Quiz 16 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following processes occurs during ovulation?

1 Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity.

2 The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina.

3 The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation.

4 Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.

A

3

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2
Q

The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the:

1 womb.

2 cervix.

3 fundus.

4 birth canal.

A

4

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3
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct?

1 The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus.

2 The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother’s blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus.

3 The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born.

4 The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.

A

1

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4
Q

The amniotic fluid serves to:

1 transfer oxygen to the fetus.

2 insulate and protect the fetus.

3 remove viruses from the fetus.

4 assist in fetal development.

A

2

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5
Q

By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother’s:

1 belly button.

2 pubic bone.

3 xiphoid process.

4 superior diaphragm.

A

1

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6
Q

A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately:

1 4 hours.

2 8 hours.

3 10 hours.

4 16 hours.

A

4

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7
Q

The onset of labor begins with:

1 thinning of the uterus.

2 full dilation of the cervix.

3 increased fetal movement.

4 contractions of the uterus.

A

4

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8
Q

Which of the following occurs during true labor?

1 Uterine contractions decrease in intensity.

2 The uterus becomes very soft and movable.

3 Uterine contractions become more regular.

4 Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

A

3

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9
Q

After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience:

1 midback pain.

2 a bloated feeling.

3 an urge to push.

4 easier breathing.

A

4

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10
Q

Question 10
0 / 1 pts
Which of the following regarding preeclampsia is correct.

A. It occurs in the father

B. It only occurs in mothers who have had previous deliveries
You Answered

C. Signs and symptoms include hypotension, headache, and visual changes

D. It typically occurs after the 20th week of gestation

A

D

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11
Q

Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as:

1 high levels of protein in the patient’s urine.

2 hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy.

3 seizures that result from severe hypertension.

4 a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.

A

3

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12
Q

A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should:

1 place her in a left lateral recumbent position.

2 position her supine and elevate her legs 12″.

3 carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina.

4 assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A

1

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13
Q

A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman’s risk for:

1 preeclampsia.

2 placenta previa.

3 gestational diabetes.

4 an ectopic pregnancy.

A

4

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14
Q

A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because:

1 pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate.

2 pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure.

3 pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume.

4 blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.

A

3

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15
Q

The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates:

1 an expected finding in full-term infants.

2 that the baby’s airway may be obstructed.

3 that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature.

4 that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.

A

2

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16
Q

Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth?

1 rupture of the amniotic sac

2 crowning of the baby’s head

3 irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes

4 expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

A

2

17
Q

When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her:

1 in a supine position with her legs spread.

2 on her left side with the right leg elevated.

3 in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12″.

4 on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″.

A

4

18
Q

A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who:

1 have gestational diabetes.

2 are younger than 30 years of age.

3 have delivered a baby before.

4 are pregnant for the first time.

A

3

19
Q

When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to:

1 hold her breath.

2 push for 30 seconds.

3 take quick short breaths.

4 rest and breathe deeply

A

3

20
Q

During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby’s head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do?

1 Apply gentle pressure to the baby’s head as it delivers.

2 Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately.

3 Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord.

4 Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

A

1

21
Q

A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that:

1 has separated from the placenta.

2 is wrapped around the baby’s neck.

3 is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery.

4 has abnormally developed blood vessels.

A

2

22
Q

After a baby is born, it is important to:

1 ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed.

2 position it so that its head is higher than its body.

3 cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing.

4 immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

A

1

23
Q

Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency?

1 failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes

2 significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta

3 return of contractions following delivery of the baby

4 more than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

A

3

24
Q

Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT:

1 suctioning of the upper airway.

2 thorough drying with a towel.

3 positive-pressure ventilations.

4 some form of tactile stimulation.

A

3

25
Q

Vigorous suctioning of a newborn’s airway is indicated if:

1 there is meconium in the amniotic fluid.

2 positive-pressure ventilations are indicated.

3 the newborn presents with labored breathing.

4 his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.

A

1

26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score?

1 pulse

2 activity

3 grimace

4 body size

A

4

27
Q

You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is:

1 6

2 7

3 8

4 9

A

3

28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct?

1 A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part.

2 There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation.

3 It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting.

4 Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.

A

1

29
Q

The only indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are:

1 breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord.

2 limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage.

3 vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta.

4 nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.

A

1

30
Q

Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which:

1 an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord.

2 nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly.

3 the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis.

4 a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

A

4

31
Q

Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct?

1 Twins are typically larger than single infants.

2 Identical twins are typically of different gender.

3 Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other.

4 Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.

A

3

32
Q

An infant is considered to be premature if it:

11 is born before 38 weeks’ gestation or weighs less than 6 lb.

2 weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks’ gestation.

3 is born before 40 weeks’ gestation or weighs less than 7 lb.
Correct!

4 weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks’ gestation.

A

4

33
Q

Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should:

1 begin full resuscitation and transport.

2 report the case to the medical examiner.

3 provide emotional support to the mother.

4 dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.

A

3

34
Q

Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as:

1 delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby.

2 premature placental separation from the uterine wall.

3 abnormal development and functioning of the placenta.

4 development of the placenta over the cervical opening.

A

4