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CTO > Quiz 1 > Flashcards

Quiz 1 Flashcards

1
Q

5 functions of Plasma Membrane

A
  1. Signaling 2.Transport 3.Growth 4.Motility 5. divide cells into compartments
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2
Q

How thick is the plasma membrane

A

8 to 9 nm

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3
Q

What is the most abundant phospholipid?

A

Phosphatidylcholine

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4
Q

5 most common phospholipids

A

1.sphingomyelin 2.phosphatidylserine 3.phosphatidylinositol 4.phasphatidyl-ethanolamine 5.glycolipids

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5
Q

Structure of glycerol

A
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6
Q

phospholipid structure

A
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7
Q

True or false phospholipids are distributed symmetrically

A

false

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8
Q

What class of enzymes maintains asymmetry of plasma membrane

A

Filpases

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9
Q

Glycolipids are made in which organelle

A

Golgi

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10
Q

Inside of golgi looks like which surface of cell membrane

A

outer

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11
Q

Phospholipids in membrane are usually turned over how frequently?

A

matter of hours

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12
Q

5 functions of transmembrane proteins

A
  1. transporters
  2. Receptors
  3. Anchors
  4. Enzymes
  5. Structural
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13
Q

3 ways porteins/channels can gin access to inside of the cell

A
  1. Diffusion
  2. carrier proteins
  3. Channel Proteins
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14
Q

What is spectrin?

A

A protein that is important in forming the RBC’s unusual shape.

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15
Q

Proteins with longer carbohydrate chains are called _____

Proteins with shorter chains are called _____

A

proteoglycans

glycoproteins

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16
Q

What is lectin

A

Molecule that recognizes and binds to carbohydrates attached to the memebrane of some WBCs

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17
Q

Which phospholipid commonly interacts with proteisn to form lipid rafts?

A

spingolipids

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18
Q

What is GPI and why is it important?

A

Glycosylphosphatidylinositol (GPI) important for stability

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19
Q

3 Ways material can enter the cell

A
  1. diffusion
  2. Integral Membrane Protein
  3. Endocytosis
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20
Q

2 types of endocytosis

A
  1. Pinocytosis
  2. Phagocytosis
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21
Q

What is size of particles ingested with pinocytosis

A

<150nm

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22
Q

2 types of Pinocytosis

A
  1. Clathrin independent
  2. Receptor mediated Endocytosis
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23
Q

True or false clathrin-independent pinocytosis is a constitutive process

A

true

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24
Q

What is the main protein we discussed that is involved in clathrin-independent pinocytosis

A

Caveolin

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25
Q

What is the protein that cuts off a pinocytotic vessel from the plasma membrane

A

dynamin

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26
Q

What source of energy does dynamin use to cut off vesicle from plasma membrane?

A

GTP

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27
Q

What is the main protein associated with receptor mediated endocytosis?

A

Clathrin

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28
Q

What is adaptin/aP-2

A

binds clathirin to receptor

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29
Q

What word is used to desribe the shape of Clathrin

A

triskelion

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30
Q

What is Rab-5

A

labels vesicle for transit through the endosomal pathway

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31
Q

Is dynamin used with clathrin coated vesicles as well?

A

yes

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32
Q

4 types of ligands that eter the cell via receptor-mediated endocytosis

A
  1. Hormones
  2. Growth factors
  3. Lymphokines
  4. Nutrients
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33
Q

What distinguishes early endosomes?

A

lack of acid hydrolases

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34
Q

T/F all endosomes have a H+ ion pumps

A

T

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35
Q
  1. pH of early endosome
  2. pH of late endosome
  3. pH of lysosome
A
  1. ~6
  2. 5.5-6
  3. ~5
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36
Q

What are ESCRT proteins?

A

Endosomal sorting complex required for transport…label proteins for passage through endocytotic pathway

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37
Q

Where are endosomes synthesized?

Where are endosomes packaged and coated?

A
  • ER
  • Golgi
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38
Q

What two things determine [H+]

A
  1. number of H+ pumps
  2. Volume of vescile they have to cover
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39
Q

What does mannose-6-phosphate do

A

tags hydrolases to transport to endosomes and lysosomes

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40
Q

Why do lysosomes need highly glycosylated coating?

A

To protect their membranes from destruction

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41
Q

What are rubbery bumps of fatty deposits called?

A

xanthomas

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42
Q

Is Familial Hypercholesterolemia dominant or recessive?

A

Dominant

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43
Q

What is affected/ wrong in patients with Familial Hypercholesterolemia?

A

There is an absense or malfuction of LDL receptors, so recpetor can’t bind to AP-2, so LDL is not endocytosed.

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44
Q

Which ethnic group has particularly high prevanelce of Familial Hypercholesterolemia

A

French Canadian

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45
Q

True of false, Phagocytosis is always triggered by activated receptors

A

true

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46
Q

What size particles are ingested via phagocytosis

A

>250

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47
Q

Which two cell tpes are “professional phagocytes”

A
  1. Macrophage
  2. Neutrophils
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48
Q

In phagocytosis, how does formation of psedopodia occur?

A

reorganization of actin cytoskeleton

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49
Q

What is it called when a bacterium/particle is coated by antibody or complement?

A

opsonization

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50
Q

What is complement?

A

protein constituent of blood that is involved in immune reactions

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51
Q

Which organelle’s membrane is used for autophagy?

A

ER

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52
Q

How is it possible to distinguish between a phagosome and an autophagosome

A

autophagosome has two laters of membrane since the membrane comes from the ER

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53
Q

What are vesicles called that have byproducts in lysosomes that can’t be recycled and that aren’t excreted ?

A

lipofuscin

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54
Q

2 othe rnames for lipofuscin

A
  1. wear and tear pigment
  2. residual bodies
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55
Q

Organelles satisfy which two needs for eukaryotic development

A
  1. Increased membrane surface area
  2. Specialization to attain complexity
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56
Q

4 Benefits of organelles

A
  1. Surface area for membrane dependent functions
  2. Compartmentalization
  3. Directed flow of proteins
  4. Degradation
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57
Q

Two categories of organelles

A
  1. Membranous
  2. Macromolecular complexes
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58
Q

What occurs in ER

A

protein and lipid synthesis and important storage depot for Ca2+

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59
Q

What happens in Golgi?

A

Proteins from ER are modified and sorted to their specific final locations

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60
Q

In cell fractionation of hepatocyte, what percentage of volume is in cytosol.

What percentage is in membrane bound organelles.

Which organelle took up the most %

What was percentage of nucleus

A

50

50

Mito

6

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61
Q

In hepatocyte membrane study…What percentage of the membrane did hte plasma membrane account for? What about ER and mito?

A

2

50

40

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62
Q

What is size range of mitochondria

A

.5-1 micrometer diameter

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63
Q

T/F mito involved in procceses besides aerobic respiration

A

T

ex urea cycle

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64
Q

Mitochondira are associated with which cytoskeleton element

A

microtubues

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65
Q

Mito has how many membranes

how many compartments

A

2

2

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66
Q

In inner membrane of mito the ratio of protein to lipids is

A

3:1

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67
Q

Production of ATP occurs where in mito?

A

matrix side of inner membrane

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68
Q

The business end of the mito is where?

A

inner membrane

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69
Q

How much more energy from oxidation of pyruvate then from glycolyis

A

15x

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70
Q

How many protons need to be pumped to make 1 atp

A

3

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71
Q
A
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72
Q

How much ATP per second from each ATP synthase?

A

100 ATP

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73
Q

What are two things that are increased in regards to mitochondra and increased energy demand

A
  1. number of mitochondria
  2. Increased cristae
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74
Q

What makes mitochodrial replication complex?

A

having two-mebranes and two compartments

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75
Q

What is different about mtDNA

A

no histones

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76
Q

Most known mtDNA mutations affect hwat?

A

electron transport/ ATP synthesis

77
Q

MERRF

Myocolonic Epilepsy with Ragged Red Ribers

affects a gene that does what?

A

encodes tRNA -lysine

78
Q

majority of RNA is what kind of RNA?

A

rRNA

79
Q

Ribosomes translate which kind of RNA to protein?

A

mRNA

80
Q
A
81
Q

During translation mRNA moves in what order through the different sites in the ribosome?

A

A, P, E

82
Q

____ subunit of ribosomes some as frame where tRNA anticodon reads mRNA codo, ____ subunit catalyzes peptide bond formation

A

small

large

83
Q

DNA is translated in which direction

A

5-3

84
Q

during replication, which subunit of hte ribosome moves first

A

large

85
Q

Ribosome has how many binding sites and what are they named

A

4

  1. for mRNA
  2. A site (aminoacyl)
  3. P-Site Peptidyl
  4. E-Site Exit
86
Q

Any peptide that will be in a membrane-enclosed structure msut enter the

A

ER

87
Q

What guides protein to ER

A

SRP signal recognition particle

88
Q

Any peoptide that will be inserted into the membrane with in the cell will enter the

A

ER

89
Q

Erythomycin blocks which channel

A

exit

90
Q

tetracyclines block which site

A

A site

91
Q

Chloramphenicol blocks what?

A

Peptidyl transferase rxn

92
Q

are proteasomes abundant?

A

yes

93
Q

Where are proteosomes located –2 places

A

cytosol and nucleus

94
Q

how do proteasomes recognize which proteins have to be degraded?

A

ubiquination

95
Q

4 functions of sER

A
  1. synthesis of membrane lipids
  2. synthesis of steroid hormones
  3. Durg detox
  4. sequestration of calcium
96
Q

Cis face of Golgi is closest to what

A

ER

97
Q

What kind of modifications are done in Golgi?

A

glyco modifications of proteins

98
Q

enzymes for protiens are produced where?

A

ER and then sent to Golgi for packaging

99
Q

what is a secondary lysosome/ heterolysosome?

A

lysosome in which ingested material is degraded

100
Q

Which enzyme is deficinet in Tay-Sachs

A

hexosaminidase

101
Q

What accumulates and wherein Tay-Sachs

A

Glycolipids in lysosomes of neurons

102
Q

Is Tay-Sachs

autosomal recessive/dominant

A

recessive

103
Q

What happens in Hurler Syndrome

A

One of the enzymes that breaks down GAGs is affected

104
Q

Besides tay sachs and hurlers, what other type lysosomal disorder?

A

around 10 glycogen storage disease

105
Q

Besides endocytosis what else uses clathrin

A

vesicle formation from golgi

106
Q

secretory vesicles have what fold concentration

A

200-400

107
Q

size of peroxisome?

A

0.5 micrometer

108
Q

Where are peroxisomes most abundant

A

liver

kidneys

109
Q

Function of peroxisome–3

A
  1. Beta ox of fatty acids
  2. detox of alcohol and drugs
  3. synthesis in plasmalogens which make myelin sheaths
110
Q

2 main rxns of Peroxisome?

A
  1. Oxidation
  2. Peroxidation
111
Q

IN peroxisomes what two things can happen to hydrogen peroxide

A
  1. reduced to Water
  2. Reduces fatty acid
112
Q

What happens in Zellweger Syndrome? Most likely what kind of issue

A
  • Absense of peroxisomal enzymes
  • probably packaging issues…enzymes are made, but aren’t packaged correctly
113
Q

What happens in Adrenoleukodystrophy

A

failure of B-ox of fatty acids

Lipids accululate in nervous system and adrenal glands

114
Q

Surface area generates what 3 things.

A
  1. Complexity
  2. Differentation
  3. Longevity
115
Q

which type of heterochromatin will probably never be unwound? and where is it located

What type of heterchromatin will sometimes be transcribed and where does it go

A

Constitutive

Stays close to nuclear lamina around the perimeter of the nuclear envelope.

Facultative

More towards the center of the nucleus

116
Q

how big is the perinuclear space

A

20-50 nm

117
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have

A

23

118
Q

How many base paris are wound around 1 pair of histones?

A

~150

119
Q

solenoid is how many nm

A

30

120
Q

nucleosome is how many nm

A

11

121
Q

DNA/ Nucleosome / Solenoid interaction with which portein forms 300 and 700 nm loops

A

condensins

122
Q

Which protein complex is capable of moving histones in the nucleosome and also of decondensing solenoids to increase avaiilability of a starand of DNA for transcription?

-Does this require energy?

A
  • Nucleosome remodeling complex
  • yes
123
Q

What are steps for getting something into the nucleus

4 steps

A

1) Proteins need NLS
2) Proteins with NLS bind to importin
3) Importins bind to nucleoporins
4) GTP is hydrolyzed and protein is released

124
Q

Which side of nucleus has high [GTP]

A

nuclear side

125
Q

Where is tRNA synthesized

A

The nucleolus

126
Q

Where does DNA for rRNA come fro?

A

DNA from 5 pairs of chromosomes

127
Q

Average size of eukaryotic cell

Aversize of nucleus

A

10-50micrometers

5–10 micrometers

128
Q

Is rDNA being transcribed in Fibrillar Center

Is rDNA being transcribed in dense Fibrillar Zone

What’s happening in Granular Zone

A

no

yes

ribosomal packaging and processing

129
Q

What are the two subunits of Ribosomes

A

60s and 70 s

130
Q

What 3 phases are included in interphase

A

G1, s, G2

131
Q

How long is prophase `

A

+/- an hour

132
Q

How long is Metaphase

A

<1 hour

133
Q

How long is anaphase

A

<1/2 hour

134
Q

how long is telophase

A

minutes

135
Q

How long is S phase

A

8 hours

136
Q

how long is g1

A

25

137
Q

about how long is total cell cycle

A

38 hours

138
Q

What is division of hte nucleus called

A

karyokinesis

139
Q

___ ____ in centrosome are the nucleation sites for MTs

A

y-tubulin rings

140
Q

When does nucleolus disappear

A

prophase

141
Q

how does nuclear envoelop break down?

A

lamin phosphorylated by M-CDK

142
Q

What is the protein called that binds sister chromatids together?

A

cohesin

143
Q

around how many proteins make up the kinetochore?

A

over 60

144
Q

astral kinetochores are pulled by which motor protein

A

dynein

145
Q

polar MTs are pushed by which motor protein

A

kinesins

146
Q

What are the steps in the break down of cohesin

A
  1. Anaphase Promoting complex (APC) is phosphorylated
  2. Securin is ubiquinated and destroyed
  3. proteolytic enzyme (separase) is no longer inhibited by securin and it goes and breaks cohesin
147
Q

What phosphorylates the APC

A

CDK

148
Q

What happens in Anaphase A

A

Chromes are pulled poleward

149
Q

What happens in Anaphase B?

A

Poles are pushed apart

150
Q

S-Cdk promotes which phase and is present when?

M-Cdk promotes which phase and is present when?

A

S phase

Middle of G1, to Middle of M

Mitosis

Beginning of G2 to middle of M

151
Q

How many checkpoints are there

Where are they

What do they check

A

3.

1) G1 Checkpoint Before S phase

Checks to see if environment is favorable and if there is any DNA damage

2) G2 Checkpoint Before Mitosis

Checks to see if all of the DNA is replicated and if damaged DNA has been repaired

3) Mitosis Checkpoint

Checks to see if all chromosomes are properly attached to spindle

152
Q

How does Rb protein work?

A

when active it inactivates transcription regulators, An activated G1/S Cdk phosphorylates it and Rb becomes inactive and the transcription regulator becomes active

153
Q

What are the two types of kinsases that activate p53

A

1) activated during cell stress
2) activated when there’s DNA damage.

154
Q

How does p53 work

A

p53 is phosphorylated by cdk
active p53 causes production of a protein that inhibits the cyclin/Cdk complex that promotes the S phase

If dna doesn’t get repaired p53 activates mechanisms for apoptosis

155
Q

Is there an inflammatory response with apoptosis

A

no

156
Q

What is one of the most powerful activators of cell suicide

A

release of cytochrome C from damaged mitochodria

157
Q

What does Bc1 2 do?

A

blocks apoptosis

158
Q

was does caspase do?

A

trigger cell death

159
Q

4 types of tissues

A

epithelium, connective tissue, muscle, nerve

160
Q

5 functions of connective tissue

A
  1. Protection
  2. absorption
  3. secretion
  4. sensory perception
  5. contractility
161
Q

What kind of stains do you have to use to see basal bodies

A

eosinophilic

162
Q

What is PKD

A

polycystic kidney disease

inherited defects in the assembly of cilia

163
Q

What is Bardet-Biedl?

A

Genes that produce proteins necessary for intraflagellar transport and the formation of cilia

164
Q

Which type of cellular connector (zona occluda, adherens, and desmosome) has cadherins

A

zona adheres/ adherent junction and desmosomes

165
Q

Waht kind of stain do you have to use to see Basement Membrane/ Basal Surface

A

PAS

166
Q

what kind of epithelial cells are in respiratory airways

A

pseudostratifed columnar

167
Q

GI tract is usually what kind of epithelia

A

simple columnar

168
Q
  • In cigarette smokers what happes to epithelium
  • acid reflux
A
  • pseudostratified to stratified squamous
  • stratified squamous to columnar
169
Q

Type 1 Collagen is found where?

A

Dermis, tendons, ECM, ligaments,bone

170
Q

Type 2 Collagen fibers are found where?

A

Cartilage–fibro, hyaline, and elastic

171
Q

Type 3 Collagen fibers are found where?

A

Reticular Fibers–organ stroma

172
Q

Type 4 Collagen fibers are found where?

A

basement membranes

173
Q

What is different about type 4 collagen

A

no fibers

174
Q

Steps in collagen synthesis

A
  1. pro alpha chain is produced
  2. post translational modification select lysines and prolines are hydroxylated/ hydrolysines are glycosylated
  3. 3 pro alpha chains self assemble
  4. secreted outside of cell
  5. propeptides cleaved–tropocollagen
  6. Assemble into fibrils
175
Q

Which co-factor is needed for collagen to synthesize correctly?

A

vitamin c

176
Q

What kind of staining is needed to see type 3 collagen

A

silver

177
Q

What two type of fibers make up elastic fibers

A

Elastin and Fibrillin

178
Q

Marfan’s syndrome is a deficiency in

A

Fibrillin

179
Q

What are two common examples of structural glycoproteins

A

Laminin

Fibronectin

180
Q

T/F Fibrillin and Elastin don’t require special staining

A

false

181
Q

GAGs are made up of ___ ____ which are then covalently bonded to ___ ___ with the exception of ________ (specific GAG)

A

disaccharide chains

core protein/proteoglycan

hyaluronic acid (hyaluronan)

182
Q

Mucous CT is only present during

A

the embryonic and fetal periods and i the umbilical cord

183
Q

Macrophage in the liver are called

A

Kupffer cells

184
Q

Macrophages in the skin are called

A

Langerhans

185
Q

Macrophages in the bones are called

A

osteoclasts

186
Q

macrophages differentiate from

A

monocytes

187
Q

Mast cells bind what type of antibody

A

IgE

188
Q

2 divisions of connective tissues

A
  1. Cells and 2. ECM
189
Q
A

CTO (7 decks)

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