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FSBPT > Other Systems > Flashcards

Other Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What symptoms will a patient with end stage kidney disease most likely demonstrate

A

Decreased urine output and anemia

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2
Q

Primary vs secondary vs tertiary healing by intention

A

Primary: wound edges clean, approximated by sutures, or if superficial partial thickness such as abrasion or blisters.
Secondary: Can’t be approximated. Require ongoing wound care, heal by migrating granulation tissue. Usually associated with pathology such as diabetes.
Tertiary: Delayed primary intention healing-wounds at risk for sepsis or dehiscence.

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3
Q

Wound contamination vs colonization vs infection

A

Contam: The presence of non-replicationg bacteria on a wound surface that causes no additional tissue injury and does not stimulate an inflammatory response.
Colonization: Replication of bacteria on wound surface that does not invade or further injury, but can delay healing, or may actually help by preventing worse organisms from invading
Infection: Inflammatory, invading, significant delay of healing.

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4
Q

The different general recommendations for arterial/venous ulcers.

A

Arterial: Avoid elevating limbs
Venous: Elevate limbs when sleeping

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5
Q

Neuropathic vs pressure ulcers

A

Neuro: usually a result of ischemia and peripheral neuropathy
Pressure: ischemia and pressure

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6
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Location

A

1) Lower 1/3 of leg-even to distal toes
2) Proximal to medial malleolus
3) Areas of foot susceptible to pressure or shear

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7
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Appearance

A

1) smooth, well defined, deep, no granulation
2) irregular, shallow
3) Well-defined oval/circle, callused rim, no necrosis, goo granulation

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8
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Exudate

A

1) minimal
2) moderate/heavy
3) low/moderate

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9
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Pain

A

1) severe
2) mild to mod
3) low to mod

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10
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: Pedal pulses

A

1) diminished/absent
2) normal
3) diminished/absent

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11
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: edema

A

1) normal
2) increased
3) decreased

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12
Q

1) Arterial vs 2) Venous vs 3) Neuropathic Ulcers: skin appearance

A

1) thin, shiny, hair loss, yellow nails
2) flaky, dry, brownish
3) dry, inelastic, shiny, decreased sweat/oil

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13
Q

Wound classification by depth

1) superficial
2) partial thickness
3) full
4) subcutaneous

A

1) epidermis intact
2) through epidermis, may be partially into dermis
3) through dermis into subcutaneous fat
4) through to fat, tendon, muscle, bone

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14
Q

Wagner ulcer grade classification scale: 0-5

A

0) skin intact, pre-ulcerative lesions, healed ulcers, bony deformity
1) Superficial ulcer, not involving subcutaneous
2) Penetrates through subcutaneous, potentially exposing bone, lig, or joint capsule
3) Osteitis, abscess or osteomyelitis
4) Gangrene of digit
5) Gengrene of foot requiring disarticulation

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15
Q

Pressure Ulcer stages I-V

A

I: intact, redness
II: Loss of dermis
III: full thickness tissue loss, tendon/muscle not exposed
IV: full thickness with exposed bone/tendon/muscle
V: Suspected deep tissue injury

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16
Q

Which type of selective debridement shouldn’t be used with an infected wound?

A

Autolytic.

Sharp and enzymatic can be used with an infection

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17
Q

Selective vs non-selective debridement

A

selective: only nonviable tissue

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18
Q

The 3 types of non-selective debridement

A

Wet-to-dry, wound irrigation, hydrotherapy

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19
Q

What type of U/S used for wound healing?

A

low intensity, pulsed duty cycle

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20
Q

Which 2 types of dressings can’t be used on infected wounds, which one usually used for infected wounds?

A

Hydrocolloids, transparent film

Alginates

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21
Q

Desquamation

A

Peeling or shedding of the outer layers of the epdidermis.

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22
Q

Friable

A

tissue that readily tears, fragments or bleeds

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23
Q

Maceration

A

skin softening from prolonged exposure to moisture

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24
Q

Normotrophic scar

A

collagen fibers aligned in parallel fashion

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25
Q

Turgor

A

speed at which skin resumes its shape after being pinched

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26
Q

The 3 zones of burn injury

A

Zone of 1) coagulation (Most severe center, cell damage)

2) stasis
3) hyperemia (outermost, inflamed but will heal easily)

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27
Q

Approximate healing times for superficial partial thickness and deep partial thickness burns

A

partial: 5-21
deep: 21-35

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28
Q

Child values for the rule of 9s for burns

A

A child under 1 year has 9% taken from the LE and added to the head and neck. Each year of life 1% added back to LE until 9 years old

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29
Q

What is the rule of 9s for? what is it not for?

A

it estimates the percent of body burned, isn’t prognostic, and doesn’t account for severity.

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30
Q

The use of compression garments that provide ____ to ___ mm Hg is believe d to create an environment that facilitate the balance of collagen synthesis and lysis, improving scar structure, in burns requiring >____ days to heal, and should be worn for ____ to ____ hours

A

15-35, 14, 22-23

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31
Q

Dry vs wet gangrene

A

Dry: due to blood vessel disease
Wet: due to bacteria infection-selling causes sudden stoppage of blood flow

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32
Q

Onychomycosis

A

nail fungus

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33
Q

Tinea pedis

A

athlete’s foot

34
Q

What is Tay-Sachs disease?

A

absent/deficient enzyme so accumulate GM2 within the brain. autosomal recessive, mental retardation/paralysis, no cure

35
Q

What is Wilson’s disease?

A

hepatolenticular degeneration. Can’t metabolize copper, kayserl-fleischer rings in the eyes. Athetoid, ataxia etc.

36
Q

Trousseau’s sign

A

during BP, first sign of hypokalemia, occlusion of artery induces involuntary muscle contractions in hand

37
Q

Osteoporosis typically affects which type of bone

A

cortical and trabecular

38
Q

Osteomalacia:

A

bones soft secondary to to a calcium or phosphorus deficiency

39
Q

Paget’s disease

A

heightened osteoclast activity, the bone appears enlarged but it is weak, most common in patients over 50

40
Q

Different hormones that the adrenal cortex and medulla produce:

A

cortex: corticosteroids that regulate water and sodium balance, the body’s response to stress, the immune system, sexual dvlpmt, and metabolism.
medulla: epinephrine (HR and BP)

41
Q

The _____ are the hormone-producing cells in the pancrease. The apha cells produce ____ and beta produce ____

A

Islets of Langerhans.
Alpha: glucagon
Beta: Insulin

42
Q

Steroid hormones:
Also called:
Unique because:w

A

prostaglandins

don’t circulate in the blood

43
Q

Amine hormones:
Also called:
Main one is:

A

catecholamines

Epinephrine

44
Q

Peptide hormones:

Main one:

A

Insulin

45
Q

Which 3 orthopedic conditions common with hyperpituitarism?

A

Bilateral carpal tunnel, arthritis, osteophyte formation

46
Q

Ambulation/exercises should be done ______hours/days following pituitary tumor/gland removal

A

24 hrs

47
Q

Which visual and cardiovascular effects can be present with hypopituitarism?

A

ortho hypot. and bilateral hemianopsia

48
Q

Addison’s vs Cushings

A

Addisons: hypofunction of the adrenal cortex-dereased cortisol and aldosterone. Hypotension, weakness, anorexia, weight loss, altered pigmentation.
Cushing’s: hyperfunction. Excessive cortisol due to excessive ACTH from pituitary. Hyperglycemia, growth failure, moon face, buffalo hump, hypertension, male gynecomastia.

49
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: hyper or hypo?

A

hypo

50
Q

Postpartum thyroiditis:

A

hyper for first 1-4 months, 4-8 months

51
Q

Grave’s disease: hypo or hyper?

A

hyper-most specific cause, autoimmune disease

52
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidism?

A

hypoparathyroidism, shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals.

53
Q

Elevated serum phophate levels, which type of parathyroidism?

A

hypo

decreased for hyper

54
Q

Gout occurs with what?

A

hyperparathyroidism

55
Q

increased neuromuscular activity occurs with which parathyroidism?

A

hyper

56
Q

American diabetes assoc. recommends blood glucose to be ___ to ___ before a meal and <_____ after a meal

A

180-200 mg/dl

<180

57
Q

Ketoacidosis more common with DM1 or DM2?

A

DM1

58
Q

Signs of ketoacidosis?

A

dyspnea, a fruity breath odor, dry mouth, nausea, vomiting , confusionOutcomes
Patient’s Progress at 16 weeks:
Completing10 single-leg squats without internal rotation of the hip or knee valgus/instability
Walking on the treadmill, at his maximal speed, for 15 minutes without gait deviations or reports of knee pain
Running on the treadmill, four, two-minute intervals, with normal gait pattern, no pain
Goals at 20 weeks:
Obtaining a limb symmetry index ≥ 90% vertical jump, hop for distance, side hop
Running on the treadmill, four or more, five-minute intervals, with normal gait pattern, no pain

59
Q

Primary syndromes for hypogonadism in males and females;

A

males; Klinefelter’s

females: Turner

60
Q

People with GERD usually prefer to lie on which side/

A

L: because R may promote acid flowing into the esophagus

61
Q

Pain from ulcers can radiate to which quadrant and shoulder?

A

R upper quadrant and shoulder

62
Q

Diverticulitis

A

From diverticulosis-pouch-like protrusions in the colon. 10% of people over 40 80% asymptomatic.

63
Q

Which type(s) of hepatitis does/do not progress to chronic disease or cirrhosis?

A

A

64
Q

Which type(s) of hepatitis is/are transmitted through blood? Which fecal/oral?

A

B and C

A

65
Q

Cholecystitis vs cholelithiasis

A

cystitis: inflammation
lithiasis: stones

66
Q

Which type of drugs decrease symptoms of nausea and vomiting?

A

aniemetic agents

67
Q

What happens to urine output, sodium and potassium with acute renal failure?

A

Oligouria (decreased urine), hyperkalemia, sodium retention

68
Q

The 5 stages of kidney disease according to the National Kidney Foundation

A

1) damage but normal GFR (90 or greater)
2) GFR 60-89
3) GFR 30-59
4) GFR 15-29
5) failure (<15)

69
Q

Most common type of incontinence?

A

Urge: intense urge to void due to detrusor muscle contraction

70
Q

_______ _______ is when the linea alba is separated >2 fingers

A

diastasis recti

71
Q

Pregnant women should remain at ____ to ____% of their max HR

A

50-60

72
Q

Ditropan and Detrol are what kind of agents?

A

Overactive bladder agents

73
Q

Cinobac (cinoxacin) and Furadantin (nitrofurantoin) do what?

A

Urinary anti-infective agents that are not traditional antibiotics

74
Q

what is cystocele?

A

bulging of the bladder into the vagina

75
Q

what is retocele?

A

the bulging of the anterior wall of the rectum into the vagina secondary to weakening of the pelvic supporting structures

76
Q 
C
A
U
T
I
O
N
for cancer
A 
change in bowel/bladder
a sore that won't heal
unusual bleeding/discharge
thickening/lump
indigestion/difficulty swallowing
obvious change in wart/mole
nagging cough/hoarsness
77
Q

National institute stage for cancer, 0-IV

A

0: only in layer of cells in which it began, not all cancers have a stage 0
I: only in tissue of origin
II: adjacent tissues, may have micrometastases in lymph nodes
III: signs of fixation in adjacent tissue, likelihood of lymph involvement is high
IV: beyond primary site to bone or another organ

78
Q

A risk factor for Hodgkin’s lymphoma is exposure to the ______ ______ virus

A

Epsein-Barre virus

79
Q

Cancer in glandular cells is called __________

A

adenocarcinoma

80
Q

exercise for pts undergoing cancer treatment: HR in a range of ____ to _____% max

A

40-65%

81
Q

Most common type of pediatric brain tumor?

A

astrocytoma

FSBPT (7 decks)

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