Qs Flashcards
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When establishing a medication history, the patient’s own drugs (PODs) can be very useful. Which ONE of the following statements regarding PODs is correct?
PODs can indicate non-adherence to a medicine
PODs will indicate who has prescribed a medicine
PODs will indicate how long a patient has been prescribed a medicine
PODs will provide a complete medication history
PODs will indicate the dose of a medicine that has a variable dose, such as warfarin
When establishing a medication history, the patient’s own drugs (PODs) can be very useful. Which ONE of the following statements regarding PODs is correct?
PODs can indicate non-adherence to a medicine
PODs will indicate who has prescribed a medicine
PODs will indicate how long a patient has been prescribed a medicine
PODs will provide a complete medication history
PODs will indicate the dose of a medicine that has a variable dose, such as warfarin
A patient is admitted with diarrhoea. The medication history confirms that he takes capecitabine for metastatic colorectal cancer (2000 mg twice a day for 14 days, followed by a 7-day rest period. He is currently on day 10 of treatment). He is also prescribed loperamide 2 mg capsules, as directed. Which ONE of the following options would be the most appropriate next step?
Prescribe the capecitabine at the same dose, ensuring that you clearly mark the end date, followed by the 7-day rest period
Prescribe the loperamide 2 mg capsules, ‘when required’ until further details are confirmed
Prescribe the capecitabine at the same dose, ensuring that you clearly mark the end date, followed by the rest period AND the loperamide 2 mg capsules ‘when required’, to ensure continuation of treatment
Refer the patient to a specialist who can review the patient’s medication
Prescribe capecitabine but withhold on prescription until you have sought advice from a specialist
When taking a medication history, it is apparent that your patient has been non-adherent with their medication for some time. Following a period of treatment cessation, which ONE of the following medicines should be re-titrated, if restarted, to reduce the risk of adverse effects?
Carbimazole 15 mg tablets
Furosemide 20 mg tablets
Ramipril 10 mg capsules
Simvastatin 20 mg tablets
Tamoxifen 10 mg tablets
Ramipril
Ramipril is an Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
ACE inhibitors should be titrated gradually to avoid first-dose hypotension. This is particularly true if patients are also taking diuretics.
A 56-year-old man is admitted to hospital with cellulitis. The medication history confirms that he takes finasteride 1 mg tablets daily and hyoscine butylbromide 10 mg (Buscopan®) three times a day for irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which ONE of the following statements regarding his medication history is correct?
- The patient’s medication history indicates a past medical history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- The Buscopan® should be reviewed as it is contraindicated in prostatic enlargement
- The dose of finasteride should be reviewed as it is incorrect
- Finasteride can also be used for androgenic alopecia in men
- The dose of Buscopan® should be increased to 20 mg three times a day when used for IBS
Finasteride can also be used for androgenic alopecia in men
A 31-year-old woman attends the Emergency Department due to a soft tissue injury. She informs you that the only regular medication she takes is 30 ml of methadone 1 mg/ml sugar-free liquid once daily. It is prescribed by the community drug team and a local pharmacy dispense and supervise her dose. She appears anxious and states that she has not had today’s dose and requires it urgently. Which ONE of the following options regarding her methadone would be the next MOST appropriate step?
- Prescribe the methadone as a “once-only” medication
- Prescribe the methadone and ensure that the patient is supervised while taking the dose
- Withhold the methadone until you have spoken to the community drug team to confirm her usual dose.
- Prescribe the methadone after confirming the dose with the community drug team and contact the local pharmacy to confirm that she has not already received today’s dose
- Inform the patient that methadone cannot be prescribed and refer her
Prescribe the methadone after confirming the dose with the community drug team and contact the local pharmacy to confirm that she has not already received today’s dose
Which ONE of the following statements most accurately describes the aim of medicines reconciliation when a patient is admitted into hospital?
- Check the suitability of the medicines that a patient has brought in with them
- Identify an accurate list of a patient’s current medication, including non-prescribed medication, and compare to the list currently used for the patient in the hospital
- Identify any medicine-related problems, such as adverse effects, that have contributed to the patient’s admission
- Review the appropriateness of the medicines prescribed on admission
- Review the change in medication(s) since the patients’ last hospital admission and establish adherence to treatment
- Identify any medicine-related problems, such as adverse effects, that have contributed to the patient’s admission
A frail 76-year-old woman is admitted to hospital after having a fall. The patient is too confused and upset to give a medication history, however she always carries a repeat prescription from her GP which lists her medicines. Which ONE of the following statements regarding the repeat prescription is correct?
- A repeat prescription with a recent date can provide a complete medication history
- A repeat prescription will provide the same information as if you had spoken to the patient’s GP practice
- A repeat prescription will include the indication for each of the medicines prescribed
- A repeat prescription will indicate if the patient has any allergies to medicines
- A repeat prescription will provide a list of regularly prescribed medicines from the GP
- A repeat prescription will provide a list of regularly prescribed medicines from the GP
A patient shows you her monitored dosage system (MDS) to help confirm her medication history. It has been dispensed by a community pharmacist and contains printed directions for use. Which ONE of the following statements regarding the patient’s MDS is correct?
- The MDS will provide an accurate and complete medication history
- The MDS will provide information on how long the patient has been prescribed a medication
- The MDS will help to identify medications which have a variable dose
- The MDS will contain prescribed medication and medication that the patient self-medicates with
- The MDS will contain prescribed medication by the patient’s GP suitable for an MDS
- The MDS will contain prescribed medication by the patient’s GP suitable for an MDS
An 87-year-old man is admitted from a nursing home. Upon admission, the nursing home staff provided a copy of the patient’s medication administration record (MAR) chart. Which ONE of the following statements regarding a MAR chart is correct?
- The MAR chart lists the patient’s prescribed medication only
- The MAR chart lists the patient’s prescribed medication EXCEPT controlled drugs which are recorded separately
- The MAR chart will indicate the patient’s adherence to the medication listed
- The MAR chart is a prescription and should be used to prescribe additional medication while the patient is in hospital
- The MAR chart will be signed by the patient’s GP
The MAR chart will indicate the patient’s adherence to the medication listed
Which ONE of the following is considered a key factor that contributes towards the development of antimicrobial resistance?
Environmental pollution
Genetic predisposition
Herd immunity
Lifestyle choices
Poor personal
hygiene practices
Which ONE of the following is considered a key factor that contributes towards the development of antimicrobial resistance?
Environmental pollution
Genetic predisposition
Herd immunity
Lifestyle choices
Poor personal
hygiene practices
Antibacterial resistance is a serious public health issue. Which ONE of the following is UNLIKELY to contribute to antibacterial resistance?
Prescribing an antibacterial at a lower dosage than is required.
Prescribing an antibacterial for a longer duration than is required.
Prescribing an antibacterial for a shorter duration than is required.
Prescribing an antibacterial that is not approved by Trust guidelines.
Prescribing an antibacterial with a narrow spectrum of activity.
Antibacterial resistance is a serious public health issue. Which ONE of the following is UNLIKELY to contribute to antibacterial resistance?
Prescribing an antibacterial at a lower dosage than is required.
Prescribing an antibacterial for a longer duration than is required.
Prescribing an antibacterial for a shorter duration than is required.
Prescribing an antibacterial that is not approved by Trust guidelines.
Prescribing an antibacterial with a narrow spectrum of activity.
When counselling a patient, which ONE of the following antibacterials should you advise to take on an empty stomach?
Amoxicillin
Metronidazole
Nitrofurantoin
Phenoxymethlypenicillin
Trimethoprim
When counselling a patient, which ONE of the following antibacterials should you advise to take on an empty stomach?
Amoxicillin
Metronidazole
Nitrofurantoin
Phenoxymethlypenicillin
Trimethoprim
The absorption of an antibacterial may be affected by food. For example, phenoxymethylpenicillin should be taken on an empty stomach (this means an hour before or two hours after food).
Metronidazole and nitrofurantoin should be taken with or just after food.
Amoxicillin and trimethoprim can be taken either before or after food.
Public Heath England’s ‘Start Smart – then Focus’ toolkit should be used for all antibacterial prescribing in secondary care. Which ONE of the following statements is from the ‘Start Smart’ element of the toolkit?
Commence antibacterials and then obtain cultures to focus treatment
Commence antibacterials if there is a clinical suspicion of infection
For life-threatening infections, initiate prompt treatment within 90 minutes
Include a review/stop date or duration
Take a thorough medication history
Public Heath England’s ‘Start Smart – then Focus’ toolkit should be used for all antibacterial prescribing in secondary care. Which ONE of the following statements is from the ‘Start Smart’ element of the toolkit?
Commence antibacterials and then obtain cultures to focus treatment
Commence antibacterials if there is a clinical suspicion of infection
For life-threatening infections, initiate prompt treatment within 90 minutes
Include a review/stop date or duration
Take a thorough medication history
Which ONE of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding broad-spectrum antibacterials?
They can contribute to the development of multi-drug resistant strains if used indiscriminately.
They cause less adverse effects than narrow-spectrum antibacterials
They generally only target gram-positive organisms
They should be reserved for empirical treatment only
They should only be prescribed for a short duration
Which ONE of the following statements is MOST appropriate regarding broad-spectrum antibacterials?
They can contribute to the development of multi-drug resistant strains if used indiscriminately.
They cause less adverse effects than narrow-spectrum antibacterials
They generally only target gram-positive organisms
They should be reserved for empirical treatment only
They should only be prescribed for a short duration
While restricted antibacterials might differ between Trusts, the rationale for restriction will be similar. Which ONE of the following statements regarding restricted antibacterials is CORRECT?
Restricted antibacterials are non-formulary medicines
Restricted antibacterials are narrow-spectrum agents which if used inappropriately may promote resistance development
Restricted antibacterials can only be supplied following authorisation to prescribe from a ST3 trainee or above
Restricting expensive antibacterials allows for resources to be managed effectively
Restricting antibacterials enables for Trust to monitor usage.
While restricted antibacterials might differ between Trusts, the rationale for restriction will be similar. Which ONE of the following statements regarding restricted antibacterials is CORRECT?
Restricted antibacterials are non-formulary medicines
Restricted antibacterials are narrow-spectrum agents which if used inappropriately may promote resistance development
Restricted antibacterials can only be supplied following authorisation to prescribe from a ST3 trainee or above
Restricting expensive antibacterials allows for resources to be managed effectively
Restricting antibacterials enables for Trust to monitor usage.
6 OF 10
Which ONE of the following antibacterials has no activity against Gram negative organisms?
Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
Gentamicin
Metronidazole
Vancomycin
Which ONE of the following antibacterials has no activity against Gram negative organisms?
Ciprofloxacin
Doxycycline
Gentamicin
Metronidazole
Vancomycin
Which ONE of the following is the mechanism of action for macrolides?
They inhibit bacterial cell wall formation
They inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
They inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis
They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
They depolarise bacterial cell membranes
Which ONE of the following is the mechanism of action for macrolides?
They inhibit bacterial cell wall formation
They inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
They inhibit bacterial folic acid synthesis
They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis
They depolarise bacterial cell membranes
Which ONE of the following antibacterials is classified as a bacteriostatic agent?
Glycopeptides (e.g., vancomycin)
Metronidazole
Penicillins (e.g., phenoxymethylpenicillin)
Quinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
Tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline)
9 OF 10
Which ONE of the following antibacterials is classified as a bacteriostatic agent?
Glycopeptides (e.g., vancomycin)
Metronidazole
Penicillins (e.g., phenoxymethylpenicillin)
Quinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
Tetracyclines (e.g., doxycycline)
9 OF 10
A 70-year-old man has an infected chronic ulcer on his left leg. He has a past medical history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus.Previous swabs of his ulcer grew Staphylococcus aureusand Pseudomonas aeruginosa and were treated by the GP with flucloxacillin, but the most recent course was ineffective. You consider calling the Microbiologist for advice. When contacting a Microbiologist for advice, which ONE of the following pieces of information are you LEAST likely to require?
Information relating to any recent hospitalisations.
Information relating to any recent procedures or surgeries.
Information relating to any known allergies (especially to antibacterials)
Information relating to management of the patient’s diabetes
Information relating to any travel history
A 70-year-old man has an infected chronic ulcer on his left leg. He has a past medical history of Type 2 diabetes mellitus.Previous swabs of his ulcer grew Staphylococcus aureusand Pseudomonas aeruginosa and were treated by the GP with flucloxacillin, but the most recent course was ineffective. You consider calling the Microbiologist for advice. When contacting a Microbiologist for advice, which ONE of the following pieces of information are you LEAST likely to require?
Information relating to any recent hospitalisations.
Information relating to any recent procedures or surgeries.
Information relating to any known allergies (especially to antibacterials)
Information relating to management of the patient’s diabetes
Information relating to any travel history
An 89-year old patient is prescribed 14 different tablets daily. Her husband usually sorts the medicines out for her each morning. Her husband has been admitted to hospital and cannot assist with her medicine-taking. Which ONE of the following would you recommend?
- To purchase and self-fill a Monitored Dosage System (MDS)
- To speak to her community pharmacist and arrange an MDS
- To have her GP prescribe ‘combination’ products to reduce the total number of tablets taken daily
- Arrange for her to bring the tablets into hospital so the nurses can assist with medicine-taking during her husband’s admission.
- Arrange for large print labels to be added to her dispensed items
To speak to her community pharmacist and arrange an MDS
A 61-year-old patient is non-adherent with her cardiovascular medication following a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a reason for non-adherence?
The poor quality of instructions provided to the patient
Patient disagreement with the necessity for treatment
Complexity of drug regimens
Financial concerns
Adverse effects of the medicines
A 61-year-old patient is non-adherent with her cardiovascular medication following a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a reason for non-adherence?
Financial concerns
Patients aged 60 or over are entitled to free NHS prescriptions.
Her propranolol MR can continue postoperatively.
Her propranolol should be stopped postoperatively.
Her propranolol should be decreased postoperatively.
Her propranolol should be reviewed to 40 mg three times a day postoperatively.
1 OF 10
Her propranolol MR can continue postoperatively.
Her propranolol should be stopped postoperatively.
Her propranolol should be decreased postoperatively.
Her propranolol should be reviewed to 40 mg three times a day postoperatively.
1 OF 10
Which ONE of the following best describes the ingredient(s) which will not be contained in a 'sugar-free' liquid formulation?
Fructose, glucose and sucrose
Glucose, lactose
Lactose
Sorbitol
Sucrose
Which ONE of the following best describes the ingredient(s) which will not be contained in a 'sugar-free' liquid formulation?
Fructose, glucose and sucrose
Glucose, lactose
Lactose
Sorbitol
Sucrose
To optimise therapeutic effect, levothyroxine should be administered at what time of day?
In the morning, before breakfast
In the morning, after breakfast
At lunch time
In the evening
At bed-time
To optimise therapeutic effect, levothyroxine should be administered at what time of day?
In the morning, before breakfast
In the morning, after breakfast
At lunch time
In the evening
At bed-time
The process of oral drug absorption can be affected by a number of factors. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
Calcium salts can aid the absorption of bisphosphonates.
Calcium salts can aid the absorption levothyroxine.
Iron salts can aid the absorption of tetracycline antimicrobials.
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can aid the absorption of iron salts.
Iron salts can aid the absorption of quinolone antimicrobials.
6 OF 10
The process of oral drug absorption can be affected by a number of factors. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
Calcium salts can aid the absorption of bisphosphonates.
Calcium salts can aid the absorption levothyroxine.
Iron salts can aid the absorption of tetracycline antimicrobials.
Ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can aid the absorption of iron salts.
Iron salts can aid the absorption of quinolone antimicrobials.
6 OF 10
A 70-year-old woman is prescribed metronidazole 400 mg three times a day (at 08:00, 12:00, 18:00). She is having difficulty swallowing, and so the nurse asks you to change her to the liquid formulation. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate course of action?
- Endorse the current prescription with liquid 200 mg/5 ml.
- Rewrite the prescription as metronidazole liquid 200 mg/5 ml, 10 ml three times a day, at 8:00, 12:00, and 18:00.
- Rewrite the prescription as metronidazole liquid 200 mg/5 ml, 400 mg three times a day after food.
- Rewrite the prescription as metronidazole liquid 200 mg/5 ml, 400 mg three times a day.
- Request the nurse crushes the tablets as this is more cost effective.
7 OF 10
A 70-year-old woman is prescribed metronidazole 400 mg three times a day (at 08:00, 12:00, 18:00). She is having difficulty swallowing, and so the nurse asks you to change her to the liquid formulation. Which ONE of the following is the MOST appropriate course of action?
Endorse the current prescription with liquid 200 mg/5 ml.
Rewrite the prescription as metronidazole liquid 200 mg/5 ml, 10 ml three times a day, at 8:00, 12:00, and 18:00.
Rewrite the prescription as metronidazole liquid 200 mg/5 ml, 400 mg three times a day after food.
Rewrite the prescription as metronidazole liquid 200 mg/5 ml, 400 mg three times a day.
Request the nurse crushes the tablets as this is more cost effective.
7 OF 10
Administration technique of warfarin suspension
Drug interaction
Medication error
Time of administration
Time of sampling
Administration technique of warfarin suspension
Drug interaction
Medication error
Time of administration
Time of sampling
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Enteric-Coated (EC) formulations?
EC technology prevents the drug from reaching the small intestine.
EC formulations are absorbed through the stomach lining.
EC technology ensures a modified-release mechanism is maintained.
EC formulations can be crushed for administration.
EC formulations are contraindicated in patients with an ileostomy.
EC formulations are contraindicated in patients with an ileostomy.
It is important to carefully consider drug administration in patients with a PEG tube. Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?
An enteral feed should be stopped for drug administration to take place.
Crushing tablets are preferred compared to liquid formulations.
Drugs that interact with food cannot be administered via a PEG tube, and must be administered via an alternative route.
The tube only needs to be flushed after drug administration.
An enteral feed should be stopped for drug administration to take place.
Which ONE of the following must be documented on a prescription for a Schedule 2 or 3 CD in order to adhere to the legal requirements for controlled drugs set out by the Human Medicines Regulations (2012)?
The form of the preparation, irrespective of if there is only one available (e.g. tablets, capsules).
The strength of the preparation, irrespective of if there is only one available.
The dose of the preparation in words and figures.
The indication for treatment.
The words “Maximum 30 day supply”.
Which ONE of the following must be documented on a prescription for a Schedule 2 or 3 CD in order to adhere to the legal requirements for controlled drugs set out by the Human Medicines Regulations (2012)?
The form of the preparation, irrespective of if there is only one available (e.g. tablets, capsules).
The total quantity to be supplied should be state in words and figures - not the dose
Which ONE of the following most accurately describes a hospital inpatient drug chart?
Patient group direction
Patient specific direction
Prescription
Register
Requisition
Which ONE of the following most accurately describes a hospital inpatient drug chart?
Patient group direction
Patient specific direction
Prescription
Register
Requisition
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the legal requirements of a prescription?
The age only need be stated if the patient is under 12.
The patient’s NHS number must be present.
The prescription must be physically signed by the prescriber.
The prescriber’s address and professional registration number (e.g. GMC number) must be stated.
Additional prescription requirements apply to the prescribing of all Schedule 2, 3, 4 and 5 controlled drugs.
Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the legal requirements of a prescription?
The age only need be stated if the patient is under 12.
.
Which ONE of the following drugs should be prescribed using the BRAND name, exempt from the requirement for generic prescribing in the NHS?
Buccal midazolam
Inhaled salbutamol
Oral tacrolimus
Rectal diazepam
Intravenous piperacillin/tazobactam
Which ONE of the following drugs should be prescribed using the BRAND name, exempt from the requirement for generic prescribing in the NHS?
Buccal midazolam
Inhaled salbutamol
Oral tacrolimus
Rectal diazepam
Intravenous piperacillin/tazobactam
Which ONE of the following types of documentation is classified as a prescription form in the NHS (in England)?
Discharge summary
Electronic Prescription Service token
FP10HNC
Generic Sales List
Group Sales List
Which ONE of the following types of documentation is classified as a prescription form in the NHS (in England)?
Discharge summary
Electronic Prescription Service token
FP10HNC
Generic Sales List
Group Sales List
Prescriptions for controlled drugs have additional requirements above standard prescriptions. In addition to any other controlled drug prescription requirements, which of the following drug details would be legal?
Oramorph 100 mg/5 ml. 1 ml PRN for breakthrough pain. Thirty ml (30 ml)
Morphine Sulfate Concentrated Oral Solution 100 mg/5 ml. 1 ml PRN for breakthrough pain.
Morphine Sulfate Concentrated Oral Solution 100 mg/5 ml. 1 ml for breakthrough pain as directed. Thirty ml (30 ml).
Morphine Sulfate Concentrated Oral Solution 100 mg/5 ml. Take as directed up to four times a day for breakthrough pain. 30 ml (thirty ml).
Morphine Sulfate Concentrated Oral Solution. 1 ml PRN for breakthrough pain. Thirty ml.
Prescriptions for controlled drugs have additional requirements above standard prescriptions. In addition to any other controlled drug prescription requirements, which of the following drug details would be legal?
Morphine Sulfate Concentrated Oral Solution 100 mg/5 ml. 1 ml for breakthrough pain as directed. Thirty ml (30 ml).
Which class of antihypertensive are contraindicated in end-stage chronic liver disease (Childs score C)?
Beta-blockers
Calcium-channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics
1 OF 10
Which class of antihypertensive are contraindicated in end-stage chronic liver disease (Childs score C)?
Beta-blockers
Calcium-channel blockers
ACE inhibitors
Diuretics
1 OF 10
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of drug induced liver injury?
Ibuprofen
Omeprazole
Co-amoxiclav
Isoniazid
Which of the following is NOT a common cause of drug induced liver injury?
Ibuprofen
Omeprazole
Co-amoxiclav
Isoniazid
5 OF 10
Which ONE of the following is NOT an adverse drug reaction?
An event in a clinical trial that is judged to be causally-linked to a drug
An event that a patient suspects is an adverse drug reaction
An event that is routinely collected by an electronic healthcare information system
An event that causes limited harm to the patient
An event that is extremely rare
An event that is routinely collected by an electronic healthcare information system
Which ONE of the following is an ADR that occurs when the drug is given too rapidly?
Anaphylaxis with penicillin
Angioedema with ACE-inhibitors
‘Red man syndrome’ with vancomycin
Hyponatraemia with furosemide
Osteoporosis with prednisolone
4 OF 10
Which ONE of the following is an ADR that occurs when the drug is given too rapidly?
Anaphylaxis with penicillin
Angioedema with ACE-inhibitors
‘Red man syndrome’ with vancomycin
Hyponatraemia with furosemide
Osteoporosis with prednisolone
4 OF 10
Which ONE of the following medicines should be avoided in a patient with G6PD deficiency?
Low dose aspirin
Ciprofloxacin
Diclofenac
Paracetamol
Warfarin
6 OF 10
Which ONE of the following medicines should be avoided in a patient with G6PD deficiency?
Low dose aspirin
Ciprofloxacin
Diclofenac
Paracetamol
Warfarin
6 OF 10
Which ONE of the following should be reported to the MHRA Yellow Card Scheme as a suspected ADR?
A morbilliform rash in a 2-year-old who was given amoxicillin.
Drowsiness in a 10-year-old following a postoperative dose of morphine sulfate.
Migraine in a 17-year-old girl prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill Microgynon®.
Oral candidiasis in a 12-year-old prescribed a fluticasone inhaler for asthma.
Vomiting in a 14-year-old newly initiated on Epilim Chrono® (sodium valproate).
Which ONE of the following should be reported to the MHRA Yellow Card Scheme as a suspected ADR?
A morbilliform rash in a 2-year-old who was given amoxicillin.
Drowsiness in a 10-year-old following a postoperative dose of morphine sulfate.
Migraine in a 17-year-old girl prescribed the combined oral contraceptive pill Microgynon®.
Oral candidiasis in a 12-year-old prescribed a fluticasone inhaler for asthma.
Vomiting in a 14-year-old newly initiated on Epilim Chrono® (sodium valproate).
Magnesium sulfate w/v injection 20% is available as a 10 ml ampoule. How much magnesium sulfate does each 10 ml ampoule contain?
200 micrograms
20 mg
200 mg
2 g
20 g
Magnesium sulfate w/v injection 20% is available as a 10 ml ampoule. How much magnesium sulfate does each 10 ml ampoule contain?
200 micrograms
20 mg
200 mg
2 g
20 g
Desmopressin intranasal solution is prescribed for a 4-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus. The solution contains desmopressin acetate 0.01% w/v, administered using a nasal catheter. The child is currently prescribed 15 micrograms twice a day. Which ONE of the following options is the CORRECT volume to be administered at each dose?
0.15 ml
0.3 ml
1.5 ml
2 ml
3 ml
Desmopressin intranasal solution is prescribed for a 4-year-old boy with diabetes insipidus. The solution contains desmopressin acetate 0.01% w/v, administered using a nasal catheter. The child is currently prescribed 15 micrograms twice a day. Which ONE of the following options is the CORRECT volume to be administered at each dose?
0.15 ml
0.3 ml
1.5 ml
2 ml
3 ml
4 OF 10
You are in the dermatology clinic and a consultant asks you to prescribe a male patient’s isotretinoin (Roaccutane®) at a dose of 1 mg/kg once daily for 8 weeks. The patient weighs 68 kg. The capsules are available as 10 mg and 20 mg strengths. As the capsules are expensive, your Trust requests you state exactly the number of capsules required to cover the course. Which ONE of the following options regarding the supply of isotretinoin is CORRECT?
68 mg a day. Supply 392 x 10 mg capsules
68 mg a day. Supply 196 x 20 mg capsules
70 mg a day. Supply 168 x 20 mg capsules, and 56 x 10 mg capsules
70 mg a day. Supply 168 x 10 mg capsules, and 56 x 20 mg capsules
70 mg a day. Supply 196 x 20 mg capsules
You need to urgently administer an intramuscular injection of lorazepam 500 micrograms to a patient. The ampoules on the ward contain 4 mg/ml, the contents of which need to be diluted with an equal volume of water for injection or sodium chloride. Which ONE of the following options is CORRECT for the TOTAL volume you will administer?
0.125 ml
0.25 ml
0.5 ml
0.75 ml
1 ml
6 OF 10
You need to urgently administer an intramuscular injection of lorazepam 500 micrograms to a patient. The ampoules on the ward contain 4 mg/ml, the contents of which need to be diluted with an equal volume of water for injection or sodium chloride. Which ONE of the following options is CORRECT for the TOTAL volume you will administer?
0.125 ml
0.25 ml
0.5 ml
0.75 ml
1 ml
6 OF 10
On taking a medication history, your patient tells you he is currently on a course of colchicine 500 micrograms four times a day for the treatment of gout. He knows he has taken 5 dose units, and that the total course is a maximum of 6 mg. What is the maximum number of doses you can prescribe during his admission?
1 dose unit
3 dose units
6 dose units
7 dose units
8 dose units
On taking a medication history, your patient tells you he is currently on a course of colchicine 500 micrograms four times a day for the treatment of gout. He knows he has taken 5 dose units, and that the total course is a maximum of 6 mg. What is the maximum number of doses you can prescribe during his admission?
1 dose unit
3 dose units
6 dose units
7 dose units
8 dose units
8 OF 10
Your patient is on a sodium restricted diet. He is currently prescribed intravenous meropenem 1 g three times a day (sodium content 3.9 mmol/g), and soluble 500 mg paracetamol tablets, 1 g four times a day (sodium 16.9 mmol/tablet). Which ONE of the following is CORRECT for the number of mmol/day of sodium he is receiving from his medicines?
66 mmol/day
72 mmol/day
79 mmol/day
139 mmol/day
149 mmol/day
Given that the bioavailability for oral digoxin tablets is 0.7, how much intravenous digoxin would be required to replace an oral dose of 250 micrograms?
125 micrograms
175 micrograms
187.5 micrograms
250 micrograms
350 micrograms
Given that the bioavailability for oral digoxin tablets is 0.7, how much intravenous digoxin would be required to replace an oral dose of 250 micrograms?
125 micrograms
175 micrograms
187.5 micrograms
250 micrograms
350 micrograms
The elimination half-life (t1/2) is a measure of the time taken to reduce the plasma concentration of a drug by 50%. In a patient with normal renal function, doxycycline has a t1/2 of approximately 20 hours (18-22 hours), how long will it take for most (i.e. more than 95%) of the drug to be eliminated from the body?
20 hours
40 hours
60 hours
80 hours
100 hours
The elimination half-life (t1/2) is a measure of the time taken to reduce the plasma concentration of a drug by 50%. In a patient with normal renal function, doxycycline has a t1/2 of approximately 20 hours (18-22 hours), how long will it take for most (i.e. more than 95%) of the drug to be eliminated from the body?
20 hours
40 hours
60 hours
80 hours
100 hours
