Practice exams Flashcards

1
Q

Which node does sinus tachycardia originate in?

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does the QT interval measure?

A

depolarization and repolarization time of the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How may digitalis affect the QT interval?

A

May actually shorten it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does the ST segment represent?

A

isoelectric period following depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How would digitalis affect the ST segment?

A

Sagging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How would an MI affect the ST segment?

A

May elevate it, also may be elevated as much as 2mm in african american males.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Duchenne MD affects proximal or distal muscles first?

A

Proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Spondylitis

A

Inflammation of the vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Spondylolysis

A

Defect in the pars or arch of vertebra. Most common in L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Spod ylolisthesis

A

Forward displacement of one vertebra over another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Spondyloptosis

A

Vertebral body is completely off of the adjacent body (Grade 5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which laboratory finding could be MOST related to the use of silver sulfadiazine?

A

Leukopenia (<5,000 mm^3).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What types of medications could cause hypokalemia?

A

steroids, diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of topical agent could affect body fluid pH?

A

mafenide acetate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The width of the BP bladder should be ___% of the circumference of the midpoint of the limb

A

40%, avg for adults is 5-6 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pt status post stoke is on a mat prone on elbows, working on lateral weight shifts. Which therapeutic exercise technique would allow the patient to improve dynamic stability with this activity?

A

Approximation: Facilitates contraction and stability through joint compression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does the Barthel Index examine? Scoring?

A

10 ADLs, score from 0-100, increments of 5. 100 is best.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hubbard tank

A

full-body immersion, 4x8x6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Highboy tank

A

for longer body parts, but pt can’t fully extend LE in sitting, but is deep enough for mid thoracic region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lowboy tank

A

Can extend LE, but not very deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If PT measures pt’s volume after maximal inhalation then exhalation, what is it measuring?

A

Vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a large sample size increase?

A

The likelihood of rejecting the null

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do most cardiac guidelines say for max HR allowed in phase I?

A

130 bpm or no more than 20bpm above for post-MI, 30bpm for post-surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A decrease in systolic pressure of ____mmHg during phase 1 cardiac should not be allowd

A

Shouldn’t exceed 10mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A diastolic blood pressure of ___ is considered the upper limit for exercise in phase I cardiac rehab

A

110mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The optimal level of LDL is <___mg/dL

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Normal temp for a hot pack machine is ____F or ____C

A

160 or 71

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How far down does a stage III ulcer extend?

A

Down through subcutaneous tissue, can be to, but not through, underlying fascia, so no muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which muscles of respiration most active during forced expiration?

A

Internal intercostals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the PRIMARY limitation of a max exercise test?

A

requires them to work to their point of volitional fatigue, usually stop before them, reduces the sensitivity of estimate of maximum oxygen uptake.
(true positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How much pressure would typically be necessary to control LE edema for ambulatory patients?

A

30-40 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A pressure of ___ to ___ is used to control scar tissue formation.

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A pressure of ___ to ___ is characteristic of shelf stockings used to prevent DVTs

A

16-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is electromyography response is MOST indicative of a normal muscle at rest?

A

electrical silence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Polyphasic potentials are from what?

A

Denervated motor unit, 5 or more phases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most cost-effective way to screen for osteoporosis?

A

Height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

PRIMARY purpose of an arterial line?

A

Measure blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Definition of a wheeze

A

high constant pitch during exhalation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Rales

A

synonymous with crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Rhonchi

A

lower-pitched continues, adventitious breath sounds occurring during inspiration or expiration and are cause by turbulence of air passing through secretions in large and mid-sized bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the best medication for into for LE ulcer healing? Pos or neg charge?

A

zinc-positively charged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A duration of ___ to ___ minutes of spinal traction may be warranted if the patient has tolerated it in previous session(s)

A

20-30-good for tissue stretch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Athetosis usually occurs when which area of the brain is damaged?

A

basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lingula is a section of which part of the lung?

A

L upper lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How often should nursing staff turn a person post-stroke?

A

every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2 things an arterial line can do?

A

BP and blood gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does a central venous line measure?

A

R atrial pressure, emergency pacemaker placements, fluids/meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does a pulmonary artery line measure?

A

inserted through R heart to pulmonary artery to monitor cardiovascular pressures and mixed venous blood gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Mastitis

A

infection of the fatty breast tissue typically associated with postpartum breast feeding, looks like cellulitis but with characteristic painful lumps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Erysipelas

A

form of cellulitis caused by strep. More defined with unmistakable bright red and sharp demarcation borders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the trendelenburg position?

A

head lower than feet, for lower lobe drainage, and hypotensive patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which cryotherapeutic agent proves the greatest magnitude of tissue cooling?

A

ice massage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Dependent edema is associated with ___-sided heart failure

A

R (fluid in liver, abdomen, and ankles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ADA requires minimum of ____ inches for pt to safely go through doorway with W/C?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What complication of MI is patient MOST susceptible shortly after?

A

arrhythmias (90% of people who have had an MI)

Thrombus or cardiac muscle damage can occur but not MOST common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Need ___ to ___ towel layers between hot pack and treatment surface

A

6 to 8

57
Q

Front edge of seat and popliteal space should be ___ inches part for proper seat depth in W/C

A

2 inches

58
Q

A grade of ___ would result in ___ inch of rise for ___ 12 inches of run, is max percent grade of a ramp for ADA

A

8.3%, 1, 12

59
Q

What is a beam non uniformity ratio for an U/S?

A

ratio of intensity of the highest peak to the average intensity of all peaks.

60
Q

What should be considered when determining a schedule for calibration and maintenance for an U/S?

A

frequency of use-if used a lot should be calibrated multiple times per year.

61
Q

Decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus associated with what?

A

pleural effusion

62
Q

Decrease breath sounds and increased fremitus associated with what 3 things?

A

pulmonary edema, or consolidation if only in one area, also atelectasis.

63
Q

U/S can be administered to an area ___ to ___ times the size of the effective radiated are of the transducer face in a ___ minute period time.

A

2-3, 5 minutes

64
Q

Which breathing device MOST beneficial to help pt prevent alveolar collapse?

A

incentive spirometer

65
Q

An appropriate way to examine pt’s abstract ability?

A

discuss how 2 objects are similar

66
Q

Appropriate way to examine pt’s constructional ability?

A

copy drawing of figures.

67
Q

Most effective cough position?

A

sitting upright

68
Q

What are droplet precautions? Which 3 common illnesses?

A

Close contact respiratory/mucous, only mask necessary, flu, pertussis, diphtheria

69
Q

Standard unit of phase charge?

A

Coulomb=electrical charge, 6.25x10^18 electrons/second

70
Q

Cardinal signs of anemia?

A

pallor, cyanosis, cool skin

71
Q

enteral drug administration means what?

A

oral

72
Q

What is a ratio scale measurement?

A

Has an absolute zero point, meaning score of 0 represents total absence of the property being measured, eg height and weight

73
Q

What is an interval scale?

A

Same rank-order characteristics as an ordinal scale, but has known equal distances between units, but unlike ratio, it does not have a true zero point, eg temperature.

74
Q

Positive Roos test is indicated by what?

A

inability to hold for 3 minutes.

75
Q

What is normal radial wrist deviation measurement?

A

0-20 degrees

76
Q

Landeau reflex:

A

it is an equilibrium response that occurs when child responds to prone suspension by aligning their head and extremities in line with the plane of the body. 3mo to 2 years

77
Q

Hyperoxemia vs hyperoxia vs hypoxemia

A

1) increased blood acidity
2) increased O2 in blood
3) decreased O2 in blood as measure by PaO2.

78
Q

Best wrist position to palpate the lunate?

A

wrist flexion

79
Q

What is the normal pH of the skin?

A

3-4

80
Q

Which 4 PNF techniques have the purpose of increasing strength?

A

repeated contractions, alternating isometrics, resisted progression, and timing for emphasis

81
Q

Problem with high beam non-uniformity ratio on U/S?

A

places pt at risk for periosteal pain/hot spots

82
Q

Which flexor digitorum attaches to the distal philanges?

A

Profundus

83
Q

Ventral glide of the humerus increase which glenohumeral ROMs?

A

ER, extension, and horizontal abduction

84
Q

Which position places the most pressure on the lumbar spine?

A

sitting in a chair, slouching forward

85
Q

Minimum inches to turn 180 degrees in a standard wheelchair for the ADA?

A

60 inches wide

86
Q

A repeated measures design controls for what in an experiment?

A

differences between subjects, also called a “within subject” design

87
Q

What part of TENS do you changed to change it from motor to sensory?

A

frequency, is greater with sensory level stimulation compared to motor

88
Q

Autolytic wound debridement

A

Uses body’s own mechanics to remove noviable tissue, with films, hydrocolloids, hydrogels, etc.

89
Q

Best way to palpate the rotator cuff?

A

passive extension of the humerus

90
Q

How many degrees of MP hyperextension at end of terminal stance?

A

30 degrees

91
Q

What determines a positive Rhomberg test?

A

positive if min sway when open, instability or falls with eyes closed

92
Q

Ice massage treatment time?

A

5-10 minutes

93
Q

TTWB vs PWB

A

TT: no weight through LE, but allowed to use toes for balance
PWB: eg 5 lbs on involved side

94
Q

Hickman catheter

A

indwelling R atrial catheter

95
Q

What is the minimum score to avoid being classified as a having a cognitive impairment with the mini-mental state exam?

A

24, score ranges from 0-30

96
Q

A berg score of 16 is what % HR?

A

85

97
Q

Balance grade of fair:

A

without support, but cannot weight shift

98
Q

Functional reach, which bony process measured?

A

3rd metacarpal

99
Q

Postural drainage position for the superior segments of the L and R lobes?

A

prone with 2 pillows under the hips

100
Q

What is the normal quad:ham strength ratio?

A

3:2

101
Q

Why does increasing the size of the cathode relative to the anode decrease current density and therefore decrease risk of chemical burn?

A

Accumulation of positively charged ions in a small area creates an alkaline reaction that is more likely to create tissue damage. (cathode is negatively charged electrode, anode is positive, so if the cathode is larger it will spread out more of the positive ions it attracts)

102
Q

What does the Rinne test do?

A

compares bone conduction hearing with air conduction hearing. Tuning fork on mastoid process, then placed next to the air. Air conducted sound should be approximately twice as long as the bone conducted sound.

103
Q

What is the MOST effective technique when teaching a pt to complete an activity without dyspnea?

A

pacing

104
Q

Which of the following sympathetic substances is stimulated by decreased arterial pressure and acts as a vasoconstrictor?

A

angiotensin

105
Q

Which lung volume is 10%?

A

tidal volume

106
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume percent? approx mL?

A

55-60%

2300-3000

107
Q

Residual volume percent

A

25%

108
Q

Functional residual capacity percent?

A

40%

109
Q

Most effective imaging at identifying a stress fracture?

A

bone scan

110
Q

Vital capacity is about ____ to ____ mL

A

4,000-5,000

111
Q

Residual volume is approximately _____ to _____ mL

A

900-1200

112
Q

Myotome innervation of the rhomboids and the levator scap?

A

C4-5

C3-5

113
Q

If a referral form is >90 days old, how should the PT contact the physician?

A

over the phone is okay since already have the referral

114
Q

A researcher uses a simple random sample-this type ensures what?

A

unbiased, that every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen

115
Q

Most appropriate bandage width for transfemoral amputation?

transtibial

A

6in

4in

116
Q

Where should you measure the abdominal skinfold for body composition?

A

vertical fold, 2cm to the R of the umbilicus

117
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia is associated with ppl with SCI above which level?

A

T6

118
Q

pt was diagnosed with cancer 2 months ago, what information would be most valuable when establishing POC?

A

TNM classification/staging of caner

119
Q

Is Addison’s or Cushing’s hypoplasia of the adrenal cortex?

A

Addison’s

120
Q

If in a hospital and pt’s toes coming out of a cast are discolored, what should the PT do?

A

Remove the cast

121
Q

Long term goals developed for a child in the school system typically follow what timeframe?

A

1 year-federal legislation mandates the review of an IEP on a one year basis.

122
Q

Land marks for measuring Q angle

A

ASIS, midpoint of patella, tibial tubercle

123
Q

A cosmetically desirable prosthetic for an older adult in a retirement community, following transtibial amputation

A

Endoskeletal shank with a SACH foot (foot will be light, and since retired don’t have to worry about wear, otherwise would use a single axic ankle)

124
Q

1 MET is how much oxygen per what/

A

3.5 mL O2 per kg body weight

125
Q

Simple sample vs
Systematic vs
Cluster vs
Stratified random

A

Simple: probability, every element of the pop has a chance of being chosen
Systematic: probability, elements are chosen from lists of population members using intervals such as every 4th element
Cluster: probability, large subgroups are randomly selected first, then smaller units selected from the clusters. Potential for sampling error since requires two or more samples to be drawn
Stratified: probability, homogenous groups based on some characteristic, elements chosen at random, decreases sampling error

126
Q

Most common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids:

A

increased BP

127
Q

What is the minimum required testing interval for electrical equipment?

A

12 months

128
Q

The numeric pain rating scale is what type of scale?

A

Ordinal

129
Q

Difference between interval and ratio scale?

A

Both have defined differences between points but interval does not have an absolute zero (eg temp) whereas ratio does (ROM, weight, height, force)

130
Q

The spine of the scap corresponds to which vertebral level?

A

T3

131
Q

What is a posterior leaf spring orthosis designed for?

A

PF and DF, good for a person who has medial lateral stability but needs support for PF and DF

132
Q

Type of propulsion adaptation to a manula WC most appropriate for a person with C5 SCI?

A

handrim projections

friction surface handrims more appropriate for C6-7

133
Q

Which type of body movement would most likely facilitate elbow extension a pt with hemiplegia?

A

Turn head to the affected side (like ATNR)

134
Q

How is core temp and O2 consumption affected in people with severe burns?

A

Core temp increases due to increased metabolic activity-warming the room can help decrease this.
O2 consumption/minute ventilation can increase up to 5 times

135
Q

If pt sustains ____% burns on body, electrolyte replacement is part of immediate medical management

A

20%

136
Q

Bobath vs brunnstrom in terms of reflex mvmt patterns

A

Bobath: NDT, avoid reflex mvmt patterns and associated reactions
Brunnstrom: created and define the term synergy, encourage immediately practicing synergy, then practice moving outside of it

137
Q

Delayed and limited knee flexion after heel strike on prosthetic side, likely cause?

A

heel wedge too soft

138
Q

A traction force of ____ to ____ lbs is recommended when initiating mechanical lumbar traction

A

25-50

139
Q

How far should you lower the tilt table if person has signs or orthostatic hypotension

A

all the way baby!