heart or respiratory failure (asphyxiation)

242
Q

Two groups of organs of digestion and their functions

A

Primary – the organs through which food passes

Accessory – the organs that contribute to digestion but food does not pass through them

243
Q

Primary organs of digestion: and the pathway of food through the body from top to bottom

A 
Mouth
Pharynx
Esophagus
Stomach
Duodenum (small intestine)
Ileum  (small intestine)
Jejunum (small intestine)
Ascending colon (large intestine)
Transverse colon (large intestine)
Descending colon (large intestine)
Sigmoid colon (large intestine) - named for its S shape
Rectum 
Anus
244
Q

Accessory organs of digestion, and their function

A

Liver - makes bile
Gallbladder - stores bile
Pancreas - makes digestive enzymes

245
Q

Mouth

A
  • digestion begins in the mouth, and is both mechanical and chemical in nature
  • mechanical because you chew your food (teeth)
  • Chemical because there is an enzyme called salivary amylase that is released and creates carbohydrate digestion
246
Q

Functions of saliva in the mouth

A

– make food softer
– Begin chemical digestion
– Kill bacteria

247
Q

Types of teeth

A
  1. Incisors – located at the front of the mouth, with a sharp biting surface. Used for cutting or shearing food into small chewable pieces
    There are 8 incisors in both primary and permanent dentitions.
  2. Canines – located at the corners of the dental arches, have a sharp, pointed biting surface. Their function is to grip and tear food.
    There are four canine teeth in both primary and permanent dentitions.
  3. Premolars – unlike incisors and canines have a flat biting surface, their function is to tear in crush food. (Grinding.) they are unique to the permanent dentition, which has 8 premolars
  4. Molars – largest of the teeth, have a large flat biting surface. The function of the molars are to crush chew and grind food. There are 8 molars in the primary dentition, and 12 in the permanent dentition.
248
Q

Dental formula for children and adults (and example numbers.)

In the example what is the total number of deciduous teeth and permanent teeth in the mouth?

A

Children: 2 (incisors) - 1 (canine) - 0 (premolars) - 2 (molars)

Adults: 2 (incisors) - 1 (canine) - 2 (premolars) - 3 (molars)

This dental formula tells you how many of each of these are in 1/4 of your mouth.
So to get the total number of teeth in a persons mouth you have to multiply each number by four.

So multiplying by four, the number of deciduous teeth in this dental formula would be 20. The number of permanent teeth in this formula would be 32.

249
Q

The esophagus

A

The esophagus is a muscular tube about 10 inches in length
Connects the throat(pharynx) to the stomach
– It takes 4-8 seconds to move food (known as a bolus) through the esophagus.

250
Q

The stomach

A

– The stomach is the part of the digestive tract in which most digestion of food occurs
It is a pear-shaped enlargement of the alimentary canal(or the digestive tract) that links the esophagus to the small intestine
-in the stomach you’ll find both mechanical and chemical digestion. Mechanical is the churning of food. Chemical digestion is when enzymes are secreted and help digest the food.

251
Q

Where is most food absorbed?

Why?

A
  • in the small intestine

- because it is about 21 feet long and is adapted to absorption

252
Q

Where do we produce the digestive juices that empty into the small intestine?

A

In the pancreas in the liver (accessory organs)

253
Q

What are the functions of the large intestine?

A

– Absorb water

– Produce vitamins like B12 and vitamin K

254
Q

Why are there bacteria in the large intestine?

A

To break down wastes and to produce vitamins

255
Q

Two classes of vitamins

A

– Fat soluble: A, D, E, K

– water soluble: all the others

256
Q

Factors that contribute to anorexia and bulimia

A

– A family that is tightly enmeshed
– Overprotective parents
– Rigid family values
– A family that avoids conflict at all costs

– Genetic, biochemical, psychological, cultural and environmental.
– There is a greater emphasis on a female’s appearance then a males appearance

257
Q

Symptoms of anorexia

A 
– Claiming to feel fat when they're not
– Preoccupation with food and calories
– Denial of hunger
– Excessive exercising
– Frequent weighing
– Loss of menstrual period
– Strange food related behavior
– Weight loss of 25% below normal***
– Hair loss
– Rigid
– Perfectionists
– Low self-esteem
258
Q

What is bulimia?

A 
– Normal weight
– Constant concern with weight and body image
– Low self-esteem
– Poor impulse control
– use of laxatives and diuretics
– High carbohydrate intake
– 5-10,000 calories/binge
– Binging and purging
– Sore throat
– Dehydration
– Irregular heart rhythms
– Depression
– anemia
– G.I. disorders
– Tooth damage
259
Q

What is syrup of ipecac?
What does that have to do with bulimia?
Is it dangerous, and why?

A

A chemical used to induce vomiting
It is often used to induce vomiting after binging
Yes it is dangerous, because it can accumulate in the heart and cause a lethal arrhythmia

260
Q

Pathway of blood:

A 
O= oxygenated blood
D= deoxygenated blood
Superior and inferior vena cava (D) >
Right atrium (D) >
Right ventricle (D) >
Pulmonary arteries (D) >
Lungs (oxygen will be picked up and carried back into the left side of the heart) >
Pulmonary veins (O) >
Left atrium (O) >
Left ventricle (O) >
Aorta (O) >
Body

After blood goes out to the body the cycle is complete and begins again in the superior and inferior vena cava

261
Q

Treatments for a heart attack

A

– Clot busters
– Angioplasty
– Bypass surgery

262
Q

Clot busters; types; when to be given; who not to be given to

A

– 2 clot blusters: TPA, streptokinase
– Must be given within 90 minutes, because the heart muscle will die by then
– Never give to a person who may need surgery, because they may bleed to death

263
Q

Angioplasty; also known as; failure rate

A

– **An inflated balloon is pressed against the wall of the artery to compress the obstruction/plaque
– Also called balloon surgery
– ***About 2/3 fail within one year

264
Q

Bypass surgery

A

– The most dangerous, chest wall is cracked open – a vein is used to replace the blockage.
– Usually a vein from the leg is used
– ***Only good for about 10 years

265
Q

Transmission of the HIV virus

A

– The HIV virus cannot live without a host cell

– The host cell is a white blood cell called the T-4

266
Q

HIV positive symptoms

A

– Night sweats, fever, unexplained weight loss 10 pounds or more, diarrhea, fatigue, vaginal infection

267
Q

Diagnosing full-blown AIDS

A
  1. You must test HIV-positive plus one of the following:
    a. Have a T cell count of 200 or less – normal T-cell count: 1000-1200 mL
    b. Have an opportunistic infection
268
Q

Timeline for aids

A

Infection: flu like symptoms for 2 to 4 weeks
Window period**: The time from infection to testing positive for the virus 3 to 6 months
HIV positive asymptomatic: test positive for HIV, but show no symptoms 7 to 15 years
HIV positive symptomatic colon test positive for HIV, begin to show symptoms for 3 to 7 years
Aids: full-blown symptoms for 3 to 5 years

269
Q

“Fight or Flight” response

A

Stress>Brain(hypothalamus)>Pituitary Gland>ACTH>Blood>Adrenal Glands>Adrenalin, Cortisol, and other stress hormones>Blood>Body responds to stress

270
Q

Why is tobacco smoke more dangerous to infants and children than adults?

A

They weigh less, so pollutants are more concentrated in their bodies
Their lungs are still growing so they are more easily damaged

271
Q

Pathway of air through the body

A 
Nose
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Primary bronchus
Secondary bronchus
Tertiary bronchitis
Bronchiole
Terminal bronchiole
Alveolus (air sac) - where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged
272
Q

Cystic fibrosis

A

The most common lethal genetic disease in the United States, every day two children die of it
Passed on by two parents who are carriers, affects one of every 2400 white children
An autosomal recessive

273
Q

Sx of cystic fibrosis

A 
Sweat tastes very salty 
Frequent respiratory infections
Difficulty breathing
Difficulty keeping weight
Clubbed fingers and toes
Barrel shaped chest
Ascites
274
Q

Cystic fibrosis treatments

A

Mucomyst - The brand name for acetylcysteine. A chemical most often in hailed by patience to thin their thick mucus and make it easier to expel
Postural drainage or vest - The patient is turned in different directions to help dislodge the thick mucus some use a vest to vibrate the mucus loose
Antibiotics
Viokase - A tablet or a pill taken orally by patience, contains pancreatic enzymes like lipase, protease, and Amylase to help these patients digest their food more readily

BIO 125 (9 decks)

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