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FSBPT > PT Content Master App > Flashcards

PT Content Master App Flashcards

1
Q

Which term is used to describe the outer layer of the cardiac tissue which protects the surface of the heart against trauma/infection?

A

epicardium

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2
Q

A therapist instructs a pt with COPD in pursed lip breathing; the purpose is to:

A

decrease respiratory rate

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3
Q

How many breaths/min when rescue breathing on an infant?

A

12-20

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4
Q

Pt in cardiac rehab is clinically stable, independent with self-monitoring, and no longer requires ECG, this is which phase?

A

III

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5
Q

Continuous adventitious very high-pitched wheeze that can be heard with inspiration and expiration: which breath sound?

A

stridor

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6
Q

Korotkoff’s sound that is assoc with DP?

A

Phase IV

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7
Q

Most appropriate position to begin practicing diaphragmatic breathing?

A

sitting in bed, trunk at 45 degrees

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8
Q 
Which medical condition would be an absolute contraindication for beginning cardiac rehabilitation?
MI
bypass sx
PVD
thrombophlebitis
A

thrombo-is inflammation of a vein caused by a clot

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9
Q

what is the trendelenburg position?

A

bottom of bed inclined to about 45 degrees

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10
Q

which valve prevents blood from returning to the R ventricle?

A

pulmonic

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11
Q

Which period of the cardiac cycle includes emptying of blood from the atria to the ventricles?

A

atrial systole

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12
Q

Which position for drainage of the superior segments of the posterior lung lobes?

A

prone, pillow under stomach

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13
Q

Where do the hands go for diaphragmatic breathing practice?

A

non-dominant over sternum, dominant over abdominals

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14
Q

The borders of the femoral triangle

A

Sartorius, adductor longus, inguinal lig

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15
Q

What can caffeine, emotional stress, and smoking increase the heart’s susceptibility to?

A

PVCs

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16
Q

How many times/day after surgery should a pt use an incentive spirometer?

A

3-4

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17
Q

What is the vital capacity of an adult?

A

4-5,000 mL

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18
Q

Normal training range for people (Heart rate)

A

60-90%

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19
Q

After a therapist activates the emergency response system and determines an unresponsive pt is not breathing, what should he/she do?

A

2 breaths, then check pulse

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20
Q

Which cardiac measure would most closely approximate the volume associated with a pt’s venous return?

A

Cardiac output

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21
Q

A lesion of C4 would most likely be associated with weakness of which muscle?

A

levator scap

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22
Q

Examples of antiepileptic agents? 2 Ds, 1 K

A

Depakote, Dilantin, Klonopin

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23
Q

which brain structure controls body temp, sleep, and appetite?

A

hypothalamus

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24
Q

Corticospinal tract lesion that causes extension in the trunk and extremities

A

decerebrate

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25
Q

PNF: ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis is what stage of motor control?

A

Controlled mobility

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26
Q

supraspinatus is innervated by which peripheral nerve?

A

suprascapular

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27
Q

The use of reflex inhibiting postures to influences abnormal tone and reflexes is part of which model?

A

NDT/Bobath

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28
Q

Mass movement patterns is assoc with which model?

A

PNF

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29
Q

Medial leg and great toe: which dermatome?

A

L4

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30
Q

The 5 primary risk factors for CVA

A

Heart disease, HTN, DM, smoking, TIAs

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31
Q

4 secondary risk factors for CVA

A

Cholesterol, obesity, inactive, ETOH

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32
Q

ALS progresses in which direction?

A

distal to proximal

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33
Q

Which is a PNF technique that is passive and used to decrease hypertonia?

A

rhymical rotation-rotate limb around long axis

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34
Q

Plantar flexion response associated with L4-L5 is seen with which DTR?

A

tibialis posterior

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35
Q

which structure in the dienceph. is responsible for receiving information from the ANS an assisting in hormone regulation?

A

hypothalamust

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36
Q

Which dermatome is at the occiput?

A

C2

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37
Q

The use of overflow is associated with which model?

A

Brunnstrom

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38
Q

skipping and small buttons at which age?

A

5-8

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39
Q

Which nerve root would correspond to a muscle related bladder dysfunction?

A

S4 is associated with the bladder and rectum

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40
Q

What is the LE position for D2 extension?

A

pelvic depression, hip extension, adduction, ER, knee flexion or extension, ankle PF and inversion

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41
Q

What defines the terminal stance phase?

A

Stance limb’s heel rises until other foot touches the ground

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42
Q

What is steppage?

A

lifts feet and toes by excessive hip and knee flexion

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43
Q

When measuring wrist flex/ext, the axis of the goni is positioned on the lateral aspect of the wrist over the _________, when measuring ulnar/radial deviation, it is placed over the _________. (carpal bones)

A

triquetrum, capitate

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44
Q

5 medial rotators of the hip

A

TFL, glut med, glut min, pectineus, adductor longus

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45
Q

6 lateral rotators of the hip

A

glut max, obt. ext, obt. int, piriformis, gemelli, and sartorius

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46
Q

What is normal hip adduction ROM?

A

0-30

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47
Q

10 degrees of supination is the loose packed position for which joint?

A

distal radioulnar

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48
Q

Loos packed position of the proximal radioulnar joint?

A

70 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination

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49
Q

A young male with is grade II MCL sprain wants to know when he will likely be able to return to competition.

A

4-8 weeks

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50
Q

convex/concave rule for the patellofemoral

A

convex patella moving on a concave femur

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51
Q

Normal Q angle for males and females

A

13 degrees male, 18 female

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52
Q

What is the first muscle typically affected with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Abductor pollicis brevis

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53
Q

What happens to FRC, FEV1, TLC, FVC, RV and VC with emphysema?

A

Decreased VC, FEV1, and FVC

Increased TLC, RV, and FRC

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54
Q 
Normal ROM:
Wrist extension
Wrist flexion
Shoulder extension
Shoulder medial rotation
A

Wrist extension: 70
Wrist flexion: 80
Shoulder extension: 60
Shoulder medial rotation: 70

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55
Q

Normal anteversion value in an adult?

A

8-15

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56
Q

What is the close packed position for the distal RU joint?

A

5 degrees supination

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57
Q

hip flexion ROM for normal gait?

A

30 degrees

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58
Q

Which bony landmark would be most appropriate to use when aligning the axis of the goniometer when measuring lateral flexion of the thoracic and lumbar spines? Where should the moveable arm align?

A

Spinous process of S1

C7

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59
Q

What is the position of a Homan’s sign?

A

Knee is extended and ankle is passively dorsiflexed, pain in the calf

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60
Q

How long until return to athletic competition for grade I MCL injury?

A

1-3 wks

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61
Q

Normal wrist pron/sup values

A

80 for both

62
Q

Normal radial/ulnar deviation values

A

20 radial

30 ulnar

63
Q 
Thumb CMC ROM:
Abduction
Flexion
Extension
Opposition
A

Abduction: 70
Flexion: 15
Extension: 20
Opposition: tip to base of 5th

64
Q

Thumb MP flexion

A

50

65
Q

Thumb IP flexion

A

80

66
Q

Digits 2-5:

MP flexion and hyper extension

A

90 and 45

67
Q

Digits 2-5
Prox IP flexion:
Distal IP flexion and hyperextension

A

0-100
90
10

68
Q 
Ankle ROM:
DF
PF
IN
EV
A

DF: 20
PF: 50
IN: 35
EV: 15

69
Q 
Cervical spine:
Flexion
Extension
Lateral Flexion
Rotation
A

Flexion: 45
Extension: 45
Lateral Flexion: 45
Rotation: 60

70
Q 
Thoracolumbar ROM:
Flexion
Extension
Lateral Flexion
Rotation
A

Flexion: 80
Extension:25
Lateral Flexion: 25
Rotation 45

71
Q

Patrick’s tests also know as _______, if positive, may be indicative of 3 types of abnormalities

A

FABER: iliopsoas, SI joint, or hip joint abnormalities

72
Q

What is the brush test?

A

for effusion in the knee

73
Q

A Milwaukee orthosis is usually used for what?

A

scoliosis

74
Q

Demographics for OA

A

Older female

75
Q

6 risk factors for pressure ulcers

A

impaired cognition, poor nutrition, incontinence, decreased lean body mass, altered sensation, infection

76
Q

What is the anticipated deformity of a burn covering the wrist and hand?

A

flexion at the wrist, MP extension

77
Q

Which type of wound dressing has a high absorptive capacity and would be appropriate to pack a tunneling infected wound with heavy exudate?

A

Alginates

78
Q

The Wagner Ulcer Grade Scale: 0-5

A deep ulcer with ostemyelitis would be documented as which grade on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification Scale?

A

0-intact
1-superficial to subcutaneous tissue
2-ulcers extend into tendon, bone, capsule
3-deep ulcer with osteomyelitis or abscess
4-gangrene of the forefoot or digit(s)
5-gangrene of midfoot/hindfoot

Grade 3

79
Q

Which wound type is most appropriately treated with an alginate dressing?

A

Infected wound with excessive drainage

80
Q

Which topical agent used in burn care is bacteriocidal and painful when applied?

A

Nitrofurazone

81
Q

Which type of dressing would be most appropriate for a venous ulcer with moderate serosangineous exudate

A

Hydrocolloid-versatile, can be used with granular or necrotic, partial or full-thickness wounds.

82
Q

Which 2 types of dressing offer moderate absorption properties?

A

Foam and hydrocolloid

83
Q

What is a 3 point spline most appropriate for in the the LE for preventing contractures (which joint)

A

knee

84
Q

Which broad-spectrum topical agent used in the treatment of burns can cause discoloration making visual assessment difficult?

A

Silver nitrate

85
Q

Which 2 wound dressings require secondary dressings?

A

Hydrogels and alginates-because neither has adhesive properties

86
Q

Most consistent clinical presentation of an arterial wound?

A

smooth, well defined edges, decreased skin temp and pedal pulses

87
Q

What are 2 relative contraindications for treatment of lymphedema?

A

deep tissue massage, long stretch bandaging.

88
Q

Which type of wound dressing is available in semipermeable and occlusive forms?

A

Hydrocolloid

89
Q

What are the potential side effects of hydrotherapy? (2)

A

decreased blood pressure, macerated surrounding skin

90
Q

3 topical agents used in burn care that are painful

A

Nitrofurazone, mafenide acetate, povidone-iodine

91
Q

Which type of wound dressing comprised of natural material extracted from seaweed?

A

alginate

92
Q

Which form a debridement should not be utilized for management of infected wounds?

A

autolytic-includes hydrogels, hydrocolloids, alginates, and films, results in a moist wound environment

93
Q

Hydrogels typically used with what type of wound?

A

superficial/partial thickness with minimal drainage

94
Q

A side effect associated with overactive bladder agents but not urinary infective agents?

A

pulmonary reactions-report to physician!

95
Q

Blood pressure, rage, fear, and sexual behavior are under ANS control of which endocrine gland?

A

hypothalamus

96
Q

Normal range for weight gain during a healthy pregnancy?

A

25-35 lbs

97
Q

Ipecac is which type of drug?

A

emetic agent

98
Q

Approx how many quarts of blood are processed by the kidneys during a 24 hour period?

A

200

99
Q 
Normal GFR?
Stage 1
2
3
4
5
Stages of kidney disease according to the National Kidney Foundation
A 
Stage 1: 90 mL/min or greater (damage with normal GFR)
2 60-89
3 30-59
4 15-29
5 <15
100
Q

A pt is taking meclizine. Which type of drug, how will it interfere with therapy session?

A

antiemetic-usually for post-op nausea/vomiting

drowsiness

101
Q

Mitotic inhibitors, used for cancer, are also know as what?

A

plant alkaloid agents

102
Q

Definition of affective disorders

A

disturbances in mood eg bipolar, depression

103
Q

Which pituitary hormone promotes estrogen and progesterone synthesis in females?

A

luteinizing hormone

104
Q

Which pharmacological agent can be used for both depression and anxiety?

A

SSRIs

105
Q

Vitamin K deficiency is likely to be a diagnosis associated with which organ?

A

liver

106
Q

Oliguria is characterized by a 24 hour urine output of less than _______ mL. Anuria is less than _______ mL

A

400

100

107
Q

Which is the “master gland” of the endocrine system?

A

pituitary

108
Q

Symptoms that spread proximally, burning, and chronic pain are most likely related to:

A

reflex sympathetic dystrophy (CRPS)

109
Q

The leading cause of cancer related death for both men and women is which type?

A

lung

110
Q

What are the 3 subcategories of antiemetic agents?

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonists, anticholinergics, antihistamines

111
Q

Which cardiopulmonary factor typically increases 40-50% during pregnancy?

A

Blood volume

112
Q

Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

113
Q

Which muscle do overactive bladder agents affect?

A

detrusor

114
Q

Irrational fear of needles

A

belonephobia

115
Q

Kidney failure secondary to extended drug therapies is the leading cause of death for patients with:

A

HIV

116
Q

What is an active form of Vitamine D released by the kidneys?

A

calcitriol

117
Q

Which medication would likely be used for the management of a patient with helicobacter pylori infection?

A

prilosec

118
Q

Radioactive iodine is used to treat what?

A

hyperthyroidism

119
Q

which agent used to treat bipolar requires monitoring for toxicity and may result in osteoporosis long-term?

A

lithium

120
Q

The kidneys regulate blood pressure by excreting which sodium compound?

A

sodium chloride

121
Q

Lethargy, black tarry stool, and diarrhea are common side effects of which agent?

A

emetic

122
Q

Which oncology related pharmacologic agent binds DNA strands together to prevent replication?

A

Alkylating agents

123
Q

Which 2 systems work together to maintain homeostasis in the body?

A

endocrien and nervous

124
Q

Which adrenal hormone is known to have anti-inflammatory effects when present in large quantities?

A

glucocorticoids (cortisol)

125
Q

Which hormone secreted by the ovaries targets the mammary glands in females?

A

estrogen

126
Q

Which psych. disorder is characterized by physical complaints of a neurological basis, such as paralysis, paresthesia, and deafness, with no underlying cause

A

conversion (restricted to motor and sensory) somatization is GI sx x2, pain x 4, sexual,

127
Q

Androgens are often used to manage what condition?

A

BPH

128
Q

Which abdominal organ acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland?

A

pancreas

129
Q

Diastasis recti is ____ finger widths apart

A

2

130
Q

Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by targeting the _________

A

liver

131
Q

Abdominal aoritic aneurism will be felt/heard in which quadrant?

A

L upper

132
Q

Which hormone affects body systems by increasing storage of fat, protein, and carbs?

A

insulin

133
Q

Which agents used in oncological management are not cytotoxic but instead facilitate the patient’s own immune response to destroy malignant tissue?

A

biologic response modifier agents interferons (Intron A), interleukin-2 (Proleukin), and monoclonal antibodies (Avastin)

134
Q

max amount of O2 that can be effectively delivered per minute by a nasal cannula?

A

6 L/min

135
Q

The average adult wheelchair armrest height is _____ inches above the chair seat

A

9

136
Q

sequence of 3 point gait pattern

A

advancement of AD, followed by affected LE, then unaffected

137
Q

Appropriate arm cuff position for well fitting forearm crutches would be ____ in below the olecranon process

A

1 inch

138
Q

Ratio on:off time for mechanical compression?

A

3:1

139
Q

Cold bath temperature range

A

55-64

140
Q

How much inflation pressure for compression treatment for UE?

A

45mmHg

141
Q

Max depth of tissue heating with 1MHz?

A

5cm (3 MHx is 1-2 cm deep)

142
Q

How much neck flexion should be present for cerical traction?

A

25-35 degrees flexion

143
Q

Assuming a pt is making progress over sessions of biofeedback, what should the therapist do with the electrodes and sensitivity setting?

A

move them further apart and increase the sensitivity setting-will require muscles to be in a more relaxed state

144
Q

The 4 positive ions used with ionto?

A

lidocaine, copper sulfate, magnesium sulfate, zinc oxide

145
Q

What should be applied last when donning sterile gear? gloves or mask?

A

gloves

146
Q

The V sections of the ADA?

A 
I Employment
II Public Services
III Public Accommodations
IV Telecommunications
V Miscellaneous
147
Q

What are standard precautions a combination of ?

A

Universal and body substance isolation precautions-an update to the old universal precautions

148
Q

What are the 2 types of managed care health insurance systems. What is it?

A

HMP and PPO, subscribers utilized health care providers that are contracted by insurance company at a lower cost

149
Q

Which system has co-payments usually 80/20%?

A

Fee for service

150
Q

Fee for service vs managed care: which emphasizes education and prevention?

A

Managed care

151
Q

What is the maximum score possible on the Mini Mental State Exam?

A

30

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