PT Content Master App Flashcards
Which term is used to describe the outer layer of the cardiac tissue which protects the surface of the heart against trauma/infection?
epicardium
A therapist instructs a pt with COPD in pursed lip breathing; the purpose is to:
decrease respiratory rate
How many breaths/min when rescue breathing on an infant?
12-20
Pt in cardiac rehab is clinically stable, independent with self-monitoring, and no longer requires ECG, this is which phase?
III
Continuous adventitious very high-pitched wheeze that can be heard with inspiration and expiration: which breath sound?
stridor
Korotkoff’s sound that is assoc with DP?
Phase IV
Most appropriate position to begin practicing diaphragmatic breathing?
sitting in bed, trunk at 45 degrees
Which medical condition would be an absolute contraindication for beginning cardiac rehabilitation? MI bypass sx PVD thrombophlebitis
thrombo-is inflammation of a vein caused by a clot
what is the trendelenburg position?
bottom of bed inclined to about 45 degrees
which valve prevents blood from returning to the R ventricle?
pulmonic
Which period of the cardiac cycle includes emptying of blood from the atria to the ventricles?
atrial systole
Which position for drainage of the superior segments of the posterior lung lobes?
prone, pillow under stomach
Where do the hands go for diaphragmatic breathing practice?
non-dominant over sternum, dominant over abdominals
The borders of the femoral triangle
Sartorius, adductor longus, inguinal lig
What can caffeine, emotional stress, and smoking increase the heart’s susceptibility to?
PVCs
How many times/day after surgery should a pt use an incentive spirometer?
3-4
What is the vital capacity of an adult?
4-5,000 mL
Normal training range for people (Heart rate)
60-90%
After a therapist activates the emergency response system and determines an unresponsive pt is not breathing, what should he/she do?
2 breaths, then check pulse
Which cardiac measure would most closely approximate the volume associated with a pt’s venous return?
Cardiac output
A lesion of C4 would most likely be associated with weakness of which muscle?
levator scap
Examples of antiepileptic agents? 2 Ds, 1 K
Depakote, Dilantin, Klonopin
which brain structure controls body temp, sleep, and appetite?
hypothalamus
Corticospinal tract lesion that causes extension in the trunk and extremities
decerebrate
PNF: ability to move within a weight bearing position or rotate around a long axis is what stage of motor control?
Controlled mobility
supraspinatus is innervated by which peripheral nerve?
suprascapular
The use of reflex inhibiting postures to influences abnormal tone and reflexes is part of which model?
NDT/Bobath
Mass movement patterns is assoc with which model?
PNF
Medial leg and great toe: which dermatome?
L4
The 5 primary risk factors for CVA
Heart disease, HTN, DM, smoking, TIAs
4 secondary risk factors for CVA
Cholesterol, obesity, inactive, ETOH
ALS progresses in which direction?
distal to proximal
Which is a PNF technique that is passive and used to decrease hypertonia?
rhymical rotation-rotate limb around long axis
Plantar flexion response associated with L4-L5 is seen with which DTR?
tibialis posterior
which structure in the dienceph. is responsible for receiving information from the ANS an assisting in hormone regulation?
hypothalamust
Which dermatome is at the occiput?
C2
The use of overflow is associated with which model?
Brunnstrom
skipping and small buttons at which age?
5-8
Which nerve root would correspond to a muscle related bladder dysfunction?
S4 is associated with the bladder and rectum
What is the LE position for D2 extension?
pelvic depression, hip extension, adduction, ER, knee flexion or extension, ankle PF and inversion
What defines the terminal stance phase?
Stance limb’s heel rises until other foot touches the ground
What is steppage?
lifts feet and toes by excessive hip and knee flexion
When measuring wrist flex/ext, the axis of the goni is positioned on the lateral aspect of the wrist over the _________, when measuring ulnar/radial deviation, it is placed over the _________. (carpal bones)
triquetrum, capitate
5 medial rotators of the hip
TFL, glut med, glut min, pectineus, adductor longus
6 lateral rotators of the hip
glut max, obt. ext, obt. int, piriformis, gemelli, and sartorius
What is normal hip adduction ROM?
0-30
10 degrees of supination is the loose packed position for which joint?
distal radioulnar
Loos packed position of the proximal radioulnar joint?
70 degrees flexion, 35 degrees supination
A young male with is grade II MCL sprain wants to know when he will likely be able to return to competition.
4-8 weeks
convex/concave rule for the patellofemoral
convex patella moving on a concave femur
Normal Q angle for males and females
13 degrees male, 18 female
What is the first muscle typically affected with carpal tunnel syndrome?
Abductor pollicis brevis
What happens to FRC, FEV1, TLC, FVC, RV and VC with emphysema?
Decreased VC, FEV1, and FVC
Increased TLC, RV, and FRC
Normal ROM: Wrist extension Wrist flexion Shoulder extension Shoulder medial rotation
Wrist extension: 70
Wrist flexion: 80
Shoulder extension: 60
Shoulder medial rotation: 70
Normal anteversion value in an adult?
8-15
What is the close packed position for the distal RU joint?
5 degrees supination
hip flexion ROM for normal gait?
30 degrees
Which bony landmark would be most appropriate to use when aligning the axis of the goniometer when measuring lateral flexion of the thoracic and lumbar spines? Where should the moveable arm align?
Spinous process of S1
C7
What is the position of a Homan’s sign?
Knee is extended and ankle is passively dorsiflexed, pain in the calf
How long until return to athletic competition for grade I MCL injury?
1-3 wks
Normal wrist pron/sup values
80 for both
Normal radial/ulnar deviation values
20 radial
30 ulnar
Thumb CMC ROM: Abduction Flexion Extension Opposition
Abduction: 70
Flexion: 15
Extension: 20
Opposition: tip to base of 5th
Thumb MP flexion
50
Thumb IP flexion
80
Digits 2-5:
MP flexion and hyper extension
90 and 45
Digits 2-5
Prox IP flexion:
Distal IP flexion and hyperextension
0-100
90
10
Ankle ROM: DF PF IN EV
DF: 20
PF: 50
IN: 35
EV: 15
Cervical spine: Flexion Extension Lateral Flexion Rotation
Flexion: 45
Extension: 45
Lateral Flexion: 45
Rotation: 60
Thoracolumbar ROM: Flexion Extension Lateral Flexion Rotation
Flexion: 80
Extension:25
Lateral Flexion: 25
Rotation 45
Patrick’s tests also know as _______, if positive, may be indicative of 3 types of abnormalities
FABER: iliopsoas, SI joint, or hip joint abnormalities
What is the brush test?
for effusion in the knee
A Milwaukee orthosis is usually used for what?
scoliosis
Demographics for OA
Older female
6 risk factors for pressure ulcers
impaired cognition, poor nutrition, incontinence, decreased lean body mass, altered sensation, infection
What is the anticipated deformity of a burn covering the wrist and hand?
flexion at the wrist, MP extension
Which type of wound dressing has a high absorptive capacity and would be appropriate to pack a tunneling infected wound with heavy exudate?
Alginates
The Wagner Ulcer Grade Scale: 0-5
A deep ulcer with ostemyelitis would be documented as which grade on the Wagner Ulcer Grade Classification Scale?
0-intact
1-superficial to subcutaneous tissue
2-ulcers extend into tendon, bone, capsule
3-deep ulcer with osteomyelitis or abscess
4-gangrene of the forefoot or digit(s)
5-gangrene of midfoot/hindfoot
Grade 3
Which wound type is most appropriately treated with an alginate dressing?
Infected wound with excessive drainage
Which topical agent used in burn care is bacteriocidal and painful when applied?
Nitrofurazone
Which type of dressing would be most appropriate for a venous ulcer with moderate serosangineous exudate
Hydrocolloid-versatile, can be used with granular or necrotic, partial or full-thickness wounds.
Which 2 types of dressing offer moderate absorption properties?
Foam and hydrocolloid
What is a 3 point spline most appropriate for in the the LE for preventing contractures (which joint)
knee
Which broad-spectrum topical agent used in the treatment of burns can cause discoloration making visual assessment difficult?
Silver nitrate
Which 2 wound dressings require secondary dressings?
Hydrogels and alginates-because neither has adhesive properties
Most consistent clinical presentation of an arterial wound?
smooth, well defined edges, decreased skin temp and pedal pulses
What are 2 relative contraindications for treatment of lymphedema?
deep tissue massage, long stretch bandaging.
Which type of wound dressing is available in semipermeable and occlusive forms?
Hydrocolloid
What are the potential side effects of hydrotherapy? (2)
decreased blood pressure, macerated surrounding skin
3 topical agents used in burn care that are painful
Nitrofurazone, mafenide acetate, povidone-iodine
Which type of wound dressing comprised of natural material extracted from seaweed?
alginate
Which form a debridement should not be utilized for management of infected wounds?
autolytic-includes hydrogels, hydrocolloids, alginates, and films, results in a moist wound environment
Hydrogels typically used with what type of wound?
superficial/partial thickness with minimal drainage
A side effect associated with overactive bladder agents but not urinary infective agents?
pulmonary reactions-report to physician!
Blood pressure, rage, fear, and sexual behavior are under ANS control of which endocrine gland?
hypothalamus
Normal range for weight gain during a healthy pregnancy?
25-35 lbs
Ipecac is which type of drug?
emetic agent
Approx how many quarts of blood are processed by the kidneys during a 24 hour period?
200
Normal GFR? Stage 1 2 3 4 5 Stages of kidney disease according to the National Kidney Foundation
Stage 1: 90 mL/min or greater (damage with normal GFR) 2 60-89 3 30-59 4 15-29 5 <15
A pt is taking meclizine. Which type of drug, how will it interfere with therapy session?
antiemetic-usually for post-op nausea/vomiting
drowsiness
Mitotic inhibitors, used for cancer, are also know as what?
plant alkaloid agents
Definition of affective disorders
disturbances in mood eg bipolar, depression
Which pituitary hormone promotes estrogen and progesterone synthesis in females?
luteinizing hormone
Which pharmacological agent can be used for both depression and anxiety?
SSRIs
Vitamin K deficiency is likely to be a diagnosis associated with which organ?
liver
Oliguria is characterized by a 24 hour urine output of less than _______ mL. Anuria is less than _______ mL
400
100
Which is the “master gland” of the endocrine system?
pituitary
Symptoms that spread proximally, burning, and chronic pain are most likely related to:
reflex sympathetic dystrophy (CRPS)
The leading cause of cancer related death for both men and women is which type?
lung
What are the 3 subcategories of antiemetic agents?
5-HT3 receptor antagonists, anticholinergics, antihistamines
Which cardiopulmonary factor typically increases 40-50% during pregnancy?
Blood volume
Which hormones are secreted by the adrenal medulla?
norepinephrine and epinephrine
Which muscle do overactive bladder agents affect?
detrusor
Irrational fear of needles
belonephobia
Kidney failure secondary to extended drug therapies is the leading cause of death for patients with:
HIV
What is an active form of Vitamine D released by the kidneys?
calcitriol
Which medication would likely be used for the management of a patient with helicobacter pylori infection?
prilosec
Radioactive iodine is used to treat what?
hyperthyroidism
which agent used to treat bipolar requires monitoring for toxicity and may result in osteoporosis long-term?
lithium
The kidneys regulate blood pressure by excreting which sodium compound?
sodium chloride
Lethargy, black tarry stool, and diarrhea are common side effects of which agent?
emetic
Which oncology related pharmacologic agent binds DNA strands together to prevent replication?
Alkylating agents
Which 2 systems work together to maintain homeostasis in the body?
endocrien and nervous
Which adrenal hormone is known to have anti-inflammatory effects when present in large quantities?
glucocorticoids (cortisol)
Which hormone secreted by the ovaries targets the mammary glands in females?
estrogen
Which psych. disorder is characterized by physical complaints of a neurological basis, such as paralysis, paresthesia, and deafness, with no underlying cause
conversion (restricted to motor and sensory) somatization is GI sx x2, pain x 4, sexual,
Androgens are often used to manage what condition?
BPH
Which abdominal organ acts as both endocrine and exocrine gland?
pancreas
Diastasis recti is ____ finger widths apart
2
Glucagon increases blood glucose levels by targeting the _________
liver
Abdominal aoritic aneurism will be felt/heard in which quadrant?
L upper
Which hormone affects body systems by increasing storage of fat, protein, and carbs?
insulin
Which agents used in oncological management are not cytotoxic but instead facilitate the patient’s own immune response to destroy malignant tissue?
biologic response modifier agents interferons (Intron A), interleukin-2 (Proleukin), and monoclonal antibodies (Avastin)
max amount of O2 that can be effectively delivered per minute by a nasal cannula?
6 L/min
The average adult wheelchair armrest height is _____ inches above the chair seat
9
sequence of 3 point gait pattern
advancement of AD, followed by affected LE, then unaffected
Appropriate arm cuff position for well fitting forearm crutches would be ____ in below the olecranon process
1 inch
Ratio on:off time for mechanical compression?
3:1
Cold bath temperature range
55-64
How much inflation pressure for compression treatment for UE?
45mmHg
Max depth of tissue heating with 1MHz?
5cm (3 MHx is 1-2 cm deep)
How much neck flexion should be present for cerical traction?
25-35 degrees flexion
Assuming a pt is making progress over sessions of biofeedback, what should the therapist do with the electrodes and sensitivity setting?
move them further apart and increase the sensitivity setting-will require muscles to be in a more relaxed state
The 4 positive ions used with ionto?
lidocaine, copper sulfate, magnesium sulfate, zinc oxide
What should be applied last when donning sterile gear? gloves or mask?
gloves
The V sections of the ADA?
I Employment II Public Services III Public Accommodations IV Telecommunications V Miscellaneous
What are standard precautions a combination of ?
Universal and body substance isolation precautions-an update to the old universal precautions
What are the 2 types of managed care health insurance systems. What is it?
HMP and PPO, subscribers utilized health care providers that are contracted by insurance company at a lower cost
Which system has co-payments usually 80/20%?
Fee for service
Fee for service vs managed care: which emphasizes education and prevention?
Managed care
What is the maximum score possible on the Mini Mental State Exam?
30
