Modalities, Safety, Professional Responsibilities, Research Flashcards

1
Q

Stand pivot transfer:
Patients with unilateral weight-bearing restrictions or hemiplegia should lead with the _________ side, while a patient post-CVA should lead with the _________ side (involved, uninvolved).

A

Uninvolved

Involved (therapeutically)

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2
Q

Standard wheelchair measurements for proper fit, and average adult size: Seat depth

A

Subtract 2 inches from buttock to popliteal fold

16 in

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3
Q

Standard wheelchair measurements for proper fit, and average adult size: Seat width

A

Add 2 inches to widest aspect of butt, hip, thigh

18 inches

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4
Q

Standard wheelchair measurements for proper fit, and average adult size: Back height

A

Subtract 4 inches from the seat of the chair to floor of the axilla, so it is below the inferior angle of the scapula
16-16.5 inches

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5
Q

Standard wheelchair measurements for proper fit, and average adult size: Armrest height

A

Add 1 inch from seat of chair to olecranon process when arm flexed at 90.
9 inches

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6
Q

The handgrip of axillary crutches/cane should be at what level when the pt is standing?

A

Ulnar syloid

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7
Q

Where should axillary crutches be positioned when fitting them to a pt?

A

6 inches in front, 2 inches lateral

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8
Q

Crutch height should be no more than _____ finger widths from the axilla

A

3

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9
Q

Lofstrand crutches: proper fit means ____ to ____ of elbow flexion

A

20-25 with crutches places 6 in in front and 2 in lateral

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10
Q

Hickman catheter: where, what is it used for

A

Indwelling R atrial catheter, via sup. vena cava. Used for long-term administration of substances into teh venous system such as chemo, nutrition, antibiotics

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11
Q

Swan-Ganz catheter: where, what is it used for

A

inserted through a vein to a pulmonary artery

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12
Q

The 2 modalities that transfer heat by conversion

A

Diathermy, U/S

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13
Q

The 3 modalities that transfer heat by radiation

A

Infrared, Laser, UV light

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14
Q

An area of ___ to ___ cm can be covered in 5-10 minutes for ice massage

A

10-15

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15
Q

The series of sensations for ice massage

A

intense cold, burning, aching, analgesia

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16
Q

A cold pack should be applied for ____ min for msk conditions, _____ for spasticity reduction, checked every _____ minutes

A

20, 30, 10

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17
Q

Cold bath temp should range from ____ to ___ degrees

A

55-64 F

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18
Q

Hot packs are stored between ____ and _____ deg F
Fluidotherapy
Paraffin

A

158 and 167
100-118
113-122

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19
Q

Check skin every ____ min for hot pack

A

5

20
Q

How many towel layers for hot pack?

A

6-8

21
Q

Ultrasound: Effective radiating area vs spatial averaged intensity vs spatial-peak intensity, vs beam nonuniformity ratio

A

ERA: are of the transducer that transmits energy, is always small than the size of the head.
Spatial averaged intensity: the intensity of the U/S beam averaged over the are of the transducer (Watts/cm2).
Peak: intensity of the beam at its highest point
BNR: ratio between the spatial peak intensity and the spacial averaged intensity, lower is better, usually 5:1 to 6:1, can range from from 2:1 to 8:1

22
Q

Why would one use a lower duty cycle like 20% for U/S?

A

For nonthermal effects:
increased cell permeability, increased intracellular calcium levels, facilitation of tissue repair, promotion of normal cell function. Resulting from cavitation (bubbles)

23
Q

An area ___ to ____ times the size of the transducer typically requires 5 minutes of U/S time

A

2-3

24
Q

The most common frequency used for shortwave diathermy is _____MHz

A

27.12

25
Q

When would one choose diathermy vs U/S?

A

Diathermy can heat up to 25 times the size of the U/S area, static application so heat more uniform, rate of tissue cooling is slower, so additional time to perform interventions with warm tissue

26
Q

The types of Hydrotherapy equipment

1) Extremity Tank
2) Lowboy
3) Highboy
4) Hubbard
5) therapeutic poo

A

1) about 10-45 gallons
2) permits long sitting
3) permits sitting in chest-high water with the hips and knees flexed
4) full body immersion (4x8 ft) temp shouldn’t exceed 100 degrees

27
Q

When would you use 25% body weight for lumbar traction, when would you use 50%

A

25% for soft tissue stretch and discs

50% to separate the actual joints

28
Q

Cervical traction angles for upper, mid and lower cervical spine

A

upper: 0-5
mid: 10-20
lower: 25-25

29
Q

A force of ___ to ___ % of pts body weight would be adequate to stretch soft tissue and discs while ____ to ____% body weight would be good for joint distraction for cervical traction

A

7-10% (10-15lbs)

13-20% (20-30lbs)

30
Q

Definition of current, voltage, and resistance

A

Current: directed flow of charge, amperes
Voltage: electrical potential difference, volts
Resistance: voltage/current, ohms

31
Q

What is a monophasic vs biphasic current

A

monophasic: non-continuous direct current
biphasic: non-continuous indirect current

32
Q

Definition of amplitude

A

magnitude of current

33
Q

Frequency for NMES

A

35-50 pulses per second usually required to produce a tetanic contraction, higher won’t produce stronger contraction but will increase fatigue

34
Q

Acetic acid for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Calcific deposits, myositis ossificans

Negative

35
Q

Calcium chloride for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Scar tissue, keloids, muscle spasms

Negative

36
Q

Copper sulfate for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Fungal infection

Positive

37
Q

Dexamathasone for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Inflammation

Negative

38
Q

Iodine for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Scars, adhesive capsulitis

Negative

39
Q

Lidocaine for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Analgesia, inflammation

Positive

40
Q

Magnesium sulfate for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Muscle spasms, ischemia

Positive

41
Q

Salicylates for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Muscle/jt pain, plantar warts

Negative

42
Q

Zinc oxide for Iontophoresis, indications, polarity

A

Healing, dermal ulcers, wounds

Positive

43
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

acquired during a hospitalization.

44
Q

What is asepsis?

A

Elimination of microorganisms that cause infection

45
Q

The 5 titles of the ADA

A
I: Employment
II: Public Services
III: Public Accommodations
IV: Telecommunications
V: Misc