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ATC2336 > PT3 > Flashcards

PT3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is mode A and C for SSR?

A

A - ID
C - altitude

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2
Q

What is the wavelength for ILS-band

A

2,7 meter to 2,67 meter (108.100-111.975 mHz)

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3
Q

True or false - APP radar uses longer wavelength compared to Area radar

A

False

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4
Q

What is the frequency of a wave

A

Cycles per second

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5
Q

when do you need to use SELCAL?

A

Around 200 nm away from antenna when flying oceanic

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6
Q

What is the frequency if the wavelength is 2,5 meter?

A

120 mHz

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7
Q

True or false - optimum frequencies for HF in the oceanic FIRs varies on a daily basis

A

True

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8
Q

What are used for navigation in air traffic?

A

VOR, DME, NDB

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9
Q

True or false - area radar uses longer wavelengths compared to APP

A

True

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10
Q

Are frequencies in HF only Line of sight?

A

No

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11
Q

What is used for horizontal distances: RVR, Rwy length and visibility

A

In meters

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12
Q

Does vertical speed indicator take information from both static and pitot or just static?

A

Only static port

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13
Q

On collision heading, what heading do both aircraft have to turn?

A

To the right

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14
Q

What is ISA standard pressure?

A

1013,25 hPa

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15
Q

Does all SVFR need air traffic control?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Air traffic control is split into which 3?

A

Area, approach and tower

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17
Q

What indicates an alerting phase?

A

Not landed within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing

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18
Q

Who can call “distress traffic ended”?

A

Only ATS unit controlling

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19
Q

Within class C and D, when does a clearance to VFR flights NOT imply any form of separation?

A

C - between VFR flights; and
D - between IFR and VFR flights or between VFR flights

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20
Q

Except when t/o and landing, VFR flights shall not fly below what, over congested areas of cities, towns or settlements?

A

300m(1000ft) above highest obstacle within radius of 600m of aircraft

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21
Q

When do you provide approach control service?

A

For all arriving and departing aircraft

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22
Q

True or false - ICAO members are encouraged to give notifications if they are not in compliance with recommended practices?

A

True

23
Q

With what three parts is the AIP built up?

A

GEN
ENR
AD

24
Q

Under what conditions can you fly IFR?

A

IMC and VMC

25
Q

Why is clear ice such a problem in aviation?

A

It is very heavy and can effect aircraft controls and surfaces

26
Q

What does weight act through on an aircraft?

A

Center of Gravity

27
Q

What does lift work through?

A

Center of pressure

28
Q

What does standby compass onboard an aircraft point towards?

A

Magnetic north

29
Q

What is the biggest different between flaps and slats?

A

Slats increase the critical angle of attack and flaps increase lift

30
Q

What are speed brakes for?

A

Speed brakes are used to increase drag

31
Q

The altimeter always indicates vertical distance based on…?

A

The instrument sub-scale (Kollsman window)

32
Q

The position of the Center of Gravity on an aircraft depends on..

A

Distribution of aircraft mass and load

33
Q

In the event that the control column is moved forward, what happens to elevators?

A

They move downwards

34
Q

What is the flap setting for t/o?

A

10-15 degrees

35
Q

What can you expect, if a pilot reports that his/hers speed brakes/spoilers are inoperative?

A
  • A normal approach, since you don’t use speed brakes for the approach.
  • longer roll out due to reduced breaking (longer rwy occupancy time)
  • the risk of hot brakes
36
Q

Getting close to a stall, the point which a boundary layer separates from surface is called?

A

Separation point

37
Q

True or false - the pitot/static system is absolutely critical during flight and the are numerous independent systems

A

True

38
Q

Why do airlines change from IAS to Mach when climbing above a certain FL?

A

To make sure that no parts of the aircraft become supersonic

39
Q

What is difference between anti and de-icing?

A

Anti icing is protection against future snow and ice, de-icing is removal of existing

40
Q

According to the Demand-control model, what combination induces high levels of stress and fatigue?

A

High demand and low sense of control

41
Q

True or false - You can issue traffic information to a VFR flight based on surveillance without prior identification and notifications to the pilot?

A

False

42
Q

What is it to provide information on collision hazards between persons and aircraft on maneuvering area (uncontrolled aerodome)?

A

Air traffic service

43
Q

Authorization for an aircraft to proceed under conditions specified by an air traffic control unit” is a clearance or instruction?

A

Clearance

44
Q

What is the difference between clearance and instructions?

A

Clearance is a condition and instruction is specific

45
Q

At what time do you need to submit flightplan during flight?

A

10 minute prior

46
Q

If you fly over a DME in FL180, what will it read?

A

About 3 nm

47
Q

How many feet are there on 1 nm?

A

6076 feet pr nm

48
Q

An aircraft flying 4,75 nm/min, what is ground speed?

A

285 kts

49
Q

What is the frequency for RK NDB?

A

368 KHz

50
Q

Distance From equator to 01.10’ N?

A

70 nm

51
Q

In adiabatic process, what happens to the energy?

A

It maintains the same

52
Q

Do you have to file a flight plan when crossing FIR?

A

Yes

53
Q

True or false - Speed control is used to maintain separation?

A

True

54
Q

When do we provide alerting service?

A

All aircraft in controlled airspace

ATC2336 (17 decks)

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