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BIO150 > Question Bank > Flashcards

Question Bank Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is directly involved in the initiation of dental carries?

A

Sucrose

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2
Q

The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures beginning with the mouth is…. (name5)

A

Pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

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3
Q

Approximately 80% of the body’s immune system is located in the intestinal tract. T/F?

A

True

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4
Q

Which of the following is included in GALT?

A

Peyer’s patches

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5
Q

Dental plaque is an example of…

A

biofilm

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6
Q

Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is false?

A

The mortality rate is high

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7
Q

Urea breath test is used for the detection of

A

H. Pylori

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8
Q

The incubation time for S. typhi is 12-13 hours. T/F?

A

False (3-60 days)

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9
Q

Typhoid fever differs from salmonellosis in that in typhoid fever…

A

The incubation period is much longer

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10
Q

“Rice water stools” are characteristic of

A

Cholera

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11
Q

Many bacterial infections of the lower digestive tract are treated with

A

Water and electrolysis

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12
Q

Epidemics related to bacterial infection of the digestive system are typically caused by

A

Contaminated food and water

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13
Q

Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it

A

possesses an enzyme that neutralize HCl

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14
Q

H. pylori is able to survive the acidic environment o fth estomach by increasing the pH of the immediate environment. T/F?

A

True

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15
Q

Which one of the following diseases of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route

A

mumps (parotitis)

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16
Q

It is difficult to make effective vaccine against

A

Hepatitis C

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17
Q

Hepatitis is inflammation of

A

liver

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18
Q

Which of the following causes inflammation of the liver?

A

Hepatitis A virus

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a recognized form of anthrax?

A

Septic

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20
Q

The first symptom of lyme disease is

A

A bell’s eye rash at the bite site

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21
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?

A

Undulant fever

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?

A

That it is gram negative

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23
Q

Anthrax disease strikes primarily

A

grazing animals

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24
Q

Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A

Dengue-tick

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25
Q

A characteristic symptom of plague is

A

Swollen lymph nodes

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26
Q

Plague is caused by a bacterium

A

Yersinia pestis

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27
Q

Which of the following is not treated with antibiotics?

A

Ebola

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28
Q

All lymph that returns to the heart must bass through at least one lymph node. T/F?

A

True

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29
Q

Lymph contains red blood cells. T/F?

A

False

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30
Q

Give examples of mosquito borne diseases.

A

Dengue, Malaria

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31
Q

Infections of the Urinary tract system are prevented by (name 3)

A

Valves that prevent backflow, the acidity of urine, mechanical flushing

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32
Q

Male system (name 4)

A

Two testes System of Ducts Accessory glands Penis

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33
Q

What are the four sysem of ducts in the male reproductive system?

A

Epididymis Ductus (vas) deferens Ejaculatory duct Urethra

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34
Q

Which parts of the urinary tract system are sterile?

A

Upper bladder and upper urinary tract

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35
Q

What are the 3 predominant mircobes of the vagina?

A

Lactobacilli Streptococci, anaerobes, some gram-begatives Candida albicans

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36
Q

How does lactobacilli work in the vagina?

A

Produces H2O2 - lactic acid from glycogen Growth is promoted by estrogen-epithelial cells-glycogen

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37
Q

The male urethra is usually not sterile. T/F?

A

False

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38
Q

Inflammation fo the urethra

A

Urethritis

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39
Q

Inflammation of the urinary bladder

A

Cystitis

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40
Q

Inflammation of one or both kidneys

A

Pyelonephritis

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41
Q

There are 7 million urinary tract infections annually and they are mostly due to … ?

A

E coli

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42
Q

Difficult or painful urination

A

Dysuria

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43
Q

Why is cystitis 8 times more common in women than men?

A

Women have a shorter urethra and it is closer to the anus

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44
Q

Diagnosis is ______ of potential pathogens and a positive ________ ______ test (an enzyme produced by neutrophils during active infection

A

>100 CFU/ml leukocyte esterase (LE)

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45
Q

Cystitis is treated with

A

trimethoprim-sulfamethaxole

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46
Q

75 % of the cases of Pyelonephritis are caused by

A

E coli

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47
Q

Symptoms of pyelonephritis include

A

fever and back pain

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48
Q

Pyelonephritis usually results in bacteremia which is…

A

Presence of bacteria in the blood

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49
Q

Why is pyelonephritis dangerous?

A

It can form scar tissue in kidneys and become life-threatening

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50
Q

Pyelonephritis is treated with

A

cephalosporin

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51
Q

Pyelonephritis is dianosed with

A

>10000 CFU/mL and LE

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52
Q

Leptospirosis is cause dby

A

Leptospira interrogans

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53
Q

Leptospirosis is transmitted via…

A

transmitted by skin mucosal contact from urine-contaminated water from domestic or wild animals; in the US the most common reservoir is domestic dogs

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54
Q

Symptoms of leptospirosis

A

headahes, muscular aches, fever Kindey failure (Well’s disease) Pulmonary hemorrhagic syndrome

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55
Q

How is leptospirosis diagnised?

A

Wish a rapid serological test

56
Q

What do you know about STDs? (name 5)

A

Also known as STIs Often no signs or symptoms Over 30 types of infections 15 million new cases in the US annually Treatment with antibiotics and prevented with condoms

57
Q

Gonorrhea is caused by

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae (gram negative diplococcus)

58
Q

How does gonorrhea get there/stay there?

A

Attaches to the epithelial mucosa by the fimbriae -Invades spaces bewteen the columnar epithelial cells (eyes, rectum, urethra, and cervix) -Causes inflammation -Forms pus

59
Q

What diseases can develop if gonorrhea is left untreated?

A

Endocarditis, meningitis, and arthritis

60
Q

Infant blindness due to a gonorrheal infection of the eyes

A

Opthalmia Neonatorum

61
Q

HOw is Gonorrhea diagnosed?

A

Gram stain, ELISA, or monoclonal antibodies

62
Q

What are the treatments for gonorrhea?

A

Cephalosporin and then ceftiraixone

63
Q

Syphilis is caused by

A

Trponema pallidum -gram negative spirochete -grows slowly in cell culture

64
Q

How does syphilis infect

A

invades the mucosa or through skin breaks and enters the bloodstream; induces a flammatory response

65
Q

skin lesions associated with syphilis

A

yaws - affects skin, bones, and cartilage

66
Q

Dsecribe 3 stages of syphilis

A

1) Primary - sore at the site of infection about 3 weeks after exposure -painless but highly infectious -disappears after 2 weeks 2) Secondary stage - skin and mucosal rashes, especially on the palms and soles (ue to inflammatory response) 3)Latent period - no symptoms

67
Q

Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)

A

Caused by chlamydia trachomatis Uncommon in the US -infects lymphoid tissue -dx c blood tests -doxycycline

68
Q

Genital herpes is caused by HSV-1 or HSV-2?

A

HSV-2; 1 in 4 are infected

69
Q

Symptoms of genital herpes

A

painful vesicles on the genitals; painful urination - heals within 2 weeks

70
Q

Genital Herpes ahs no cure. T/F

A

True; suppression and management with acyclovir, famciclovir, and valacyclovir

71
Q

Herpesvirus can be passed on to the baby. T/F

A

True. The virus ccan cross the placental barrier and infect the fetus. There can be damage to the CNS, developmental delays, blindness, and hearing loss Babies infected have a 40% survival rate -Newborns infected from HSV exposure during delivery

72
Q

Caused by human papillomaviruses

A

Genital warts; 25% or 14-59 ur old women are infected

73
Q

Which serotypes of genital warts cause cancer?

A

16 and 18; visible warts are only 6 and 11

74
Q

Genital warts can be prevented with vaccines

A

True; treatment via removal of warts; podofilox and imiquimod

75
Q

C. albicans causes… Grows where? Caused by?

A

Candidiasis -grows on mucous of mouth and intestinal treat -opportunistic growth caused by antibiotics, hormones, diabetes

76
Q

What is thrush?

A

Oral candidiasis

77
Q

What is vaginitis?

A

Vulvovaginal candidiasis - thick yellow discharge

78
Q

What is candidiasis treated with?

A

Clotrimazole or flucozole

79
Q

What causes a profuse foul, greenish yellow frothy discharge of the vagina?

A

Trichomoniasis - trichomonoas vaginalis -dx with mirosopic id or a DNA probe

80
Q

TORCH panel of tests- what is used for

A

Toxoplasmosis Other (syphilis, Hep B, enterovirus, EBV, variccella-zoster irus) Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus -panel of tests that screans for antibodies to infections in pregnant women

81
Q

What is the difference between innate immunity and adaptive immunity?

A

Adaptive: -target specific antigen -acquired through infection or vaccination Innate -you’re born with it

82
Q

Humoral Immunity is when…

A

Antibodies are produced which combat foreign molecules known as antigens -B cells are lymphocyte that are created and mature in red bone marrow

83
Q

Cellular immunity (cell-mediated immunity) produces what

A

T cells -recognize antigenic peptides processed by phagocytic cells

84
Q

T cell receptors do what

A

On T cell surface contact antigens causing the T cells to secrete cytokines instead of antibodies

85
Q

Cellular immunity attacks antigens found inside _____

A

cells; viruses; some fungi and parasits

86
Q

Humoral immunity fights invaders _____ cell

A

outside bacteria and toxins

87
Q

substances that cause the production of antibodies

A

antigens; -usually components of invading microbes or foreign subtances -

88
Q

Antibodies reach with ______ or ______ ______ on the antigen

A

epitopes; antigenic determinants

89
Q

Antigens too small to provoke immune responses; attach to carrier molecules (e.g. penicillin)

A

haptens

90
Q

globular proteins called

A

immunoglobins (ig)

91
Q

the number of antigen binding sites on an antibody

A

valence; bivalent antibodies have two binding sites

92
Q

ANtibodies have how many chains forming a what shape?

A

4; Y -two indentical light chains, two indentical heavy chains joined by disulfide links

93
Q

What are the five classes of Ig?

Which has the highest percentage of serum antibody? The lowest?

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

Highest: IgG (in blood lymph and intestine)

Lowest: IgE (bound to mat and bsophil cells throughout body, blood)

94
Q

what genes encode molecules on the cell surface

Class I does what

Class II does what

A

Major histocompatiility complex (MHC)

Class I: on the membrane of nucleated animal cells, identify “self”

Class II: MHC are on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) including B cells

95
Q

clonal proliferation

A

B cell expansion

96
Q

contacts the displayed antigen fragment and releases cytokines that activate B cells

A

T helper cell (Th)

97
Q

Deletes harmful B cells

A

clonal deletion

98
Q

Clonal selection differentiates activated B cells into

A
  • Antibody-priudcing plasma cells
  • Memory cells
99
Q

Antigen that requires a Th cell to produce antibodies

A

T-dependent antigen

100
Q

T-independent antigen

A

stimulat the B cell without the help of T cells

  • provoke weak immune response, usually producing IgM
  • no memory cells generated
101
Q

Forms when antibodies bind to antigens

A

antigen-antibody complex

102
Q

strength of antigen-antibody complex bond

A

affinity

103
Q

reudces number of infectious units to be dealt with

A

agglutination

104
Q

causes inflammation and cell lysis

A

activation of complement

105
Q

coating antigen with antibody enhances phagocytosis

A

opsonization

106
Q

antibodies attached to target cell cause destruction by macrophages, eosinophils, and NK cells

A

antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity

107
Q

blocks adhesion of bacteria and viruses to mucosa

A

neutralization

108
Q

eleminates immture T cells

A

Thymic selection

109
Q

T cells mature in the

A

Thymus

110
Q

T cells migrate from ____ to ____ ____

A

thymus to lymphoid tissues

111
Q

T cells attached to antigens via ________

A

T-cell receptors

112
Q

Cells that engulfand degrade microbes and display them to the T cells;

Found in the skin, genital tract, lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, and blood

A

Dendritic Cells (DCs)

113
Q

Activated by cytokines or the ingestion of antigenic material;

Migrate to the lymph tissue, presenting antigen to T cells

A

Macrophages

114
Q

CD

A

Clusters of differentiation

115
Q

CD4+

A

T helper cells;

cytokines signaling B cells; interact directly with antigens

bind MHC class II molecules on B cells and APCs

116
Q

Bind MHC class I molecules

A

CD8+

Cytoxic T lymphocytes

117
Q

programmed cell death

A

apoptosis

  • prevents spread of infectious disease
  • cells ut their genomes into fragments, causing the membranes to bulge outward via blebbing
118
Q

granular leukocytes destroy cells that don’t epress MHC class I self antigens;

not always stimulated by an antigen

form spores in the target cell, leading to lysis or apoptosis

A

Natural Killer cells

119
Q

too large to be phagocytized

A

protzoans and helminths;

immune system secretes chemicals

120
Q

occurs after second exposure to an antigen

A

Secondary (memory or anamnetic) response;

more rapid, lasts many days, greater in magnitude

-memory cells produced in resposen to the initial exposure are avticated by the secondary exposure

121
Q

relative amount of antibody in the serum

A

antibody titer

reflects intensity of the humoral response

IgM is produced first, followed later by IgG

122
Q

antigens enter the body naturall; body produces antibodies and specialsed lymphocytes

A

naturally acquired active

123
Q

antibodies pass formmother to fetus via placenta or to infant via the mother’s milk

A

naturally acquired passive

124
Q

antigens are introdcued in vaccines; body produces antibodies and specialized lymphocytse

A

Artificially acquired active

125
Q

Preformed antibodies in immune system serum are introduced by injects

A

Artifically acquired passive

126
Q
  1. What is hypersensitivity and what are the different types?
A

an abnormal or patholigic imune reaction that is caused by an immune response to repeated exposure to an antigen

  1. Immediate (type I) hypersensitivity - atopy, anaphylaxis (IgE)
  2. Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity - autoimmune (hemolytic anemia) (IgG or IgM
  3. Immune complex-mediated (type III) hypesensitivity - serum sickness , arthur’s reaction, lupus (IgG and complement)
  4. Cell-mediated (type IV) hypersensitivity - transplant rejection, TB, (T cells, macropahges, histiocytes)
127
Q

Differences between Type I and Type II hypersensitivity

A
  1. IgE
  2. anaphylactic shock

common allergy conditions (hay fever,ashtma)

clinical signs < 30 min

–

  1. 5-12 hrs for clinical signs
  2. IgM and IgG antibodies
  3. transfusion reactions, Rh incompatibility
128
Q

treatment for anaphylactic shock

A

syringe of epinephrine

129
Q

which type of hypersensitivity is expressed by positive TB test

A

Type IV - cell - delayed cell-mediated

130
Q

what type fo antibodies are given in repeated doses for desensitization

A

the antigen so IgG is produced and not IgE

131
Q

What ar ethe different blood groups/

A

ABO

132
Q

Blood groupA has which plasma antibodies and which cells can be received

A

Anti-B,

A, O

133
Q

Blood type B has which plasma antibody and can receive which cells

A

Anti-A, B and O

134
Q

Blood type AB has which plasma antibodies and can receive which cells

A

neither anti-A or anti-B

A, B, AB, O

135
Q

Blood type O has which plasma antibodies and can receive which blood type

A

AntiA and Anti B, only O

136
Q

What does A+, B+ blood type mean mean?

A

Individual has positive Rh factor

137
Q
  1. Cancer cells are normal cells that are transformed. They divide uncontrollably and they posses tumor specific antigen. Immune surveillance removes the cancer cells. A healthy immune system destroys cancer cells with CTL( cytotoxic T lymphocyte) and activated macrophages.
A

BIO150 (15 decks)

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