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G7500 > Questionar > Flashcards

Questionar Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the airplane?

A

51,000 ft

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2
Q

MZFW

Min Flight W

MLW

MTW

A

MZFW 67500 lbs

Min FW 60000 lbs

MLW 87600 lbs

MTW 114850 lbs

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3
Q

Which of the following sections of the airplane are unpressurized?

A. Aft equipment bay
B. Auxiliary power unit (APU) compartment
C. Tail section
D. Fuselage

A

A, B, C

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4
Q

Which bank angle will cause wingtip contact with the ground at a pitch angle of 8°?

A

Pitch angle at touch down 10 / Bank angle at Wing tip Contact 9

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5
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180° turn?

A

75 ft

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6
Q

At takeoff power, at what distance behind the engines can winds of 65 mph be felt?

A

458 ft

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7
Q

Which controls are used to drain the potable water system prior to landing.

A. Waste servicing panel – aft left side
B. Waste servicing panel – aft right side
C. Water system control panel – baggage bay
D. Forward galley control panel – cabin management system (CMS)

A

C & D

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8
Q

What is the benefit of disconnecting the nose torque link and the tire pressure indicating system harness before attaching the towbar?
A. It avoids an incorrect tire pressure indicating system reading. B. It eliminates any towing angle limit.
C. It avoids tire damage.
D. There is no reason to disconnect the nose torque link.

A

B

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9
Q

What is stored in the emergency console immediately behind the right seat? Select three responses.

A. Protective breathing equipment.

B. First aid kit
C. Fire extinguisher
D. Ax

A

A, C, D

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10
Q

What panels can be used to control the cursor?
Select two responses.

A. Cursor control panel (CCP)
B. Multifunction keyboard panel (MKP)
C. Control tuning panel (CTP)
D. Reversion switch panel (RSP)

A

A, B

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11
Q

What is the MEM key on the multifunction keyboard panel used for?
Select two responses.
A. To store the current configuration automatically
B. To revert to previous configuration
C. To recall display unit configurations
D. To store display unit configurations

A

C, D

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12
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding cursor bumping?
Select three responses.

A. When a cursor enters a multifunction window (MFW) occupied by the other cursor, the first cursor is bumped and removed from the display unit.
B. A cursor is bumped when the MFW format is changed to a format that does not support cursor operation.
C. The pilot and copilot cursors may simultaneously occupy the same display unit (DU) but not the same MFW.
D. When a cursor is bumped, a CURSOR BUMPED status message is shown on the EICAS

A

A,B,C

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13
Q

What happens to the primary flight display (PFD) on display unit (DU) 1 if DU 1 fails with the other DUs functioning normally?
A. It moves to DU 2.
B. It is not shown.
C. It moves to DU 3.
D. It moves to DU 4.

A

A

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT found on the EICAS?
A. Engine parameters
B. INFO messages
C. CAS message list
D. Flight control TRIMS

A

B

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15
Q

If the MUTE light comes on when pressing the SPKRS pushbutton annunciator PBA) on the AURAL WARNING panel:

A. flight crew headphones are enabled.
B. cabin speakers are enabled.
C. flight compartment speakers are muted but aural alerts are still heard in the headphones.
D. flight compartment speakers and headphones are muted.

A

C

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16
Q

To collapse the CAS message list, go to the last CAS message page apij:
A. select TUNE/MENU from the control tuning panel.
B. select MENU from the cursor control panel.
C. select MSG quick access key (QAK) from the multifunction keyboard panel (MKP)

D. select CAS QAK from the multifunction keyboard panel (MKP).

A

D

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17
Q

If no lateral or vertical (FD) mode is active, which modes will be activated when the autopilot (AP) is engaged?
A. Heading (HOG) select and altitude (ALT) hold
B. Roll (ROLL)/heading hold and flight path angle (FPA)
C. Navigation (NAV) and VNAV
D. NAV and ALT hold

A

B

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18
Q

Selecting manual pitch trim when the AP is engaged will cause:
A. no action; the pitch trim switches are inhibited.
B. an “AUTOPILOT” aural alert.
C. the master caution pushbutton annunciators (PBAs) to come on and flash.
D. the autopilot to disengage.

A

D

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19
Q

Where and how are active flight director (FD) modes shown on the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?
A. In the bottom row in white
B. In the bottom row in green
C. In the top row in green
D. In the top row in white

A

C

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20
Q

What happens when the couple (CPL) pushbutton in the center of the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed?
A. The flight director (FD) will be dual-coupled.
B. All FD modes will reset to basic modes and must be reselected.
C. The autopilot (AP) will be coupled with the FD in the standby data concentrator unit (DCU).
D. All selected FD modes will remain active.

A

B

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21
Q

What does the gas turbine auxiliary power unit (APU) provide?
A. AC and DC electrical power
B. AC electrical power and bleed air
C. DC electrical power and bleed air
D. AC electrical power and failure detection

A

B

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22
Q

How is the oil quantity in the APU oil sump maintained at optimal level?
A. The crew can service APU oil through the oil replenishment system or manually through the gravity oil fill port.
B. The oil replenishment system functions automatically without any crew involvement .
C. The oil sump can be only refilled by maintenance personnel using a pressure oil fill port.
D. The APU oil does not deplete.

A

A

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23
Q

What fuel tank normally supplies the APU?
A. Aft fuel tank
B. APU fuel tank
C. Left wing collector tank
D. Right wing collector tank

A

D

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24
Q

When VHF3 is set to DATA mode:
A. a green DATA annunciation is shown on the control tuning panel (CTP) and the CNS page.
B. a red DATA annunciation is shown on the CNS page.
C. VDL is shown on the CTP.
D. the VHF frequency is shown on the CTP.

A

A

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25
Q

How are radios controlled and tuned?
A. Using display tuning and map tuning only
B. Using control tuning panels (CTPs) and display tuning only
C. Using map tuning and CTPs only
D. Using CTPs, display tuning, and map tuning

A

D

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26
Q

The selective call (SELCAL) system:
A. allows the flight crew to call another airplane.
B. continuously monitors assigned communication frequencies.
C. presets a number of commonly used frequencies.
D. communicates over a secure frequency.

A

B

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27
Q

The FULUHALF pushbutton configures the primary flight display (PFD) to full or half width of a display unit (OU). Where is the FULUHALF pushbutton located?
A. Multifunction keyboard panel (MKP)
B. Cursor control panel (CCP)
C. Control tuning panel (CTP)
D. Reversion switch panel (RSP)

A

C

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28
Q

What happens if three display units (0Us) fail?
A. Only the primary flight display (PFD) is shown automatically.
B. The remaining DU will show the PFD and EICAS in a compressed format
adjacent to a multifunction window (MFW).
C. The DISPLAYS knob on the reversion switch panel must be selected to NORM.
D. The DISPLAYS knob on the reversion switch panel must be selected to REV

A

B

29
Q

The status of which doors are monitored and shown on the EICAS?
A. Passenger door only
B. Passenger door and emergency exit only
C. Passenger door, emergency exit, and cargo door (all fuselage doors)
D. Passenger and cargo doors only

A

C

30
Q

The passenger door is closed:
A. using the internal or external switches located by the passenger door.
B. using the passenger door switch located in the flight compartment.
C. from the cabin management system (CMS).
D. using the manual closing device only.

A

A

31
Q

In normal operation, the left variable frequency (VFG) supplies:
A. AC BUS 1 only.
B. AC ESS BUS only.
C. AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS.
D. AC BUS 2.

A

C

32
Q

To connect and disconnect external AC power to the airplane:
A. press the EXT AC pushbutton annunciator (PBA) on the ELECTRICAL panel.
B. select the LAMP TEST switch on the external ground power panel.
C. first select the MAIN BATT and APU BATT switches to OFF, then press the EXT AC PBA on the ELECTRICAL panel.
D. first select the BUS ISOL rotary switch to ESS, then press the EXT AC PBA on the ELECTRICAL panel.

A

A

33
Q

Prior to pressing the EXT AC push button annunciator (PBA), what advisory
message is shown on the EICAS when a 115-VAC, 400-Hz, 60-kVA external power source is connected to the airplane?
A. EXT AC PWR ONLY
B. EXT AC PWR AVAIL t.’f P.
C. EXT AC PWR IN USE
D. EXT AC PWR ON STBY

A

C

34
Q

During bus isolation, when is power removed from AC BUS 1?
A. When the BUS ISOL rotary switch is selected to R
B. When the BUS ISOL switch is selected to L and the L GEN pushbutton annunciator (PBA) is selected to OFF
C. When the APU GEN PBA is selected to OFF
D. When the MAIN BATT and APU BATT switches are selected OFF

A

B

35
Q

The three types of notification items in the electronic checklist (ECL) are:
A. warnings, cautions, and status.
B. cautions, notes, and limits.
C. warnings, cautions, and notes.
D. open, sensed, and conditional.

A
36
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the NORMAL page of the electronic checklist (ECL)?
    A. To display a drop-down list to reset a NORMAL checklist item
    B. To display all normal checklists for all phases of flight
    C. To display normal checklists for the current phase of flight only
    D. To display the default page for the ECL
A

B

37
Q

Which statement is true regarding the full authority digital engine control (FADEC)?
A. A permanent magnet alternator (PMA) serves as a backup electrical power source.
B. A permanent PMA serves as a dedicated electrical power source.f”o-<. F/3 “V
C. The FADEC uses the airplane 28-VDC system as a primary electrical power source.
D. The FADEC uses the airplane 115-VAC system as a primary electrical power source.

A

B

38
Q

Which engine information is NOT available on the EICAS?
A. N1 (fan)
B. N2 (core)
C. lnterturbine temperature (ITT)
D. Exhaust gas temperature (EGT)

A

D

39
Q

Which valves are NOT shown on the BLEED synoptic?
A. Fan air valves (FAVs)
B. High-pressure valves (HPVs)
C. Pressure-regulating shutoff valves (PRSOVs)
D. Cross-bleed valve (CBV)

A

A

40
Q

Which statement is correct regarding fly-by-wire (FBW) direct mode?
A. Flight envelope protection is provided and all structural protections are lost.
B. Envelope protections are lost and structural protections are reduced.
C. High-lift envelope protections are lost.
D. Structural protections are reduced except for the primary flight controls.

A

B

41
Q

What is the purpose of the power control units (PCUs)?
A. Combine signals from pilot control inputs with air data and inertial reference inputs
B. Electromechanically position the horizontal stabilizer (HSTAB)
C. Transmit commands from the primary flight control computers (PFCCs) to the HSTAB motor control electronic (MCE) unit
D. Hydraulically position the aileron, elevator, rudder, and spoiler flight surfaces

A

D

42
Q

What is indicated by a red DUAL message on both primary flight displays (PFDs) and a “DUAL INPUT” aural alert?
A. Failure of both sidesticks
B. Completion of the sidestick test
C. Simultaneous operation of both sidesticks
D. No input detected from either sidestick

A

C

43
Q

Which format shows flight plan information such as active waypoints, time and distance to go, and fuel remaining at landing?
A. MAP
B. PLAN
C. CHART
D. ROUTE

A

D

44
Q

What is the function of the ADS pushbuttons on the reversion switch panel (RSP)?
A. To switch between automatic dependent surveillance-broadcast (ADS-8) and automatic dependent surveillance-contract (ADS-C)
B. To manually cycle through the air data sources for the left or right primary flight display (PFD)
C. To turn the air data system (ADS) on or off
D. To remove the air data from the display units (DUs)

A

B

45
Q

What color is the data source annunciation on the flight mode annunciator (FMA) when the primary flight display (PFD) is using an alternate air data source that is not the same as the opposite PFD?
A. White
B. Cyan
C. Amber
D. Magenta

A

A

46
Q

What is the purpose of the DC auxiliary fuel pumps?
A. To keep the collector tanks full of fuel and slightly pressurized
B. To recirculate fuel from each wing inner tank to the onside wing outer tank
C. To act as main fuel pump for the engine
D. To be the backup pump for the primary AC pump

A

D

47
Q

Hydraulic systems 2 and 3 are used for:
A nosewheel steering.
B. normal landing gear extension and retraction.
C. inboard brakes.
D. power transfer unit (PTU).

A
48
Q

Which indication is shown on the HYO synoptic? A Autobrake selection
B. Inboard/outboard brake accumulator pressure
C. Parking brake status
D. Brake temperature

A

B

49
Q

Which pumps supply pressure to hydraulic system 2?

A. Main pump ACMP 2A, backup pump ACMP 28
B. Main pump EDP 2A; backup pump PTU
C. Main pump ACMP 2A; backup pump PTU
D. Main pump EDP 2A; backup pump ACMP 28

A

B

50
Q

After a normal takeoff, when do the backup hydraulic pumps tum off?

A In cruise, when the thrust levers are set to cruise power
B. In the climb, after slats and flaps are fully retracted
C. When the backup pump switches are set to OFF
D. In the climb, when the gear is retracted

A

B

51
Q

The wing anti-ice system:
A. should be set to AUTO mode until 400 ft above field elevation.
B. is inhibited in AUTO or ON modes during takeoff.
C. is inhibited in AUTO mode during takeoff up to 1500 ft AGL or after 2 minutes.
D. should be set to AUTO mode for all phases of flight.

A

C

52
Q

The RIGHT rotary switch on the WINDSHIELD HEAT panel controls the heater(s) for the:
A. right windshield only.
B. right windshield and the right side window.
C. right windshield and the left side window.
D. left windshield and the right side window.

A

C

53
Q

Which condition causes the seat belts sign to come on when the SEAT BLTS switch is selected to AUTO?
A. Slats/flaps are in the FLAP O position.
B. Cabin altitude is greater than 6000 ft.
C. Landing gear is selected down.
D. Landing lights are selected on.

A

C

54
Q

The nose landing gear (NLG) lights only come on when the nose gear is down and locked and the:
A. flaps are extended.
B. airplane is weight-off-wheels.
C. LOG GEAR handle is in the ON position.
D. NLG switch is in the STEADY or PULSE pol,ition.

A

D

55
Q

What is the purpose of the NAV pushbutton on the control tuning panel (CTP)?
A. To switch between active and standby NAV frequencies
B. To select the onside or cross-side VHF navigation receiver (VOR/LOC) as the navigation source
C. To select a preselected NAV frequency
D. To select the TUNE page on display unit (DU)4

A

B

56
Q

What is the inertial reference unit (IRU) alignment mode when the airplane is weight­on-wheels and the speed is less than or equal to 30 kt?
A Align-in-motion mode
B. Automatic realignment mode
C. Stationary alignment mode
D. Initialization mode

A

C

57
Q

Fire detection and extinguishing are provided in the: A engines, APU, and main wheel wells.
B. engines, APU, lavatories, and avionics bay.
C. engines, APU, and baggage bay.
D. engines, APU, baggage bay, and avionics bay.

A

C

58
Q

What does a magenta highlight arrow represent on the CHART synoptic? A A departure runway that was loaded into the active FMS flight plan
B. An arrival runway that was loaded into the active FMS flight plan
C. A runway that is closed
D. An available runway that is not loaded into the active FMS flight plan

A

B

59
Q

How does the terrain awareness and warning system (TAWS) glideslope (GS) alert mode become active?
A. By pressing the GS pushbutton annunciator (PBA) on the TAWS panel
B. Alert mode is active by default
C. By pressing the TERRAIN PBA on the TAWS panel
D. By selecting GS from the XPDR/TCAS CONTROL

A

B

60
Q

What is the maximum landing mass for the airplane?
A. 95,000 lb (43,091 kg)
B. 78,600 lb (35,652 kg)
C. 87,600 lb (39,735 kg)
D. 93,750 lb (42,524 kg)

A

C

61
Q

What is the maximum airspeed at which it is safe to extend/retract the landing gear?
A. 190 KIAS
B. 200 KIAS
C. 250 KIAS
D. 300 KIAS

A

B

62
Q

What is the tire limit speed?
A. 187 kt ground speed
B. 178 kt ground speed
C. 183 kt ground speed
D. 195 kt ground speed

A

D

63
Q

What is the maximum allowable altitude with slats/flaps extended?
A. 15,000 ft
B. 20,000 ft
C. 18,000 ft
D. 37,000 ft

A

C

64
Q

What is the total maximum usable fuel load based on a fuel density of 6.75 lb/USG (0.809 kg/liter)?
A. 51,850 lb (23,500 kg)
B. 45,100 lb (20,425 kg)
C. 44,092 lb (20,000 kg)
D. 57,292 lb (25,987 kg)

A

A

65
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the airplane?
A. 51,000 ft
B. 41,000 ft
C. 47,000 ft
D. 49,000 ft

A

A

66
Q

For takeoff at weights above the maximum landing weight on runways near bodies of water:
A. OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed and the left PACK must be shut down for takeoff.
B. OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed and one PACK must be shut down for takeoff.
C. OUTFLOW VLV 1 must be closed and one PACK must be shut down for takeoff.
D. One OUTFLOW VLV must be closed and the right PACK must be shut down for takeoff.

A

B

67
Q

What is the maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing?
A. 11,000 ft
B. 15,000 ft
C. 13,700 ft
D. 10,000 ft

A

D

68
Q
  1. Below what altitude must the flight spoilers be retracted?
    A. 200 ft AGL
    B. 300 ft AGL
    C. 600 ft AGL
    D. 900 ft AGL
A

B

G7500 (30 decks)

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