Quiz 2 + 3 Flashcards
To minimize the risk of litigation, the EMT should always:
1 transport patients to the hospital of their choice.
1 provide competent care that meets current standards.
2 use universal precautions with every patient encounter.
3 utilize at least four personnel when moving a patient.
2
Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?
1 actual
2 implied
3 informed
4 expressed
2
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child’s parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do?
1 Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital.
2 Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent.
3 Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital.
4 Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.
1
You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child’s mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should:
1 use your authority under the implied consent law.
2 try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed.
3 ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave.
4 tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.
2
In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:
1 be dated within the previous 24 months.
2 clearly state the patient’s name and physician.
3 be updated a minimum of every 6 months.
4 be signed by the local justice of the peace.
2
You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?
1 absence of a pulse
2 profound cyanosis
3 dependent lividity
4 absent breath sounds
3
The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
1 medical director.
2 state EMS office.
3 EMS supervisor.
4 local health district.
1
Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?
1 transport of a mentally incompetent patient against his or her will
2 deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury
3 transferring patient care to a provider with a lower level of training
4 providing care that is consistent with care provided by other EMTs
2
Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence?
1 abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation
2 duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation
3 duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation
4 breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation
3
After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient’s last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:
1 draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.
2 attempt to erase the error, initial it, and then write the correct data on a separate addendum.
3 cover the error with correction fluid and simply write the patient’s actual blood pressure over it.
4 leave the error on your PCR but inform the staff of the patient’s actual blood pressure.
1
Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is MOST correct?
1 A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment.
2 Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented.
3 A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport.
4 Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.
3
A ___________ receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.
1 duplex
2 scanner
3 repeater
4 decoder
3
Two-way communication that requires the EMT to “push to talk” and “release to listen” describes what mode of communication?
1 duplex
2 simplex
3 multiplex
4 mediplex
2
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)?
1 monitoring all radio traffic and conducting field spot checks
2 maintaining communications equipment on the ambulance
3 licensing base stations and assigning appropriate radio call signs
4 allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers
2
Information included in a radio report to the receiving hospital should include all of the following, EXCEPT:
1 your perception of the severity of the problem.
2 a preliminary diagnosis of the patient’s problem.
3 brief history of the patient’s current problem.
4 a brief summary of the care you provided.
2
You and your partner are attempting to resuscitate a middle-aged female in cardiac arrest. Because of the remote location you are in, you are unable to contact medical control. What should you do?
1 Perform CPR only and initiate immediate transport.
2 Make continuous attempts to contact medical control.
3 Ask the husband if he wants to continue resuscitation.
4 Follow locally established protocols or standing orders.
4
The nose, chin, umbilicus (navel), and spine are examples of ___________ anatomic structures.
1 midline
2 proximal
3 superior
4 midaxillary
1
The ___________ plane separates the body into equal left and right halves.
1 sagittal
2 midcoronal
3 transverse
4 midsagittal
4
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the:
1 proximal forearm.
2 superior forearm.
3 dorsal forearm.
4 distal forearm.
4
The topographic term used to describe the part of the body that is nearer to the feet is:
1 dorsal
2 inferior.
3 internal.
4 superior.
2
In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:
1 distal.
2 medial.
3 lateral.
4 proximal.
4
A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. What aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?
1 palmar
2 plantar
3 dorsal
4 ventral
2
The ___________ of the heart is the inferior portion of the left ventricles.
1 apex
2 base
3 dorsum
4 septum
1
Movement or motion away from the body’s midline is called:
1 flexion.
2 extension.
3 adduction.
4 abduction.
4
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
1 foramen ovale.
2 vertebral foramen.
3 spinous foramen.
4 foramen magnum.
4
Which of the following is NOT a facial bone?
Correct!
1 mastoid
2 maxilla
3 mandible
4 zygoma
1
You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that:
1 small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.
2 assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs.
3 the infant’s proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction.
4 an infant’s head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.
1
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
1 3 and 4 months.
2 6 and 8 months.
3 7 and 14 months.
4 9 and 18 months.
4
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
1 becomes acutely anxious at the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.
2 clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted.
3 shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
4 reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.
3
Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the:
1 elasticity of the lungs decreases.
2 surface area of the alveoli increases.
3 overall size of the airway decreases.
4 diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.
1
