quiz 1

Question 1

The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to:

1 vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution.

2 be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure.

3 get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to.

4 activate your department’s infection control plan as soon as possible.

Answer 1

4 activate your department’s infection control plan as soon as possible.

Question 2

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)?

1 a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting

2 a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

3 a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients

4 a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

Answer 2

2: a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured

Question 3

The standards for prehospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the:

1 state office of EMS.
2 regional trauma center.
3 American Heart Association.
4 National Registry of EMTs.

Answer 3

1

Question 4

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) including medication administration, cardiac rhythm interpretation, and endotracheal intubation is called a(n):

1 EMT.

2 Paramedic.

3 Advanced EMT (AEMT).

4 EMR.

Answer 4

2

Question 5

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the:

1 National Registry of EMTs.

2 Individual state’s EMS protocols.

3 National Association of EMTs.

4 National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

Answer 5

4

Question 6

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

1 assist a patient with certain prescribed medications

2 insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids.

3 administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route.

4 interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

Answer 6

1

Question 7

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

1 EMT.

2 paramedic.

3 AEMT.

4 EMR.

Answer 7

1

Question 8

The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include:

1 demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds.

2 proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases.

3 a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care.

4 successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course.

Answer 8

2

Question 9

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should:

1 wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class

2 send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam.

3 recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure.

4 contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

Answer 9

4

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?

1 The ADA only applies to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.

2 The requirements to successfully complete an EMT program are different for those who are disabled.

3 The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to the disabled.

4 According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

Answer 10

3

Question 11

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:

1 the patient’s condition.

2 your local EMS protocols.

3 an order from a paramedic.

4 the transport time to the hospital.

Answer 11

2

Question 12

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to:

1 perform blood glucose monitoring.

2 apply and interpret a pulse oximeter.

3 use an automatic transport ventilator.

4 Shock using an automated external defibrillator.

Answer 12

1

Question 13

Which of the following statements regarding the NREMT is correct?

1 The NREMT is a governmental agency that certifies EMTs.

2 EMS training standards are regulated by the NREMT.

3 The NREMT is the exclusive certifying body for EMTs.

4 The NREMT provides a national standard for EMS testing.

Answer 13

4

Question 14

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?

1 a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device

2 a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia

3 a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle

4 a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)

Answer 14

4

Question 15

Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT:

1 one- or two-rescuer CPR.

2 splinting of a possible fracture.

3 insertion of an oropharyngeal airway.

4 control of life-threatening bleeding.

Answer 15

3

Question 16

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?
1 oral glucose for hypoglycemia

2 AED use in cardiac arrest

3 intranasal medication administration

4 use of a manually triggered ventilator

Answer 16

2

Question 17

EMRs such as fire fighters, law enforcement officers, and park rangers, are an integral part of the EMS system because:

1 they are usually trained to assist paramedics with certain procedures.

2 the presence of a person trained to initiate basic life support (BLS) care cannot be ensured.

3 the average response time for the EMT crew is approximately 15 minutes.

4 they can initiate certain ALS procedures before EMS arrival.

Answer 17

2

Question 18

Which of the following is a unique function of the certified emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)?

1 relaying relevant information to the EMTs

2 directing the ambulance to the correct address

3 obtaining patient information from the caller

4 providing callers with life-saving instructions

Answer 18

4

Question 19

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation.

1 human resources department

2 office of the medical director

3 EMS administrator or chief

4 local public health department

Answer 19

1

Question 20

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:

1 shift supervisor.

2 medical director.

3 EMS administrator.

4 field training officer

Answer 20

2

Question 21

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT’s scope of practice is correct?

1 The EMS medical director can expand the EMT’s scope beyond the state scope of practice.

2 The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT’s scope of practice without state approval.

3 An EMT’s scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director.

4 An EMT’s scope of practice may be limited by the medical director to meet the needs of the community.

Answer 21

4

Question 22

What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe?

1 radio

2 online

3 off-line

4 direct

Answer 22

3

Question 23

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to:

1 provide punitive action to EMTs who do not follow local protocols

2 identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

3 ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office.

4 focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

Answer 23

2

Question 24

Which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
1 An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.

2 Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient’s spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.

3 A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

4 An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.

Answer 24

4

Question 25

Continuing education in EMS serves to:

1 prove research and statistical findings in pre-hospital care.

2 maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.

3 enforce mandatory attendance to agency-specific training.

4 provide an ongoing review and audit of the EMS system.

Answer 25

2

Question 26

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:

1 individual EMT

2 State Bureau of EMS.

3 EMS training officer.

4 EMS medical director.

Answer 26

1

Question 27

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

1 community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

2 the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash

3 protecting a patient’s spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height

4 teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR

Answer 27

1

Question 28

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on:

1 EMS research.

2 local protocols.

3 the lead EMT’s decision.

4 regional trauma guidelines.

Answer 28

1

Question 29

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis?

1 Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness.

2 EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis.

3 Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.

4 The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years.

Answer 29

3

Question 30

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:

1 avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic.

2 recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives.

3 purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer’s claim.

4 determine which device the American Heart Association suggests.

Answer 30

2

Question 31

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

1 continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

2 demand the patient to be quiet and cooperative during transport.

3 ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.

4 reassure him or her that everything will be all right, even if it will not be.

Answer 31

1

Question 32

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What route of transmission does this scenario describe?

1 direct contact

2 indirect contact

3 airborne transmission

4 vector-borne transmission

Answer 32

2

Question 33

The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:

1 undergo an annual physical examination.

2 ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.

3 wash your hands in between patient contacts.

4 undergo human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing at least twice a year.

Answer 33

3

Question 34

If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:

1 wash your hands with soap and water at the hospital.

2 immediately dry your hands with a paper towel.

3 wait at least 5 minutes before touching another patient.

4 avoid donning another pair of gloves for at least 10 minutes.

Answer 34

1

Question 35

You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should:

1 apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself.

2 remain at least 3 feet away from the patient and apply a surgical mask on him.

3 apply a sterile surgical mask on yourself and a HEPA respirator on the patient.

4 apply a nasal cannula on the patient and a sterile surgical mask on yourself.

Answer 35

1

Question 36

While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should:

1 immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution.

2 report the incident to your supervisor after the call.

3 get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible.

4 discontinue patient care and seek medical attention

Answer 36

2

Question 37

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to:

1 careless handling of sharps.

2 a lack of proper immunizations.

3 excessive blood splashing or splattering.

4 a noncompliance with standard precautions.

Answer 37

1

Question 38

Determination of exposure is an important component of an infection control plan because it:

1 determines the time of day that most exposures are likely to occur.

2 determines which type of communicable disease might be present in the workplace.

3 defines who is most likely to transmit communicable diseases in the workplace.

4 defines who is at risk for contact with blood and body fluids and which tasks pose a risk of exposure.

Answer 38

4

Question 39

The compliance monitoring component of an infection control plan should:

1 ensure that employees understand what they should do and why it is important.

2 identify who to notify after an exposure and where treatment should be provided.

3 consist of a list of tasks that pose a risk for contact with blood or other body fluids.

4 address issues such as medical waste collection, storage, and ambulance disinfection.

Answer 39

1

Question 40

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:

1 allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions.

2 use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces.

3 clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water.

4 spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.

Answer 40

1

Question 41

If a person is partially immune to a particular disease, he or she:

1 is not protected from a new infection if exposed to another individual.

2 must be revaccinated at least every 18 months to avoid infection.

3 may develop illness from germs that lie dormant from the initial infection.

4 will not experience future illness, even if his or her immune system is stressed.

Answer 41

3

Question 42

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?

1 It is far more contagious than hepatitis B.

2 It is easily transmittable in the EMS field.

3 HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood.

4 There is no vaccine against HIV infection.

Answer 42

4

Question 43

A positive TB skin test indicates that:

1 you have never been exposed to TB.

2 you have been exposed to the disease.

3 you are actively infected with the disease.

4 the disease is dormant and may become active.

Answer 43

2

Question 44

What type of stress reaction occurs when an EMT is exposed to many insignificant stressors over a period of several months or years?

1 acute stress reaction

2 cumulative stress reaction

3 posttraumatic stress reaction

4 critical incident stress reaction

Answer 44

2

Question 45

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?

1 An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia.

2 A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries.

3 An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed shortly after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children.

4 An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash several weeks after being involved in a call with same type of car in which a child was previously killed.

Answer 45

4

Question 46

You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by:

1 providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers.

2 requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support.

3 conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day

4 allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.

Answer 46

2

Question 47

As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress:

1 may not be obvious or present all the time.

2 usually manifest suddenly and without warning.

3 cannot be identified and can cause health problems.

4 are most effectively treated with medications

Answer 47

1

Question 48

Which of the following is the MOST effective strategy for managing stress?

1 Frequently reflect on troublesome calls.

2 Avoid friends and interests outside of EMS.

3 Request overtime to increase your income.

4 Focus on delivering high-quality patient care

Answer 48

4

Question 49

Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do?

1 Remain quiet and simply request another partner.

2 Report the incident to your EMS medical director.

3 Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor.

4 Tell your partner that he must seek professional help.

Answer 49

3

Question 50

You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient’s behavior consistent with?

1 denial

2 anger

3 bargaining

4 depression

Answer 50

2