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FSBPT > Nueromuscular/Nervous Systems > Flashcards

Nueromuscular/Nervous Systems Flashcards

0
Q

If a pt with a R hemisphere stroke with pusher syndrome, which way would they push

A

To the left

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1
Q

What is dyspraxia?

A

incoordination, associated with developmental coordination disorder. Will have trouble maintaining balance in environments with changing surfaces and obstacles such as in a crowded hallway.

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2
Q

The Forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain are also known as the:

A

Prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon

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3
Q

The prosencephalon is divided into which 2 parts, which are further divided into which parts?

A

Telencephalon: Cerebrum, hippocampus, basal ganglia, amygdala.
Diencephalon: Thalamus, hypo, sub, epi

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4
Q

The mesencephalon is further divided into which 2 parts, which are further divided into:

A

Tectum: Superior and inferior colliculi
Tegmentum: Cerebral aqueduct, periaqueductal gray, retinacular formation, substantia nigra, red nucleus.

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5
Q

The Rhombencephalon is divided into what 2 parts, which are further divided into what parts?

A

Metencephalon: Cerebellum, pons
Myelencephalon: Medulla oblongata

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6
Q

Processing of olfaction occurs in which lobe?

A

Temporal

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7
Q

Inattention occurs if which lobe is damaged?

A

frontal

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8
Q

Agressive behaviors occur if which lobe is damaged?

A

Temporal

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9
Q

Dressing apraxia, constructional apraxia, anosognosia occurs if which lobe is damaged? Dominant or non-dominant side?

A

Parietal, non-dominant, typically R

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10
Q

Judgment of distance occurs in which lobe?

A

Occipital

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11
Q

Taste processing occurs in which lobe?

A

Parietal

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12
Q

Learning deficits occur if which lobe is damaged?

A

Temporal

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13
Q

Agraphia, alexia, agnosia occur if which lobe is damaged? dominant or non-dominant side?

A

Parietal, dominant, usually L

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14
Q

Facial recognition occurs in which lobe?

A

temporal

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15
Q

Which lobe provides meaning for objects?

A

Parietal

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16
Q

Which lobe enables humans to interpret other peoples’ emotions and reactions?

A

Temporal-rear

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17
Q

What does the calcarine sulcus separate?

A

Occipital lobe into superior and inferior halves

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18
Q

What does the sylvian fissure separate?

A

Anterior portion separates the temporal and frontal lobes, posterior separates the the temporal and parietal lobes

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19
Q

what does the sulcus of Rolondo separate?

A

Also called the central sulcus, separates the frontal and parietal lobes laterally

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20
Q

What gray matter masses compose the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra, subthalamic nuclei.

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21
Q

The thalamus receives information from all sensory pathways except which tract?

A

Olfactory

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22
Q

Damage to the thalamus can produce thalamic pain on which side of the body relative to the lesion?

A

Contralateral

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23
Q

what is the epithalamus involved in?

A

Contains the pineal gland, melatonis, internal clock, assoc. with limbic system and basal ganglia too.

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24
Q

Main function of the midbrain?

A

Connects forebrain and hindbrain so large relay area. Reflex center for visual, auditory, and tactile reflexes.

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25
Q

Damage to one side of the cerebellum with produce impairments on which side of the body?

A

Ipsilateral

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26
Q

Cranial nerves ___ through ___ originate from the pons

A

V through VIII

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27
Q

Which artery is the most common site of a CVA?

A

MCA

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28
Q

Occlusion to which cerebral artery results in loss of bowel/bladder?

A

ACA

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29
Q

Apraxia can occur with occlusion to which cerebral artery?

A

MCA (because it supplies the basal ganglia)

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30
Q

Hemiballismus occurs if which cerebral artery is occluded?

A

PCA-subthalamic nucleus

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31
Q

Memory impairment can occur if this cerebral artery is damaged:

A

PCA-inferior temporal lobe

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32
Q

Contralater sensory loss of face and UE and lesser LE can occur with which cerebral artery occlusion?

A

MCA

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33
Q

Locked in syndrome can result from an occlusion of which artery?

A

Vertebral-basilar

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34
Q

Alexia/dyslexia can occur from occlusion on which artery?

A

PCA

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35
Q

Neglect can occur with occlusion of which artery?

A

ACA

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36
Q

Thalamic pain syndrome can occur with occlusion to which artery?

A

PCA

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37
Q

The 2 parts of the brain the ACA supplies

A

Anterior frontal lobe

Medial surface of the parietal and frontal lobes (LE involvement)

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38
Q

6 parts of the brain the MCA supplies

A

1) Outer cerebrum
2) Basal ganglia
3) Post/ant internal capsule
4) Putamen
5) Pallidum
5) Lentiform nucleus

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39
Q

6 parts of the brain the PCA supplies

A

1) Part of the midbrain
2) Subthalamic nucleus
3) Basal nucleus
4) Thalamus
5) Inferior temporal lobe
6) Occipital and occiptoparietal cortices

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40
Q

The 2 most significant impairments with PCA occlusion are:

A

Thalamic pain syndrome and cortical blindness

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41
Q

Bilateral ACA occlusion will typically produce ___plegia, while bilateral MCA occlusion at the stem will typically produce ____plegia

A

1) paraplegia

2) hemiplegia

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42
Q

Brudzinki’s sign

A

Flexion of neck facilitates flexion of the hips and knees-for meningitis

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43
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

Pain with hip flexion combined with knee extension

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44
Q

What is sun-setting a sign of?

A

Hydrocephalus-downward deviation of the eyes

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45
Q

Fasciculus cuneatus

A

Ascending, sensory tract for trunk, neck, and UE proprioception, vibration, 2 point discrimination, and graphesthesia

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46
Q

Fasciculus gracilis

A

Ascending, sensory tract for trunk and LE proprio, vibration, 2 point discrimination, graphesthesia

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47
Q

Spinocerebellar tract, dorsal

A

Ascending, sensory, ipsilateral subconscious proprioception, tension in muscles, joint sense, posture of trunk and LE

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48
Q

Spinocerebellar tract, ventral

A

Ascending, sensory, some fibers cross then recross, ipsilateral proprio, muscle tension, joint sense, posture of the trunk, UE, LE

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49
Q

Spino-olivary tract

A

Ascending, from cutaneous and proprioceptive organs to the cerebellum

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50
Q

Spinoreticular tract

A

Afferent, for reticular formation, influences levels of consciousness

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51
Q

Spinotectal tract

A

Sensory, spinovisual reflexes, assists with eye movement toward stimulus

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52
Q

Spinothalamic tract, anterior

A

Light tough and pressure

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53
Q

Spinothalamic tract, lateral

A

pain, temp

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54
Q

Corticospinal tract, anterior

A

ipsilateral, voluntary, discrete, and skilled movements

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55
Q

Corticospinal tract, lateral

A

Contralateral, voluntary, movement

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56
Q

Reticulospinal tract

A

Extrapyramidal, motor, facilitation/inhibition of voluntary and reflex activity

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57
Q

Rubrospinal tract

A

extrapyramidal, motor, input of gross postural tone, facilitates activity of flexors, inhibits extensors

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58
Q

Tectospinal tract

A

Extrapyramidal motor, contralateral postural toen, associated with auditory and visual stimuli

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59
Q

Vestibulospinal tract

A

Extrapyramidal, ipsilateral gross postural adjustments, subsequent to head movements, facilitates extensor muscles, inhibits flexors. Damage results in significant paralysis, hypertonicity, and clasp-knife reaction.

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60
Q

Brown-Sequard’s Syndrome: which tract(s), contra or ipsi symptoms?

A

Corticospinal tract, spinothalamic tract, dorsal column, so ipsilateral paralysis and loss of vibratory sense, contra loss of pain and temp.

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61
Q

What is the difference between superficial and deep reflexes?

A

Superficial: A response to stimulation of receptors within the skin. The signal goes all the way to the brain, then has to descend motor tracts, making it a polysynaptic reflex, e.g. Babinski reflex
Deep: Reflex arc involving the spinal or brainstem segment that innervates the specific muscle.

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62
Q

Stereognosis vs Barognosis vs Graphesthesia

A

Barog: perceive the weight of different objects in hand.
Stereo: Identify an object without sight.
Graph: Identify a number or letter drawn on the skin without visual input.

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63
Q

The sensation of pain in response to a stimulus that would not normally produce pain?

A

Allodynia

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64
Q

Absence of pain while remaining conscious

A

Analgesia

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65
Q

Absence of touch sensation

A

Anesthesia

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66
Q

Constant, relentless, burning that develops after a peripheral nerve injury

A

Causalgia

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67
Q

Distortion of any of the senses, especially touch

A

Dysesthesia

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68
Q

Heightened sensation

A

Hyperesthesia

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69
Q

An extreme exaggerated response to pain

A

Hyperpathia

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70
Q

A diminished sensation of touch

A

Hypesthesia

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71
Q

Severe and multiple shock-like pains that radiate from a specific nerve distribution

A

Neuralgia

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72
Q

Loss of vibration sensation

A

Pallanesthesia

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73
Q

Abnormal sensations such as tingling, pins and needles or burning

A

paresthesia

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74
Q

Neurapraxia

A

No damage, typically a pressure injury, conduction block.

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75
Q

Axonotmesis

A

Reversible, injury to axon with preservation of endo and epineurium, as well Schwann cells.

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76
Q

neurotmesis

A

Axon, myelin, and connective tissue are damaged or transected. IRREVERSIBLE. If surgery, may recover, sensory before motor.

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77
Q

ALS affects what in the PNS?

A

Anterior horn cells

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78
Q

Myesthania gravis affects what in the PNS?

A

Neuromuscular junction

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79
Q

Fasiculations are present in UMN or LMN Diseases?

A

LMND

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80
Q

Chorea is typically secondary to damage of the ______

A

Caudate nucleus, “fidgeting”

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81
Q

Ballism is typically secondary to damage of the ______

A

subthalamic nucleus, it is a form of Chorea, “flailing”

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82
Q

Dystonia: type of movement, typical diseases, which muscles, etiologies

A

Sustained muscles contraction that cause abnormal/repetitive movements. CP, Parkinson’s, encephalitis. All muscles, agonists and/or antagonists, often accentuated during volitional movement. Etiologies: genetic, acquired, environmental, secondary to medications.

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83
Q

Athetosis

A

Slow, twisting/writhing movements, large in amplitude. When brief, they merge with chorea, when sustained, they merge with dystonia, and it is typically associated with spasticity. Common in CP secondary to basal ganglia pathology.

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84
Q

Akinesia, common in which disease(s)

A

Inability to initiate movement, PD

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85
Q

Asthenia, typically secondary to _____

A

Generalized weakness, secondary to cerebellar pathology.

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86
Q

Clasp-knife response

A

Resistance seen during ROM, greatest resistance at initiation of dance that lesson with movement through the range.

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87
Q

Dysmetria

A

Inability to control ROM and force

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88
Q

Dystonia

A

Related to athetosis, but more axial muscle involvement

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89
Q

Fasciculation

A

Muscular twitch that is Caused by random discharge of a LMN

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90
Q

Lead pipe rigidity

A

Consistent rigidity throughout the ROM

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91
Q

Modified Ashworth Scale: 0 through 4 scale

A

0: no increase in muscle tone
1: Slight, EROM
1+: Slight, at less than half of the ROM
2: Most of the ROM, but can still move the affected parts.
3: Passive movement difficult
4: Affected parts rigid in extension or flexion.

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92
Q

VOR vs VSR

A

VOR: Allows for head/eye movement coordination. Supports gaze stabilization when head moving.
VSR: Assits with body stability while the head is moving, as well as coordination of trunk during upright postures.

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93
Q

Peripheral vs Central Vertigo symptoms

A

Peripheral: Episodic, autonomic symptoms present, usually a precipitating factor.
Central: Autonomic less severe, loss of consciousness can occur, diplopia, hemianopsia, weans, numbness, ataxia, dysarthria

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94
Q

Peripher vs Central Vertigo Etiology (different diseases)

A

Peripheral: BPPV, Meniere’s, Infection, Trauma/tumor, DM, ETOH.
Central: Meningitis, Migraine, Trauma/tumor, MS

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95
Q

Gaze evoked nystagmus: Definition? Typically indicative of what type of pathology?

A

Occurs when eyes shift from a primary positions to an alternate position-pt can’t maintain stable gaze. Indicative of CNS pathology, e.g. TBI and MS

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96
Q

Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Direction

A

Central: Bi or unidirectional
Periph: Uni, with fast segment indicating the opposite direction of the lesion

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97
Q

Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Visual Fixation

A

Central: No inhibition with fixation
Periph: Will inhibit nyst. and vertigo

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98
Q

Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Vertigo

A

Central: Mild
Periph: Significant

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99
Q

Central vs Peripheral Nystagmus: Length of Symptoms

A

Central: May be chronic
Periph: Minutes, days, weeks, but finite and recurrent

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100
Q

Fugl-Meyer Sensorimotor Assessment of Balance Performance Battery: For whom, how many items, how many points, high or low is the best?

A

Hemiplegia, 0-2, 14 is best score, but still may not have normal balance

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101
Q

Functional Reach Norms for 20-40, 41-69, 70-87

A

20-40: 14.5-17 inches
41-69: 13.5-15
70-87: 10.5-13.5

102
Q

For the TUG: how scored, low or high normal?

A

1 is normal, 5 very abnormal-scored based on postural sway, excessive movements, etc. Added time to be more objective: 10s or less, person usually independent. 20 or more, limit for function independence, increased fall risk. 30 seconds or more, high fall risk.

103
Q

Tinetti (POMA): 2 sections, max score for each, what score is high fall risk?

A

Balance: scored 0-2, max of 16 points
Gait: 0-2, max score of 12
Total max score of 28. <19 is high fall risk

104
Q

4 negative prognostic indicators for aphasia

A

1: Perseveration of speech
2: Severe auditory comprehension impairments
3: Unreliable yes/no answers
4: Use of empty speech without recognition of impairments

105
Q

Demeylination of the ____ and ____ tracts cause the UMN signs in ALS

A

Corticospinal

Corticobulbar

106
Q

There is a higher incidence of ____ (gender) in ALS and occurs between ___ and ___

A

men, 40-70

107
Q

Early clinical symptoms of ALS include ______ motor symptoms (symmetric/asymmetric) that start _____ (proximal to distal/distal to proximal)

A

Asymmetrical, proximal to distal

108
Q

Bell’s Palsy: Most common in individuals between ___ and ___

A

15 and 45

109
Q

Normal pressure on the carpal tunnel is ___ to ___ mmHg

A

3-7

110
Q

What is the most common hereditary ataxia?

A

Friedreich’s-autosomal recessive cerebellar disorder

111
Q

What are the main autosomal dominant ataxias?

A

Spinocrebellar.

112
Q

Early clinical symptoms of Guillain-Barre Syndrome include ______ motor symptoms (symmetric/asymmetric) that start _____ (proximal to distal/distal to proximal)

A

symetrical, distal to proximal

113
Q

Call 911 if seizure lasts longer than ___ minutes

A

5

114
Q

After the seizure is over place the person on their ___ side

A

L, to avoid choking on vomit

115
Q

MS can occur at any age with the highest incidence between ___ and ___ years

A

20-35

116
Q

The cardinal signs of myasthenia gravis:

A

extreme fatiguability, skeletal muscle weakness that can fluctuate within minutes or over an extended period.

117
Q

Which muscles typically affected first with myasthenia gravis?

A

occular: ptosis, diplopia.

118
Q

PT for myasthenia gravis will typically focus on what?

A

obtaining respiratory baseline/pulmonary baseline, energy conservation techniques, isometric strengthening.

119
Q

Proximal or distal muscles usually more affected with myasthenia gravis?

A

Prox

120
Q

Signs of myasthenia crisis:

A

respiratory difficulty, swallowing issues, labored talking or chewing-can be life-threatening

121
Q

5 primary risk factors for CVA

A 
Hypertension
Cardiac disease/arrhythmias
DM
Cigarettes
TIAs
122
Q

5 secondary risk factors for CVA

A 
Obesity
High cholesterol
Behaviors related to HTN (stress, salt)
Physical inactivity
ETOH
123
Q

Embolus vs thrombotic CVA?

A

Embolus can start anywhere, and can be solid, liquid, or gas. Because so sudden, tissue can be more damaged than with thombotic-from plaque.

124
Q

Embolus CVA accounts for ___ to ___ % of CVAs. Hemorrhagic accounts for ___ to ___.

A

20%
10-15%
Hemorrhagic for fatal but less serious if survive. (50% of deaths occur within the first 48 hours)

125
Q 
Flexor synergy:
Scapula
Shoulder
Elbow
Forearm
Wrist
Fingers
Thumb 
Hip 
Knee 
Ankle
Toes
A 
Seen when a pt tries to lift arm for object
Scapula:  Elevation and retraction
Shoulder: And and ER
Elbow: Flexion
Forearm: Supination
Wrist: Flexion
Fingers: Flex/add
Thumb: Flex/add 
Hip: Abd/ER 
Knee: Flex 
Ankle: DF/supination
Toes: CHARACTERIZED by great toe ext and flexion of the remaining toes secondary to spasticity
126
Q 
Extensor synergy:
Scapula
Shoulder
Elbow
Forearm
Wrist
Fingers
Thumb 
Hip 
Knee 
Ankle
Toes
A 
Scapula: Depression/protraction
Shoulder: Add/IR
Elbow: Extension
Forearm: Pronation
Wrist: Extension
Fingers: Flexion/add
Thumb: Flexion/add
Hip: Ext, IR, add
Knee: Ext
Ankle: PF/Inv
Toes: Flex/add
127
Q

Adam’s closed loop theory for motor learning

A

Sensory feedback as an ogling process for the NS to compare current movement with stored info-high emphasis on practice

128
Q

Schmidt’s schema theory

A

Created in response to the closed loop theory. Relies on open loop control processes and a motor program concept: promotes clinical value of feedback and importance of variation with practice.

129
Q

3 stages of Motor learning

A

1) Cognitive
2) Associative: start moving to uncontrolled enviro and less feedback
3) Autonomous

130
Q

Massed vs distributed practice

A

massed: practice time > rest
distributed: rest > or = to practice

131
Q

Non-associative vs associative learning

A

Non-associative: habituation/sensitization

Associative: procedural/declarative

132
Q

T or F: NDT/Bobath uses compensatory techniques for movement

A

F: Belief that compensation techniques are unnecessary and should be avoided

133
Q

Raimiste’s phenomenon:

A

Involved LE will abd/add with resistance to the uninvolved side

134
Q

Souques’ phenomenon:

A

Raising involved EU above 100 degrees with elbow extension will produce extension and and of the fingers

135
Q

PNF: The 4 levels of motor control, examples of each

A
  1. Mobility e.g. just initiating movement
  2. Stability e.g. unsupported sitting
  3. Controlled Mobility e.g. weight shifting in quadruped
  4. Skill e.g. ADLs and community locomotion
136
Q

Agonistic Reversals: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Isotonic alternating concentric and eccentric movements.

Controlled mobility, skill

137
Q

Alternating Isometrics: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Alternating from one side of the joint to the other side without rest.
Stability

138
Q

Hold-Relax: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Isometric contraction of all muscles at end range, then relax.
Mobility

139
Q

Contract-Relax: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Isometric contraction of the antagonist.

Mobility

140
Q

Hold-Relax Active Movement: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

For muscle groups tested at 1/5 or less. Isometric contraction is performed once the extremity is passively placed into shortened range. Then relaxation, quick stretch, then pt tries to move back through the range.
Mobility

141
Q

Normal Timing: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Proximal restricted until distal components initiated movement.
Skill

142
Q

Repeated Contractions: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Quick stretch followed by isometric or isotonic

Mobility

143
Q

Resisted Progression: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

To emphasize coordination of proximal components during gait.
Skill

144
Q

Rhythmic Initiation: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Passive to active assistive to slightly resistive.

Mobility

145
Q

Timing for emphasis: Descriptions, and which PNF level of motor control?

A

Isotonic and isometric contractions of other muscles for overflow.

146
Q

Anosognosia

A

denial/unawareness of one’s illness, often associated with unilateral neglect

147
Q

What level is the corticospinal lesion that causes decerebrate rigidity?

A

Brainstem

148
Q

What level is the corticospinal lesion that causes decorticate rigidity?

A

Diencephalon

149
Q

Anterior cord syndrome

A

Anterior spinal artery or excessive cervical flexion, motor, pain/tem below the lesion lost (corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts)

150
Q

Flexion SCIs most often occur at ____ level while extension SCIs most often occur at ____ level

A

Flexion: C5-6,
Extension: C4-5

151
Q

Central Cord Syndrome, typical mechanism of injury, typical tracts that are damaged, U or LE more affected, motor more or sensory more affected?

A

Cervical hyperextension, spinothalamic, corticospinal, and dorsal columns. UEs greater involvement than LEs, and greater motor deficits than sensory.

152
Q

Asia A

A

No sensory/motor preserved S4-5

153
Q

Asia B

A

Sensory but no motor below level to S4-5

154
Q

Asia C

A

Motor preserved below, most key muscles below the level are <3

155
Q

Asia D

A

Most key muscles below level are > or = to 3

156
Q

Asia E

A

Sensory and motor normal

157
Q

Review Sites for Sensory Testing

A

P 198, Do it, for real!

158
Q

What SCI will likely be modified independent with bed mobility?

A

Mid tetra (C6)

159
Q 
What SCI will likely be modified independent with transfers:
Bed
Car
Toilet
Bath
Floor 
Uprighting W/C
A

C6 with sliding board for bed
Lower tetra (C6-7) for car transfer
Para for floor and uprighting W/C

160
Q

What level of SCI can depress shoulders for weight shift?

A

C6-7

161
Q

What SCI will likely be modified independent for bowl and bladder?

A

C7-8

162
Q

Myelotomy vs Neurectomy vs Rhizotomy

A

Myelotomy: Certain tracts within the SC severed to decrease spasticity
Neurectomy: Removal of segment of a nerve to decrease spasticity
Rhizotomy: Resection of sensory component of a spinal nerve to decrease spasticity

163
Q

Nuerogenic Bladder

A

Empties reflexively for a patient with an injury above S2-sacral reflex arc intact

164
Q

Zone of preservation

A

Poor or trace motor or sensory function for put to three levels below the neurologic level of injury.

165
Q

Coup vs Contrecoup lesion

A

Coup: Direct lesion to brain under the point of impact
Contra: On the opposite side of the brain due to rebound

166
Q

Epidural vs subdural hematoma

A

Epi: Forms between skull and dura mater
Subdural: Due to venous rupture between dura and arachnoid

167
Q

The 8 Rancho Levels of Cognitive Functioning

A

I. No response
II Generalized response-same regardless of stimulus
III Localized response-related to stimulus presented.
IV Confused-Agitated
V Confused-Inappropriate
VI Confused-Appropriate, goal-directed behavior, but needs direction.
VII Automatic-Appropriate, robot-like, judgement remains impaired
VIII Purposeful-Appropriate May continue to show a decreased ability relative to premorbid levels, abstract reasoning, tolerance for stress, and judgement in emergencies/unusual situations.

168
Q

What is the lowest Rancho level that one might be able to follow very simple commands?

A

III: eg closing eyes, squeezing hands

169
Q

Glascow Coma Scale: Score of ____ to ____ indicates severe brain injury and coma in ___% of people

A

8 or less

170
Q

Glascow Coma Scale: Score of ____ to ____ indicates moderated brain injury

A

9 to 12

171
Q

Glascow Coma Scale: Score of ____ to ____ indicates mild brain injuries

A

13 to 15

172
Q

Review Pediatrics, p 208 through 213

A

Do it!

173
Q

Prader-Willi Syndrome
Causative factor
Signs/Symptoms
How is it diagnosed?

A

Partial deletion of chromosome 15
Small hands, feet, and sex organs, hypotonia, almond-shaped eyes, obesity, constant desire for food, coordination impairments and mental retardations.
Usually just diagnosed by physical attributes and behavior not genetic testing

174
Q

The Eye Opening scale on the Glasgow

A

4) Spontaneous
3) To Speech
2) To Pain
1) Nil

175
Q

The Best Motor Response scale on the Glasgow

A

6) Obeys commands
5) Localizes pain
4) Withdraws
3) Abnormal Flexion
2) Extensor Response
1) Nil

176
Q

The Verbal Response Scale on the Glasgow

A

5) Oriented
4) Confused conversation
3) Inappropriate words
2) Incomprehensible sounds
1) Nil

177
Q

American Academy of Neurology Grade 1 concussion: consciousness, confusion, length of time. When can athlete return to play.

A

No loss of consciousness, transient confusion, usually resolved within 15 minutes. Return to play if symptom free at rest for 1 week.

178
Q

American Academy of Neurology Grade 2 concussion: consciousness, confusion, length of time. When can the athlete return to play?

A

Confusion lasts longer than 15 minutes. May have retrograde and/or anterograde amnesia. Return to play if symptom free at rest and with exertion for 2 weeks.

179
Q

American Academy of Neurology Grade 3 concussion: consciousness, confusion, length of time. When can the athlete return to play?

A

Loss of consciousness, should go to ER for evaluation. Should be withheld from competition for one month after being symptom-free for 1 week.

180
Q

Which reflex(s) is integrated at 6 months?

A

1) Asymmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex

2) Tonic Labyrinthine Reflex

181
Q

Which reflex(s) is integrated at 2 months?

A

1) Galant
2) Positive support reflex
3) Stepping/walking reflex

182
Q

Which reflex(s) is integrated at 4 months?

A

1) Palmar grasp

183
Q

Which reflex(s) is integrated at 5 months?

A

1) Moro

2) Startle

184
Q

Which reflex(s) is integrated at 9 months

A

1) Plantar grasp

185
Q

Which reflex(s) is integrated at 3 months?

A

1) Rooting

186
Q

Which reflex(s) is present between 6 and 8 months?

A

1) Symmetrical Tonic Neck Reflex

187
Q

What age is fine pincer grasp normally present?

A

10-11 months

188
Q

What age is squatting in play normally present?

A

16 to 24 months

189
Q

What age is riding a tricycle normally present?

A

2 years

190
Q

What age is chest up in prone with some weight on forearms normally present?

A

2-3 months

191
Q

What age is creeping/hitching up stairs normally present?

A

12-15 months

192
Q

What age is crawling normally present?

A

8-9 months

193
Q

What age is rolls from supine to side normally present?

A

4-5 months

194
Q

What age is hopping on 1 foot normally present?

A

2 years

195
Q

What age is cutting with scissors normally present?

A

3-4 years

196
Q

What age is creeping normally present?

A

10-11 months

197
Q

What age is skipping normally present?

A

5-8 years

198
Q

What age is sitting independently normally present?

A

6-7 months

199
Q

What age is rolling prone to supine normally present?

A

2-3 months

200
Q

What age is bearing weight on extended arms while in prone normally present?

A

4-5 months

201
Q

What age is playing jump rope normally present?

A

5-8 years

202
Q

What age is turning a door knob/jar lid normally present?

A

2 years

203
Q

What age is hopping 2-10 times on 1 foot normally present?

A

3-4 years

204
Q

What age is hand preference normally present?

A

5-8 years

205
Q

Arthrogyposis Multiplex Congenita:
Etiology
Signs/Symptoms
Treatment

A

Exact etiology unknown, may be poor movement during early development. For some, it is genetic inheritance, autosomal dominant.
Cylinder-like extremities, significant and multiple conjectures, dislocation of joints, atrophy.
Splinting, adaptive equipment, positioning, stretching, strengthening. Maybe surgery

206
Q

Spastic vs Athetoid CP

A

Spastic: Lesion in the motor cortex, UMN damage
Athetoid: Lesion in basal ganglia, cerebellum, and/or cerebellar pathways

207
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy is characterize by:

A

progressive degeneration of the anterior horn cell

208
Q

Type 1-Werdnig-Hoffmann disease:

A

Acute infantile SMA. Occurs between birth and 2 months, life expectancy less than 1 year.

209
Q

Type 2-Chronic-Werdnig-Hoffmann disease

A

Chronic Childhood SMA. Present after 6 months to 1 year, child can survive into adulthood.

210
Q

Type 3-Kugelberg-Welander SMA

A

Juvenile SMA. From 4-17 years, typically survive into adulthood.

211
Q

Spina Bifida Occulta vs Cystica

A

Occulta: Non-fusion of the spinous processes of a vertebrae but spinal cord and meninges intact-usually no disability
Cystica: Cyst-like protrusion through the non-fused vertebrae-impairment.

212
Q

Meningocele vs Myelomeningocele Spina Bifida

A

Both are types of SB Cystica.
Meningocele: herniation of meninges and CSF, SC remains within the canal.
Myelo: Severe form, spinal cord herniates as well.

213
Q

Superior gluteal nerve myotomes, which muscles?

A

L4,5,S1

Glut med, min, TFL

214
Q

Inferior gluteal nerve myotomes

A

L5,S1,2

Glut Max

215
Q

Common fibular myotomes

A

L4,5,S1,2

216
Q

Tibial nerve myotomes

A

L4,5,S1,2,3

217
Q

Myotomes of the nerve to the piriformis

A

S1,2

218
Q

Myotomes of the pudendal nerve

A

S2,3,4

219
Q

Plantar reflex tests which levels?

A

L5-S1 (babinski)

220
Q

Cremateric reflex tests which levels?

A

L1-2

Testicle raises

221
Q

Gag reflex which levels?

A

glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

222
Q

Abdominal reflex, which levels?

A

T8-L1

223
Q

Corneal reflex (blink) which levels?

A

trigeminal and facial nerves, both eyes should blink

224
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the rhomboids?

A

dorsal scapular

225
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the coracobrachialis?

A

Musculocutaneous

226
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the Flexor carpi ulnaris?

A

Ulnar

227
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the Latissiumus dorsi?

A

Thoracodorsal

228
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the teres major?

A

Lower subscapular

229
Q

Which muscles are innervated by the radial nerve?

A 
Brachioradialis
Triceps
Supinator
Wrist Extensors
Anconeus
230
Q

The lateral and median root of the median innervates the _____ muscles of the forearm, excepts for the flexor ____ _____, and also enervates ___(number) muscles of the hand.

A

Flexor muscles of the forearm, except the flexor carpi ulnaris, and 5 muscles in the hand.

231
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the serratus anterior?

A

Long thoracic

232
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the pec major?

A

Medial and lateral pectoral

233
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the subscapularis?

A

Upper and lower subscapular

234
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the infraspinatus?

A

suprascapular

235
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the subclavius?

A

Nerve to the subclavius

236
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the teres minor?

A

Axillary

237
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the brachioradialis?

A

radial nerve

238
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the levitator scapulae?

A

dorsal scapular

239
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the supraspinatus?

A

suprascapular

240
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the pec major, clavicular head?

A

lateral pectoral

241
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the FDP?

A

Ulnar

242
Q

What 2 weird muscles does the ulnar nerve innervate?

A

FCU, FDP, most small muscles of the hand

243
Q

Which peripheral nerve innervates the pec minor?

A

Medial pectoral

244
Q

3 muscles innervated by the lumbar plexus

A

Psoas major
Psoas minor
Quadratus Lumborum

245
Q

5 muscles innervated by the sacral plexus

A 
Piriformis
Superior gemelli
Inferior gemelli
Obturator internus
Quadratus femoris
246
Q

7 muscles innervated by the femoral nerve

A 
VL
VI
VM,
Rectus femoris
Iliacus
Sartorious
Pectineus
247
Q

5 muscles innervated by the obturator nerve

A 
Adductor longus
brevis
magus
Obturator externus
Gracilis
248
Q

3 muscles innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic

A

Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Long head of the BF

249
Q

1 muscle innervated by the common fibular division of the sciatic

A

biceps femurs short head

250
Q

5 muscles innervated by the deep fibular nerve?

A 
Tib ant
EDL
EHL
Fibularis terius
EDB
251
Q

2 muscles innervated by the superficial fibular nerve?

A

Fibularis longus

brevis

252
Q

4 muscles innervated by the medial plantar nerve

A

Abductor hallucis
Lumbrical I
FDB
FHB

253
Q

8 muscles innervated by the lateral plantar nerve

A 
ADM
FDM
Opponens DM
Dorsal inerossei 
Quadratus plantae
Adductor hallucis
Lumbricals II-V
Plantar interossei

FSBPT (7 decks)

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