Question Bank Flashcards
1
Q
Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental carries?
A
Sucrose
2
Q
The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures beginning with the mouth is…. (name5)
A
Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine
3
Q
Approximately 80% of the body’s immune system is located in the intestinal tract. T/F?
A
True
4
Q
Which of the following is included in GALT?
A
Peyer’s patches
5
Q
Dental plaque is an example of…
A
biofilm
6
Q
Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is false?
A
The mortality rate is high
7
Q
Urea breath test is used for the detection of
A
H. Pylori
8
Q
The incubation time for S. typhi is 12-13 hours. T/F?
A
False (3-60 days)
9
Q
Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever…
A
The incubation period is much longer
10
Q
“Rice water stools” are characteristic of
A
Cholera
11
Q
Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with
A
Water and electrolysis
12
Q
Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by
A
Contaminated food and water
13
Q
Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it
A
possesses an enzyme that neutralize HCl
14
Q
H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment o fth estomach by increasing the pH of the immediate environment. T/F?
A
True
15
Q
Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route
A
mumps (parotitis)
16
Q
It is difficult to make effective vaccine against
A
Hepatitis C
17
Q
Hepatitis is inflammation of
A
liver
18
Q
Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?
A
Hepatitis A virus
19
Q
Which of the following is not a recognized form of anthrax?
A
Septic
20
Q
The first symptom of lyme disease is
A
A bell’s eye rash at the bite site
21
Q
Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?
A
Undulant fever
22
Q
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
A
That it is gram negative
23
Q
Anthrax disease strikes primarily
A
grazing animals
24
Q
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A
Dengue-tick
25
A characteristic symptom of plague is
Swollen lymph nodes
26
Plague is caused by a bacterium
Yersinia pestis
27
Which of the following is not treated with antibiotics?
Ebola
28
All lymph that returns to the heart must bass through at least one lymph node. T/F?
True
29
Lymph contains red blood cells. T/F?
False
30
Give examples of mosquito borne diseases.
Dengue, Malaria
31
Infections of the Urinary tract system are prevented by (name 3)
Valves that prevent backflow, the acidity of urine, mechanical flushing
32
Male system (name 4)
Two testes System of Ducts Accessory glands Penis
33
What are the four sysem of ducts in the male reproductive system?
Epididymis Ductus (vas) deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra
34
Which parts of the urinary tract system are sterile?
Upper bladder and upper urinary tract
35
What are the 3 predominant mircobes of the vagina?
Lactobacilli Streptococci, anaerobes, some gram-begatives Candida albicans
36
How does lactobacilli work in the vagina?
Produces H2O2 - lactic acid from glycogen Growth is promoted by estrogen-epithelial cells-glycogen
37
The male urethra is usually not sterile. T/F?
False
38
Inflammation fo the urethra
Urethritis
39
Inflammation of the urinary bladder
Cystitis
40
Inflammation of one or both kidneys
Pyelonephritis
41
There are 7 million urinary tract infections annually and they are mostly due to ... ?
E coli
42
Difficult or painful urination
Dysuria
43
Why is cystitis 8 times more common in women than men?
Women have a shorter urethra and it is closer to the anus
44
Diagnosis is ______ of potential pathogens and a positive ________ \_\_\_\_\_\_ test (an enzyme produced by neutrophils during active infection
\>100 CFU/ml leukocyte esterase (LE)
45
Cystitis is treated with
trimethoprim-sulfamethaxole
46
75 % of the cases of Pyelonephritis are caused by
E coli
47
Symptoms of pyelonephritis include
fever and back pain
48
Pyelonephritis usually results in bacteremia which is...
Presence of bacteria in the blood
49
Why is pyelonephritis dangerous?
It can form scar tissue in kidneys and become life-threatening
50
Pyelonephritis is treated with
cephalosporin
51
Pyelonephritis is dianosed with
\>10000 CFU/mL and LE
52
Leptospirosis is cause dby
Leptospira interrogans
53
Leptospirosis is transmitted via...
transmitted by skin mucosal contact from urine-contaminated water from domestic or wild animals; in the US the most common reservoir is domestic dogs
54
Symptoms of leptospirosis
headahes, muscular aches, fever Kindey failure (Well's disease) Pulmonary hemorrhagic syndrome
55
How is leptospirosis diagnised?
Wish a rapid serological test
56
What do you know about STDs? (name 5)
Also known as STIs Often no signs or symptoms Over 30 types of infections 15 million new cases in the US annually Treatment with antibiotics and prevented with condoms
57
Gonorrhea is caused by
neisseria gonorrhoeae (gram negative diplococcus)
58
How does gonorrhea get there/stay there?
Attaches to the epithelial mucosa by the fimbriae -Invades spaces bewteen the columnar epithelial cells (eyes, rectum, urethra, and cervix) -Causes inflammation -Forms pus
59
What diseases can develop if gonorrhea is left untreated?
Endocarditis, meningitis, and arthritis
60
Infant blindness due to a gonorrheal infection of the eyes
Opthalmia Neonatorum
61
HOw is Gonorrhea diagnosed?
Gram stain, ELISA, or monoclonal antibodies
62
What are the treatments for gonorrhea?
Cephalosporin and then ceftiraixone
63
Syphilis is caused by
Trponema pallidum -gram negative spirochete -grows slowly in cell culture
64
How does syphilis infect
invades the mucosa or through skin breaks and enters the bloodstream; induces a flammatory response
65
skin lesions associated with syphilis
yaws - affects skin, bones, and cartilage
66
Dsecribe 3 stages of syphilis
1) Primary - sore at the site of infection about 3 weeks after exposure -painless but highly infectious -disappears after 2 weeks 2) Secondary stage - skin and mucosal rashes, especially on the palms and soles (ue to inflammatory response) 3)Latent period - no symptoms
67
Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)
Caused by chlamydia trachomatis Uncommon in the US -infects lymphoid tissue -dx c blood tests -doxycycline
68
Genital herpes is caused by HSV-1 or HSV-2?
HSV-2; 1 in 4 are infected
69
Symptoms of genital herpes
painful vesicles on the genitals; painful urination - heals within 2 weeks
70
Genital Herpes ahs no cure. T/F
True; suppression and management with acyclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir
71
Herpesvirus can be passed on to the baby. T/F
True. The virus ccan cross the placental barrier and infect the fetus. There can be damage to the CNS, developmental delays, blindness, and hearing loss Babies infected have a 40% survival rate -Newborns infected from HSV exposure during delivery
72
Caused by human papillomaviruses
Genital warts; 25% or 14-59 ur old women are infected
73
Which serotypes of genital warts cause cancer?
16 and 18; visible warts are only 6 and 11
74
Genital warts can be prevented with vaccines
True; treatment via removal of warts; podofilox and imiquimod
75
C. albicans causes... Grows where? Caused by?
Candidiasis -grows on mucous of mouth and intestinal treat -opportunistic growth caused by antibiotics, hormones, diabetes
76
What is thrush?
Oral candidiasis
77
What is vaginitis?
Vulvovaginal candidiasis - thick yellow discharge
78
What is candidiasis treated with?
Clotrimazole or flucozole
79
What causes a profuse foul, greenish yellow frothy discharge of the vagina?
Trichomoniasis - trichomonoas vaginalis -dx with mirosopic id or a DNA probe
80
TORCH panel of tests- what is used for
Toxoplasmosis Other (syphilis, Hep B, enterovirus, EBV, variccella-zoster irus) Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus -panel of tests that screans for antibodies to infections in pregnant women
81
What is the difference between innate immunity and adaptive immunity?
Adaptive: -target specific antigen -acquired through infection or vaccination Innate -you're born with it
82
Humoral Immunity is when...
Antibodies are produced which combat foreign molecules known as antigens -B cells are lymphocyte that are created and mature in red bone marrow
83
Cellular immunity (cell-mediated immunity) produces what
T cells -recognize antigenic peptides processed by phagocytic cells
84
T cell receptors do what
On T cell surface contact antigens causing the T cells to secrete cytokines instead of antibodies
85
Cellular immunity attacks antigens found inside \_\_\_\_\_
cells; viruses; some fungi and parasits
86
Humoral immunity fights invaders _____ cell
outside bacteria and toxins
87
substances that cause the production of antibodies
antigens; -usually components of invading microbes or foreign subtances -
88
Antibodies reach with ______ or ______ \_\_\_\_\_\_ on the antigen
epitopes; antigenic determinants
89
Antigens too small to provoke immune responses; attach to carrier molecules (e.g. penicillin)
haptens
90
globular proteins called
immunoglobins (ig)
91
the number of antigen binding sites on an antibody
valence; bivalent antibodies have two binding sites
92
ANtibodies have how many chains forming a what shape?
4; Y -two indentical light chains, two indentical heavy chains joined by disulfide links
93
What are the five classes of Ig?
Which has the highest percentage of serum antibody? The lowest?
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE
Highest: IgG (in blood lymph and intestine)
Lowest: IgE (bound to mat and bsophil cells throughout body, blood)
94
what genes encode molecules on the cell surface
Class I does what
Class II does what
Major histocompatiility complex (MHC)
Class I: on the membrane of nucleated animal cells, identify "self"
Class II: MHC are on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) including B cells
95
clonal proliferation
B cell expansion
96
contacts the displayed antigen fragment and releases cytokines that activate B cells
T helper cell (Th)
97
Deletes harmful B cells
clonal deletion
98
Clonal selection differentiates activated B cells into
- Antibody-priudcing plasma cells
- Memory cells
99
Antigen that requires a Th cell to produce antibodies
T-dependent antigen
100
T-independent antigen
stimulat the B cell without the help of T cells
- provoke weak immune response, usually producing IgM
- no memory cells generated
101
Forms when antibodies bind to antigens
antigen-antibody complex
102
strength of antigen-antibody complex bond
affinity
103
reudces number of infectious units to be dealt with
agglutination
104
causes inflammation and cell lysis
activation of complement
105
coating antigen with antibody enhances phagocytosis
opsonization
106
antibodies attached to target cell cause destruction by macrophages, eosinophils, and NK cells
antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity
107
blocks adhesion of bacteria and viruses to mucosa
neutralization
108
eleminates immture T cells
Thymic selection
109
T cells mature in the
Thymus
110
T cells migrate from ____ to ____ \_\_\_\_
thymus to lymphoid tissues
111
T cells attached to antigens via \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
T-cell receptors
112
Cells that engulfand degrade microbes and display them to the T cells;
Found in the skin, genital tract, lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, and blood
Dendritic Cells (DCs)
113
Activated by cytokines or the ingestion of antigenic material;
Migrate to the lymph tissue, presenting antigen to T cells
Macrophages
114
CD
Clusters of differentiation
115
CD4+
T helper cells;
cytokines signaling B cells; interact directly with antigens
bind MHC class II molecules on B cells and APCs
116
Bind MHC class I molecules
CD8+
Cytoxic T lymphocytes
117
programmed cell death
apoptosis
- prevents spread of infectious disease
- cells ut their genomes into fragments, causing the membranes to bulge outward via blebbing
118
granular leukocytes destroy cells that don't epress MHC class I self antigens;
not always stimulated by an antigen
form spores in the target cell, leading to lysis or apoptosis
Natural Killer cells
119
too large to be phagocytized
protzoans and helminths;
immune system secretes chemicals
120
occurs after second exposure to an antigen
Secondary (memory or anamnetic) response;
more rapid, lasts many days, greater in magnitude
-memory cells produced in resposen to the initial exposure are avticated by the secondary exposure
121
relative amount of antibody in the serum
antibody titer
reflects intensity of the humoral response
IgM is produced first, followed later by IgG
122
antigens enter the body naturall; body produces antibodies and specialsed lymphocytes
naturally acquired active
123
antibodies pass formmother to fetus via placenta or to infant via the mother's milk
naturally acquired passive
124
antigens are introdcued in vaccines; body produces antibodies and specialized lymphocytse
Artificially acquired active
125
Preformed antibodies in immune system serum are introduced by injects
Artifically acquired passive
126
1. What is hypersensitivity and what are the different types?
an abnormal or patholigic imune reaction that is caused by an immune response to repeated exposure to an antigen
1. Immediate (type I) hypersensitivity - atopy, anaphylaxis (IgE)
2. Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity - autoimmune (hemolytic anemia) (IgG or IgM
3. Immune complex-mediated (type III) hypesensitivity - serum sickness , arthur's reaction, lupus (IgG and complement)
4. Cell-mediated (type IV) hypersensitivity - transplant rejection, TB, (T cells, macropahges, histiocytes)
127
Differences between Type I and Type II hypersensitivity
1. IgE
2. anaphylactic shock
common allergy conditions (hay fever,ashtma)
clinical signs \< 30 min
--
1. 5-12 hrs for clinical signs
2. IgM and IgG antibodies
3. transfusion reactions, Rh incompatibility
128
treatment for anaphylactic shock
syringe of epinephrine
129
which type of hypersensitivity is expressed by positive TB test
Type IV - cell - delayed cell-mediated
130
what type fo antibodies are given in repeated doses for desensitization
the antigen so IgG is produced and not IgE
131
What ar ethe different blood groups/
ABO
132
Blood groupA has which plasma antibodies and which cells can be received
Anti-B,
A, O
133
Blood type B has which plasma antibody and can receive which cells
Anti-A, B and O
134
Blood type AB has which plasma antibodies and can receive which cells
neither anti-A or anti-B
A, B, AB, O
135
Blood type O has which plasma antibodies and can receive which blood type
AntiA and Anti B, only O
136
What does A+, B+ blood type mean mean?
Individual has positive Rh factor
137
1. Cancer cells are normal cells that are transformed. They divide uncontrollably and they posses tumor specific antigen. Immune surveillance removes the cancer cells. A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with CTL( cytotoxic T lymphocyte) and activated macrophages.
