Flashcards Global 7500
CAE
1
Q
True or False:
Warning messages are always visible and shown at the top of the CAS message list.
A
TRUE
2
Q
True or False:
In the event of an emergency, a warning CAS message is shown and a single chime is heard.
A
FALSE
3
Q
True or False:
Some warning, caution, and all advisory CAS messages are inhibited during
the takeoff and landing phases of flight.
A
TRUE
4
Q
True or False:
When the CAS annunciation is shown and the last CAS message page is in view, pressing the CAS QAK on the MKP expands the CAS message list and returns to the first page of the list.
A
TRUE
5
Q
True or False:
When the flight compartment speakers are muted, aural alerts are still heard in the headphones.
A
TRUE
6
Q
True or False:
When the autopilot (AP) is engaged, AP is shown in green in the center of the flight mode annunciator (FMA).
A
TRUE
7
Q
What occurs if an attempt is made to engage the autopilot (AP) when no flight director (FD) modes are active?
A
The autopilot will engage, and the roll/heading hold (ROLL) and flight path angle (FPA) modes will activate.
8
Q
Under which conditions does the autopilot (AP) automatically disengage?
A
During reversion to flight control system direct mode, stick shaker activation (except in windshear escape [WSHR] mode), and an AP fault has been detected
9
Q
What alerts the flight crew when the autopilot (AP) disengages automatically or is manually disengaged?
A
AP annunciation on the flight mode annunciator (FMA) flashes red and a cavalry charge aural alert continually sounds
10
Q
What information is shown on the far right side of the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?
A
Alternate data source in use
11
Q
If autopilot (AP) is engaged when the couple (CPL) pushbutton in the center of the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed, what happens?
A
The other FD channel within the active DMC is coupled to the AP, the green arrow on the other side of the CPL pushbutton on the FCP comes on, the FD MODE CHANGE caution message is shown on the EICAS, and the master caution PBA comes on and flashes.
12
Q
True or False:
When the couple (CPL) pushbutton on the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed, the direction of the arrow in the middle of the flight mode annunciator (FMA) changes to indicate the new flight director (FD) channel in use. All FD modes are reset to basic and must be reselected.
A
TRUE
13
Q
If the basic roll/heading hold (ROLL) mode is active, under which condition will the flight director (FD) hold a heading?
A
Airplane bank angle 5° or less
14
Q
What indicates that the heading (HDG) mode has been enabled?
A
The green HDG is shown on left side of flight mode annunciator (FMA), and the green light above the HDG pushbutton on the flight control panel (FCP) is on.
15
Q
What is required for an automatic NAV-to-NAV transfer to occur?
A
The flight director (FD) lateral mode is FMS or HDG, the APPR button on the flight control panel (FCP) is pressed, and the localizer is captured.
16
Q
Under which conditions is flight path angle (FPA) mode enabled?
A
A selected vertical mode is lost or deselected, a single lateral mode is selected with no active vertical mode, and the FD pushbutton on the flight control panel (FCP) is selected ON after having been switched OFF.
17
Q
What is shown on the flight annunciator mode (FMA) after an altitude capture sequence is completed and the flight director (FD) is tracking a new altitude selector altitude?
A
Green ALTS
18
Q
Which pushbutton activates VNAV?
A
VNAV pushbutton
19
Q
Which of the following are active or armed VNAV modes?
A: VALTV
B: ALTV
C: VALT
D: ALT
A
A and C
20
Q
When would VFLC be shown on the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?
A
The flight director (FD) commands a flight level change when VNAV is active, and the pilot commands a flight level change when VNAV is active.
21
Q
Under which conditions is the emergency descent mode (EDM) automatically enabled?
A
The autopilot is engaged, cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500 ft, and the airplane altitude is more than 25,000 ft.
22
Q
What does a flashing mode annunciation on the flight mode annunciator (FMA) indicate?
A
A new mode has been activated.
23
Q
How are the active and armed autothrottle (AT) modes shown on the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?
A
Active modes are shown in green above the white armed modes.
24
Q
True or False:
The active FD/AT is shown in the center of the flight mode annunciator (FMA)
as either AT1 or AT2, but only when the AT is engaged.
A
TRUE
25
What alerts the flight crew when the autothrottle (AT) disengages?
AT1 or AT2 annunciator on the FMA flashes amber, and a continuous "AUTOTHROTTLE" aural alert is heard.
26
# Aircraft General
True or False:
Speed control (SPD) mode is a basic mode of the autothrottle (AT).
TRUE
27
# Aircraft General
What is the maximum operating altitude of the Global 7500 airplane?
51,000 ft
28
# Aircraft General
True or False:
The minimum runway width for a 180° turn is 68.55 ft (20.89 m).
FALSE
29
What does the auxiliary power unit (APU) provide?
AC electrical power and bleed air
30
# APU
What is shown on the SERVICE synoptic or the EICAS if the APU inlet door fails open?
The door angle is shown in amber on the SERVICE synoptic and an APU DOOR FAIL caution message is shown on the EICAS.
31
# APU
The APU oil sump is monitored, and oil quantity is shown on the SERVICE synoptic. What can be used to refill the oil sump?
The oil replenishment system on the REPLENISH tab or the gravity oil fill port located on the gearbox
32
# APU
From where is fuel normally supplied to the APU?
Right wing collector tank
33
For what is APU bleed air used?
Environmental control system (ECS), main engine starting, and fuel tank inerting system (FTIS)
34
What normally occurs during the APU shutdown when the APU rotary switch is selected OFF?
There is a 1-minute cooldown before the actual shutdown occurs.
35
What are some conditions that trigger an emergency shutdown of the APU in flight?
Failure of both speed sensors or an actual overspeed
36
What occurs when a volume knob on the audio control panel is unlatched in the raised position?
Audio for that system is heard.
37
How is the radio tuned?
Control tuning panels (CTPs)
and display tuning
38
What is the purpose of the 1/2 pushbutton on the control tuning panel (CTP)?
Activates tuning of the crossside radios
39
How is the XPDR/TCAS CONTROL page accessed from tuning page 1 of the control tuning panel (CTP)?
By pressing twice on the line select key (LSK) adjacent to the transponder code
40
When does the cockpit voice recorder (CVR) automatically record?
Upon application of electrical power
41
What is the purpose of the data link communication system?
It provides two-way communication between the airplane and the airplane communication addressing and reporting system (ACARS) network.
42
Which two transmission systems are used by the data link communication system?
VHF data link (VDL) and satellite communications (SATCOM)
43
Which message is shown at the bottom of the APPLICATION MENU page when the data link system is unavailable?
NO COMM
44
From what panels can the cursor be controlled?
Cursor control panel (CCP) andmultifunction keyboard panel (MKP)
45
True or False: The MEM key on the multifunction keyboard panel can be used to store format configurations
TRUE
46
To configure the PFD to occupy the full or half width of the DUs, what should be selected?
FULL/HALF pushbutton on the onside control tuning panel (CTP)
47
True or False: When a cursor enters an MFW occupied by the other cursor, the first cursor is bumped and is removed from the display unit.
TRUE
48
What happens to the PFD on DU 1 if DU 1 fails?
It moves to DU 2
49
When and where is the status of fuselage doors is visible?
Throughout the flight on the EICAS only
50
Where is the passenger door viewing aid located?
Forward of the passenger door on the crew closet bulkhead
51
True or False:
A vent flap in the passenger door opens to equalize cabin pressure when either the interior or exterior door handle is lifted.
TRUE
52
Describe three ways to close
the passenger door
From the exterior switch located next to the passenger door, from the interior switch located inside the door frame adjacent to the passenger door, and using the manual closing device in the event of a motor failure
53
The manual closing pull handle is used to manually close the passenger door. Where is it located?
Inside the airplane, on the door motor, forward of the passenger door
54
How are interior pocket doors operated?
Electrically or mechanically, by one of the two pushbuttons located on the forward and aft sides of the bulkhead, and by the interior cabin
door (INT CABIN DOOR) rotary switch located in the flight compartment
55
Name the different types of electronic checklists
* Normal airplane flight manual (AFM) checklists,
* non-normal AFM procedures (with and without crew alerting system [CAS] messages), and
* user-defined procedures that store items of importance to the user but are not part of the AFM
56
Which electronic checklist page shows normal checklists for all phases of flight?
NORMAL page
57
Which electronic checklist pages show non-normal checklists that are started, completed, or overridden?
NON-NORMAL page and SUMMARY page
58
True or False:
When the ECL is not available, all content is removed, and CHECKLIST NOT AVAILABLE is shown on the page
TRUE
59
When a notification item in a checklist is selected, in what color are the notification and its surrounding box shown?
All notification items are shown in green.
60
True or False:
The airplane uses both 115 VAC and 28 VDC electrical power
TRUE
61
When does the RAT deploy?
Following a total loss of AC power in flight or when the manual RAT deployment handle is lifted
62
What does the BATT LOADS switch do?
Disconnects most electrical loads from the batteries
63
Where is the external ground power panel located?
On the lower body fairing, just forward of the right engine
64
True or False:
In the event of a malfunction, one VFG can supply the entire electrical system, but the APU generator cannot replace either or both VFGs.
FALSE
65
What is the function of the EXT AC PBA on the ELECTRICAL panel?
Connects and disconnects external AC power to the airplane
66
On the ELECTRICAL panel, what does a cyan AVAIL indication on the EXT AC pushbutton annunciator (PBA) indicate?
External AC power is connected to the airplane and capable of supplying up to 60 kVA
67
What supplies AC power?
A variable frequency generator (VFG) mounted on each engine's accessory gearbox and external ground power
68
What voltage do the transformer rectifier units (TRUs) receive from the AC buses, before converting and distributing it to the DC buses?
115 VAC power
69
What is the purpose of the two
permanent magnet generators
(PMGs)?
Provide a secondary power source to the fly-by-wire power converters (FBWPCs)
70
To what buses do the DC electrical power centers control the routing of DC power from the TRUs and batteries?
DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2.
MAIN BATT BUS and APU BATT BUS.
DC ESS BUS 1 and DC ESS BUS 2
71
When are the MAIN BATT BUS
and APU BATT BUS powered?
At all times, regardless of the position of the MAIN BATT and APU BATT switches on the ELECTRICAL panel
72
During bus isolation, when is power removed from AC BUS 2?
When R GEN PBA is selected OFF
73
In the event of a total loss of AC power, what is the source of emergency AC power?
Ram air turbine (RAT)
74
True or False:
The RAT generator, when deployedand operating, supplies the ESS TRU through the AC ESS BUS at airplane speeds above 147 kt.
TRUE
75
True or False: At speeds below 147 kt, the ESS TRU is disconnected, and the AC ESS BUS is powered by the airplane batteries.
FALSE
76
True or False: Non-essential electrical equipment is temporarily shed during periods of high-power demand
TRUE
77
What does selecting the TRIP acknowledgment soft key do?
Confirms the breaker tripped state, changes the breaker state from TRIP to OUT, and removes the CB TRIP message from the EICAS if no other TRIP acknowledgment softkeys are active
78
True or False:
The CB CONFIG switch must be selected OFF, and the airplane rotary switch must be selected to NORM prior to flight.
TRUE
79
What is the maximum thrust of the GE Passport 20 engine, as installed on the Global 750 airplane?
18,920 lb
80
Which statements are true with regards to the FADEC?
A) A permanent magnet alternator (PMA) serves as a backup electrical power source.
B) A permanent magnet alternator (PMA) serves as a dedicated electrical power source.
C) The FADEC is supported by a dual-channel electronic engine controller (EEC).
D) The FADEC is a dual-channel system. Each FADEC channel is supported by an electronic engine controller (EEC).
B and D
81
True or False:
The hydraulic system powers the thrust reverser.
TRUE
82
What is the capacity of each engine oil tank, and how can engine oil be replenished?
11.6 qt
replenished by its fill port or the oil replenishment system
83
True or False:
The function of the fuel/oil heat exchanger is to cool the fuel
FALSE
84
True or False:
The FADEC uses both igniters for all airstarts.
TRUE
85
On which parameter is a reduced thrust takeoff (FLX) calculated?
Assumed temperature
86
When the engines are in TO mode and an engine fails, the other engine transitions to which mode?
Maximum continuous thrust
(MCT)
87
When an uncommanded left thrust reverser deployment occurs, a red REV icon is shown inside the left analog N1 gauge. What else happens?
The FADEC limits thrust to idle (regardless of the thrust lever position), the L REVERSER UNLOCKED warning message is shown on the EICAS, and the "LEFT REVERSER UNLOCKED" aural message is heard
88
True or False: During in-flight starts, the priority bleed source for engine starting is the opposite engine
TRUE
89
Which pushbutton annunciator (PBA) on the BLEED/AIR COND panel closes the hot air shutoff valves (HASOVs)?
TRIM AIR
90
Which control, located on the PRESSURIZATION panel, immediately closes the outflow valves?
OUTFLOW VALVE 1(2) PBAs
91
Up to what maximum cabin altitude can the cabin be depressurized when the EMER DEPRESS guarded PBA is pressed?
14,500 ft (± 500 ft)
92
Under normal conditions, where can the flight crew monitor the oxygen quantity?
EICAS and BLEED synoptic
93
True or False:
The overboard discharge indicator consists of a breakable green nylon disc, located forward of the passenger door on the lower left fuselage, which pops out when excess oxygen is discharged overboard.
TRUE
94
Which rotary switch mode setting on the flight mask provides a mixture of ambient air and oxygen on demand and is adjusted for cabin altitude?
N (Normal)
95
When the PASSENGER OXYGEN rotary switch is set to NORMAL, at what cabin altitude will the passenger masks deploy automatically?
14,500 ft ± 500
96
Which flight control surfaces are hydraulically positioned by power control units (PCUs)?
Rudder, ailerons, and spoilers
97
True or False: In fly-by-wire (FBW) direct mode, envelope protections and most structural protections are lost
TRUE
98
What indicates that both sidesticks are being operated simultaneously?
DUAL INPUT aural warning is heard, and red DUAL message is shown on both primary flight displays (PFDs).
99
What occurs when the sidestick AP/PTY pushbutton is pressed and held to establish momentary sidestick priority?
Green PTY annunciation flashes in onside glareshield SIDESTICK guarded PBA, and a PRIORITY LEFT or PRIORITY RIGHT aural message is heard three times.
100
What do the three multifunction spoiler (MFS) pairs on each wing provide?
Roll assist, speed brake control, and ground lift dumping
101
True or False:
The horizontal stabilizer (HSTAB) is electrically controlled and electromechanically actuated.
TRUE
102
What is true regarding airplane roll control?
Bank angles greater than 30° require continuous sidestick deflection, and when sidestick released at a 45° bank angle, airplane automatically recovers to a 30° bank angle.
103
What is the limit for noseup and nosedown pitch attitudes?
17° noseup on ground, 30° noseup in flight, and 20° nosedown
104
In FBW normal mode, which indications occur when the airspeed is at or below VAOA SOFT?
Stick shaker activates, and airplane pitch attitude is automatically reduced so that minimum speed is limited.
105
When FBW overspeed protection is active, what indicates that airspeed is above VMAX plus 4 kt?
Airspeed readout turns red and a continuous "CHIRP" aural alert is heard.
106
Which compensation is automatically provided by the fly-by-wire system during an engine failure?
Partial yaw compensation
107
Which flight controls provide feedback to the fly-by-wire (FBW) system, but are not controlled by it?
Slats and flaps
108
True or False:
The slats and flaps are electrically positioned
TRUE
109
When can the flight crew use the IAS/MACH pushbutton to select between an IAS or Mach tape?
When airspeed is greater than 0.40 Mach
110
True or False: The radar altitude (RA) is a digital readout that is shown on the PFD when the airplane descends through 2,500 ft AGL
TRUE
111
What indicates a heading failure on the primary flight display?
A red HDG fail flag flashes for 5 seconds and then remains steady.
112
Which format selections are available from the MAP dropdown menu?
MAP, ROUTE, and PLAN
113
For what is the SYMBOL dropdown list on the menu bar used?
Turn on and off multiple map elements on the selected MAP or PLAN formats
114
When using IFIS charts, what does a magenta airplane symbol shown on WGS-84 compliant charts indicate?
Airplane is outside of chart boundaries
115
From which panel can the air data source for the left or right PFD be manually changed?
Reversion switch panel (RSP)
116
In which color is the ADSP indication shown on the PFD when both PFDs use the same air data source?
Amber
117
Where is the control to adjust the brightness of the HUD located?
On the glareshield
118
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the flight path acceleration cue?
A) When the flight path acceleration cue is above the FPV wing, the airplane is accelerating.
B) When the cue is below the FPV wing, the airplane is decelerating.
C) The flight path acceleration cue is a hollow rectangle of variable height and fixed width. It is shown on the FPV left wing.
D) The flight path acceleration cue is a right-pointing hollow arrowhead located to the left side of the FPV.
A, B and D
119
What is pressed to show the synthetic vision system (SVS) image on the HUD?
Pressing the HUD knob
120
True or False:
A chronometer is only visible on the PFD when the CHR pushbutton on the glareshield is pressed
TRUE
121
Which quick access key (QAK) opens the FMS message box?
MSG
122
How is the MESSAGES-FMS dialog box accessed?
By selecting the MSG soft key on the lower edge of any multifunction window or by selecting the MSG key on the QAK on the multifunction keyboard panel
123
On which FMS page is the airplane center of gravity position and limits shown?
WT & BAL
124
Which selection on the FMS fuel management (FUEL MGMT) page is used to view fuel onboard, as determined by tank sensors, without fuel flow consideration?
SENSED mode
125
Which selection on the FMS fuel management (FUEL MGMT) page is used to estimate fuel based on measured fuel flow and ground speed values only?
MEASURED mode
126
True or False:
If an immediate return to the departure airfield is required, the departure data from DEP PERF can be transferred directly to the ARR PERF page on the FMS.
TRUE
127
There are three modes available in the CRZ tab on the VNAV-THRST page in the FMS. What is provided by the MX mode?
A maximum speed target is set based on cruise altitude
128
Which conditions are required for the FMS to generate a step optimization?
At least 200 lb of fuel is saved or the step optimization reduces flight time by at least 2 minutes
129
Which FMS page shows the active navigation database?
FMS DB
130
True or False:
All default values stored in the DEFAULTS pages are fixed and cannot be modified.
FALSE
131
What is used to select temperature compensation
(TEMP COMP)?
Index (IDX) soft key and ARR Perf page
132
True or False: Magenta needles are shown on the PFD when guidance is through the FMS
TRUE
133
True or False:
The flight crew can modify the flight plangraphically by selecting map symbols.
TRUE
134
Which function or key is used to insert multiple points into an existing route on the MFW?
The REROUTE function with the CCP
135
Which fuel pump is considered a backup pump?
The AUX pump
136
Which fuel tank ejectors do not have motive flow shutoff valves?
Wing inner tank scavenge ejectors
137
What does the engine fuel crossfeed system enable?
Enables an engine to be fed from both collector tanks and both engines to be fed from a single collector tank
138
True or False: The transfer of fuel from the center tank to the wing inner tanks is only manually controlled
FALSE. The transfer of fuel from the center tank to the wing inner tanks is only automatically controlled by the computer
139
What is the purpose of the fuel recirculation system?
Prevents wing tank fuel from reaching its freezing point
140
What is true about the PRESEL toggle switch on the REFUEL/DEFUEL control panel?
A) Controls individual refuel/defuel shutoff valves in the refueling manifold.
B) Sets the total fuel load requirement.
C) Active in AUTO REFUEL mode.
D) Used to increase or decrease PRESEL fuel quantity.
B, C and D
141
True or False: The FTIS generates nitrogen-enriched air (NEA) to replace the ambient air in the center and aft fuel tanks and to reduce the risk of fuel fumes igniting.
TRUE
142
Where are inboard and outboard brake pressures shown?
HYD synoptic
143
Where is the brake temperature shown?
EICAS and SERVICE synoptic
144
Which systems are required for normal landing gear extension and retraction cycles?
Hydraulic system 2 and 3
145
If the PARK/EMER BRAKE lever is set and the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff, which aural warning is heard and which warning message is shown on the EICAS?
"NO TAKEOFF" and PARK/EMER BRAKE ON
146
When the AUTOBRAKE switch is selected to LO, MED, or HI for landing, what would disarm the autobrake system?
When brake pedals areactivated and if either BCU channel detects a BCS fault
147
When the nosewheel steering system is active, what are the respective nosewheel angles that correspond to a full deflection of the rudder pedals and tiller?
9° and 82.5°
148
Which pumps provide power to hydraulic system 1?
Main pump EDP 1A and backup pump ACMP 1B
149
Under which conditions do the backup pumps come on?
During the takeoff roll, when slats and flaps are extended and thrust levers are advanced, and for landing, when slats and flaps are extended
150
The hydraulic shutoff valves close automatically when hydraulic fluid temperature exceeds normal conditions. How can they be closed manually?
By pressing the L (R) ENG guarded PBA on the FIRE panel or pressing the L (R) HYD SOV PBA on the HYDRAULIC panel
151
What indicates that a filter is clogged?
A tab pops out on the filter manifold
152
Which statements regarding the ecology bottle(s) for hydraulic system 3 are correct?
A) Hydraulic system 3 ecology bottle(s) is/are located in the aft equipment bay.
B) Hydraulic system 3 ecology bottle(s) is/are located forward of the wing-to-body fairing.
C) Hydraulic system 3 uses two ecology bottles.
D) Hydraulic system 3 uses one ecology bottleWhat indicates that a filter is clogged?
B and C
153
What is the ram air turbine (RAT) designed to do regarding the hydraulics?
Powers hydraulics 3 when deployed
154
Which bleed air source is used to prevent ice from forming on the wing leading edges and the engine cowls?
Engines only
155
True or False: When the wing antiice rotary switch is in AUTO mode,
the wing anti-ice system is inhibited on the ground and during takeoff up
to 1,500 ft AGL, and 2 minutes after reaching an airspeed of 60 kt or greater
TRUE
156
On the BLEED synoptic, when is a wing leading edge shown in amber?
The temperature is below the proper range
157
True or False: The ADS PROBE HEAT soft key can be used to power the ADSP, AOA, and TAT heaters when the airplane is in flight.
FALSE.
The ADS PROBE HEAT soft key can be used to power the ADSP, AOA, and TAT heaters when the airplane is on the ground, when the airplane is connected to a ground cart, and when the auxiliary power unit (APU) is running.
158
True or False:
The RIGHT rotary switch on the WINDSHIELD HEAT panel controls the heating of the right windshield and the left side window.
TRUE
159
If both ice detectors fail during icing conditions, what caution message is shown and what must the crew do?
The ICE DETECTOR FAIL caution message is shown on the EICAS, and the flight crew must manually select the WING, L and R COWL rotary switches to ON if there are visible icing conditions
160
Which knob controls the brightness of the dome light in the flight compartment?
AREA LIGHTS knob
161
True or False:
Instrumentation lights lamp tests can be carried out from the TEST tab on the MISC page.
TRUE
162
The nose landing gear lights only come on when the NLG switch is in the PULSE or STEADY position and what other condition is present?
Nose gear is down and locked
163
Which EMER LIGHTS switch position activates emergency lights when DC essential bus power is lost?
ARM
164
In AUTO mode, when does the seat belts sign come on?
When the landing gear is down, or cabin altitude is greater than 8,000 ft, or slats/flaps are not in the FLAP 0 position
165
True or False: Service lights in the rear equipment bay are controlled from the external lighting panel aft of the passenger door
FALSE
Service lights in the rear equipment bay are controlled from a switch in the rear equipment bay
166
True or False:
GNSS status and position are shown on the Initialization (INIT) and SENSORS pages of the FMS
TRUE
167
When the GNSS is checking the almanac and searching for visible satellites, which operating mode is shown on the GNSS1(2) tab on the SENSORS page?
ACQUISITION
168
From the GNSS1(2) tab on the lower part of the SENSORS page, what can the flight crew do?
Initiate a P-RAIM calculation
169
On which FMS pages is IRS operational information shown?
INIT page and SENSORS page
170
Under which conditions does the stationary alignment mode align the IRU?
When speed is less than or equal to 30 kt 171b
171
If GNSS or ADS data is lost or unavailable during an align-inmotion alignment, which operating mode is shown on the SENSORS page?
ATTITUDE
172
What does it mean when an IRS SET HDG caution message is shown on the EICAS?
That manual entry of magnetic heading on the IRS tab is required
173
When is the amber ROL miscompare flag is shown on the PFD?
When there is a difference of more than 4° between the bank angle indications on each PFD.
174
From which location can navigation receivers be tuned and controlled?
Control tuning panels (CTPs), communications navigation surveillance (CNS) TUNE page, and MAP format
175
What does the flight crew press to select the onside or crossside VHF navigation receiver (VOR/LOC) as the navigation source?
NAV pushbutton on the control tuning panel (CTP)
176
Under what conditions does the NAV-to-NAV preview function show localizer data and indications on the HSI?
A localizer-based approach is selected in the FMS, and the airplane is within 31 nm of destination airport.
177
What indicates the DME hold frequency shown on the CTP NAV1 CONTROL page?
Small green font and cyan H
178
True or False:
If the FIDEEX system detects a short circuit on one of the APU eductor fire detection loops, fire protection is provided by the operable single-detection loop.
TRUE
179
Which functions occur when the L(R) ENG FIRE PBA is pressed?
Engine fuel feed shutoff valve closes, hydraulic shutoff valve closes, and pressure regulating shutoff valve (PRSOV) closes and the generator is taken offline, BTL 1 and BTL 2 PBAs illuminate green AVAIL and the engine ignition is disabled.
180
If a L (R) ENG FIRE warning continues after the fire extinguisher bottle 1 is deployed, what must the flight crew do?
Press the BTL 2 PBA to discharge the second bottle.
181
Which actions occur when the FIDEEX system detects fire in an unattended APU on the ground?
The APU bay horn sounds, the APU shuts down automatically, and fire bottle 2 discharges automatically into the APU.
182
Which statement best describes the fire extinguisher bottles?
A) Two fire bottles are shared by the engines and a third bottle is shared by the baggage bay and APU.
B) Two fire bottles are shared by the engines. Bottle 1 is used for the baggage bay and bottle 2 is used for the APU.
B
183
If a smoke detector fails in the baggage bay, lavatory, or avionics bay, what is displayed?
A caution message is presented on the EICAS.
184
What areas are monitored by smoke detectors?
Avionics bay and racks, lavatories, closets, passenger cabin, crew area and baggage bay
185
To see directional arrows accompanying the traffic symbols that show on the HSI and MAP format, the airplane must have ____ capability, and the intruder airplane must have ____ capability.
ADS-B IN and CDTI/ADS-B OUT
186
What type of advisory is issued when the flight path of an intruder airplane is predicted to penetrate protected airspace within 30 seconds?
Resolution advisory (RA)
187
When a resolution advisory is issued by the TCAS, a green path cue is shown on the ADI. If TFC is selected from the OVLY drop-down list, what is shown on the HSI and MAP formats?
A solid red square
188
Which statements about the TAWS alert mode PBAs (GS, FLAPS, TERRAIN) are true?
A) The TAWS alert modes are active by default.
B) Pressing a TAWS alert mode PBA triggers a white OFF annunciation on the PBA.
C) Alert mode PBAs must be pressed to become active.
D) Pressing a TAWS alert mode PBA triggers a green ON annunciation on the PBA.
A and B
189
True or False:
The TAWS shows terrain on the MAP or PLAN formats on the MFW when TERRAIN is selected from the OVLY drop-down list.
TRUE
190
When is the "SINK RATE" aural alert heard?
When the rate of descent is excessive for the current altitude
191
When is the terrain clearance floor function primarily used?
When flying around the landing airport
192
True or False: After adjusting the gain setting, it automatically returns to the NORM position
FALSE
193
What is the maximum turbulence detection range?
40 nm
194
True or False:
When in AUTO mode, the system is designed to show significant weather at all airplane altitudes, and does not require the flight crew to adjust the gain or tilt
TRUE
195
True or False:
The path attenuation compensation (PAC) function is available in both AUTO and MAN modes.
FALSE
196
When is the lightning detection overlay shown on the MAP or PLAN formats on the MFW?
When WX + LX is selected from the OVLY drop-down list, or LX is selected from the OVLY drop-down list
197
True or False:
The maximum lightning detection range is 200 NM
TRUE
198
What is shown when the LDS is inhibited to prevent communication radio transmission interference for more than 1 minute?
LX FAIL in amber on the MAP format
199
What does a highlighted cyan arrow represent on the airport chart?
A departure runway that was loaded into the active FMS flight plan
200
What is the purpose of the airport moving map application?
To provide a graphical image of the airport map to assist in ground movement and airplane position
201
What are TLAF takeoff alerts?
RUNWAY MISCOMPARE, NOT A RUNWAY, and SHORT RUNWAY
202
True or False:
The SMS SHORT RWY INOP advisory message is shown on the EICAS when the airplane is within 31 nm of the destination airport and the landing field length has not been calculated by the FMS.
TRUE
203
What are the maximum takeoff and landing weights?
Maximum takeoff weight 114,850 lb.
Maximum landing weight 87,600 lb
204
What is the maximum zero fuel weight for the Global 7500 airplane?
67,500 lb (30,617 kg)
205
When taking off near bodies of water and your takeoff weight is above the maximum landing weight, ____________ must be shut down and ________ must be closed.
One air conditioning pack, OUTFLOW VLV 2
206
True or False: It is not acceptable to hold in icing conditions with slats extended.
True
207
What is the maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing?
10 kt
208
Ground operation of the display units with flight compartment in excess of ____ for more than _____ is prohibited.
40°C for more than 30 minutes
209
What is the maximum ITT during engine start on the ground and inflight?
750 and 875
210
What is the maximum continuous ITT?
995
211
What is the takeoff thrust limitation for two engines and a single engine?
5 minutes, 10 minutes
212
What is the maximum tailwind for engine start?
20 kt
213
On takeoff, the wind is 45° off centerline and the crosswind component is 5 kt. What is the static engine checks maximum N1%?
90%
214
On takeoff, the wind is 45° off centerline and the crosswind component is 5 kt. The brake release must be achieved within ____ of ____ being achieved
2 seconds, takeoff N1
215
On takeoff, the wind is 70° off centerline and the crosswind component is 21 kt. What is the maximum N1 ________ below ________ KIAS.
60%, 30
216
What is the engine starter limitation?
Start number 1 and 2 on for ________ off for ________.
Start 3 to 10 on for ________ off for _______.
5 minutes, 5 minutes,
5 minutes, 15 minutes
217
What is the engine air start envelope maximum altitude using bleed from the other engine?
30,000 ft
218
What is the engine air start envelope maximum altitude using the APU as a source of bleed?
23,000 ft
219
What is the engine air start below 195 kt maximum altitude?
15,000 ft
220
What is the maximum fuel imbalance on ground/during takeoff/landing and in flight?
600 lb, 1,100 lb
221
What is the minimum fuel quantity for manual wing to wing transfer?
2,500 lb per wing
222
What is the minimum required quantity per wing during a goaround?
340 kg (750 lb)
223
Fuel crossfeed must be off for takeoff and landing. What about for dual engine?
For dual engine operations, having the crossfeed valve open is prohibited below 10,000 ft.
224
Operation of the oil replenishment system is prohibited when the OAT is at what temperature or below?
-12°C
225
What is the maximum APU starting altitude?
45,000 ft
226
What is the maximum number of APU starts?
3 in 1 hour
227
What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed extraction for ECS?
25,000 ft
228
What is the minimum ambient temperature for starting a cold soaked APU on the ground?
-40°C
229
What is the maximum airplane operating Mmo?
0.925 Mach
230
What is the maximum airplane operating Vmo between 35,000 and 20,000 ft?
320 KCAS
231
What is the maximum airplane operating Vmo 8,000 ft and below?
300 KCAS
232
What is the maximum speed for turbulence penetration?
265 KIAS from sea level to 8000 ft, linearly increasing to 285 KIAS at 10,000 ft
233
What is the maximum speed for flap 1?
225 KIAS
234
What is the maximum speed for flap 2?
210 KIAS
235
What is the maximum speed for flap 3?
210 KIAS
236
What is the maximum speed for flap 4?
185 KIAS
237
What is the tire limit speed?
195 kt ground speed
238
During taxi and takeoff, the pressure differential must not exceed what psi?
0.1 PSI
239
During touchdown, the pressuredifferential mu st not exceed what psi?
1.0 PSI
240
Auxiliary pressurization is prohibited above what height?
41,000 ft
241
Is FMS speed authorized during single engine operation?
No
242
What is the minimum height for autopilot engagement?
400 AGL
243
Above what height is flight prohibited with slats/flaps extended?
18,000 ft
244
Below what height must flight spoilers be retracted?
300 AGL
245
Is there any restriction for use of the MAX spoiler?
It is prohibited except during emergency conditions or as required by AFM procedures.
246
When conducting an approach in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD 83 the SVS shall be selected or deselected prior to passing the FAF?
Deselected
247
During takeoff, approach, and landing operations in airspace not referenced to WGS 84 or NAD83, must the SMS runway switch must be selected ON or OFF?
OFF
248
Is backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust allowed or prohibited?
Prohibited
249
True or False:
When exiting a Hold with a course change of greater than 150°, the FMS may
depict the turn direction incorrectly on the MFW MAP.
TRUE
250
True or False:
The use of VNAV guidance is allowed when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation (QFE operation).
FALSE.
The use of VNAV guidance is prohibited when the barometric altitude is corrected to the landing field elevation (QFE operation).
251
Speed constraints on the last waypoint of the STAR and the first waypoint of the approach must be verified on what format?
ACT FPLN ROUTE format
252
When flying a NAV-TO-NAV or ILS based approach, do not ARM APPR until within ____ of the runway approach course.
70°
253
True or False:
LPV approach operations to LPV minimums must not be commenced unless two FMSs and two SBAS GNSS sensors are fully operational and independently displayed.
TRUE
254
FMS as a primary navigation source beyond the FAF is prohibited unless what is annunciated on the PFD/HUD?
RNP APPR or LPV APPR
255
FMS as a supplementary navigation source beyond the FAF is permitted when APPR or REF APPR is annunciated on the PFD/HUD if the navigation air referenced in the approach procedure is ____ and ____ by the flight crew during the approach.
Displayed, monitored
256
GNSS sensors must be selected or deselected when on approach in airspace not referenced to WGS84 or NAD 83?
Deselected
257
True or False:
Before executing any flight plan modification received via CPDLC, the crew must make sure that the first leg of the flight plan has been inserted.
FALSE
Before executing any flight plan modification received via CPDLC, the crew must make sure that the entire content of the flight plan has been inserted.
258
Is selection of FANS CPDLC INSER MOD within 2 minutes of a TO waypoint allowed or prohibited?
Prohibited
259
True or False:
FPLN UPLINK must be completed or cancelled prior to taxi.
TRUE
260
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the takeoff N1 thrust setting packs ON, cowl anti-ice ON, -20°C, 3,000 ft?
91.6%
261
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the takeoff weight limited by climb capability, FLAP 2 engine bleed open and packs ON, 30°C and 5,000 ft?
110,400 lb
262
What would be the penalty factor taking off with the APU ON?
250 lb
263
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the FLAP 2 takeoff stabilizer trim setting, weight 100,000 lb and 40% CG?
6.43
264
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the uncorrected takeoff speeds and field length for FLAP 2, dry runway, engine bleed open and packs ON, 3,000 ft, 95,000 lb, 40°C?
V1 126 KIAS,
V2 126 KIAS,
VR 133 KIAS,
VFTO 185 KIAS,
TOFL 6,430 ft
265
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the correction factor for a 10 kt tailwind to the TOFL, FLAP 2, WCAI ON?
0.0127
266
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the FLAP 3 takeoff weight limited by brake energy penalty factor for a BTMS 10?
14,520 lb
267
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the AEO takeoff climb gradient at rotation, dry runway, engine bleed open and packs ON, 3,000 ft, 95,000 lb, 40°C?
16.26%
268
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the OEI net takeoff climb gradient at rotation, dry runway, engine bleed open and packs ON, 3,000 ft, 95,000 lb, 40°C?
3.01%
269
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the corrected net takeoff climb gradient with an uncorrected net takeoff climb gradient of 4% with a 20 kt headwind?
4.4%
270
Takeoff using FLEX thrust setting is prohibited on runways contaminated with what?
Standing water, snow, slush or ice
271
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the maximum assumed temperature available FLAP 2, engine bleed open and packs ON, takeoff weight limited by climb capability, 2,000 ft?
+50°C
272
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the maximum assumed temperature available FLAP 2, dry runway, 3000 ft, engine bleed open and packs ON, A/C weight 100,000 lb, runway length available 7,200 ft?
+40C
273
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the reduced thrust setting, packs ON, anti-ice OFF, 3,000 ft, OAT 10°, assumed temperature 45°C?
91.3%
274
Using QRH Vol 1, what be the FLAP 2 OEI net takeoff climb gradient, engine bleed open and packs ON, 2,000 ft, 95,000 lb, +40°C, zero wind?
3.53%
275
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the uncorrected takeoff speeds and field length for FLAP 2, WCAI ON, compacted snow, 3,000 ft, 90,000 lb, -20°C?
V1 118 KIAS,
V2 118 KIAS,
VR 129 KIAS,
VFTO 180 KIAS,
TOFL 4300 ft
276
Using a VR of 118 KIAS, what would be the corrected VR for runway slope of -1%?
117 KIAS
277
Using the corrected VR of 117 KIAS, what would V1 and distance factor to correction dry runway, V1 and TOFL, compacted snow?
109 KIAS 1.17
278
What would be the wind correction to TOFL, compacted snow, 20 kt headwind?
90%
279
What would be the runway slope correction to TOFL, compacted snow, +1% slope?
1.15%
280
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be the FLAP 2 approach climb capability, WCAI ON, 1,000 ft, -30°C, and 70,000 lb?
11.95%
281
What would be the penalty factor if ice accumulation on unprotected surfaces is suspected?
90%
282
Using QRH Vol 1, what would be landing speeds and landing distances - wet, sea level, and 70,000 lb?
VREF 111 KIAS,
VAC 121 KIAS,
VFTO 159 KIAS,
FLD 4,450 ft
283
What would be the correction factor to FLD for a 20 kt headwind?
-12%
284
Using QRH Vol 1, the ATIS reported the runway condition code 3, what would be the operational landing distance - pressure altitude 6,000 ft and 75,000 lb?
4,970 ft
285
Using simplified flight planning fuel and range data, what is the trip fuel and time cruise altitude 41,000 ft, 0.80 M, range 3,000 nm, and landing weight 70,000 lb?
19,253 lb, 403 minutes
286
For the same range and landing weight, what would be the trip fuel and time cruise altitude 45,000 ft and 0.85 M?
18,296 lb, 382 minutes
287
For the two previous questions, what is the climb and descent speed schedule based on?
Climb and Descent Speed Schedule
250 KCAS / 275 KCAS / 0.85 M
288
Using reserve fuel - NBAA/IFR format, what is the reserve fuel in these conditions:
Holding time 30 minutes, ZFW 64,000 lb, and 300 nm distance to alternate
3,515 lb
289
Using the electronic load sheet, with the following parameters OWE 61,755 lb (pilots [400 lb], jumpseat [120 lb], crew baggage [90 lb]), 2 x 200 lb passenger (Zone A [seat 3 and 4]), passenger baggage 250 lb, 30,000 lb fuel (L Main 13,720 lb, R Main 13,720 lb, Center 0 lb, Aft 2,560 lb), what is the ramp weight, CG and FLAP 2 takeoff trim setting?
92,405 lb
35.5%
7.65
290
Using the electronic load sheet, with the following parameters OWE 61,145 lb (pilots [0 lb], jumpseat [0 lb], crew baggage [0 lb], 0 passengers, 0 lb cargo, 4000 lb fuel (L Main 2000 lb, R Main 2000 lb, Center 0 lb, Aft 0 lb), snow factor Y, 3 inches of snow found on the airplane, what is the nose landing gear load and it is safe to tow?
1828 lb
No
291
Using the electronic load sheet, fuel bulk temperature low 25°C, total fuel quantity 51,891 lb, what temperature delta may cause an overspill?
22°C
292
