psych2 Flashcards
1
Q
What’s selective vs. divided attention?
A
Selective attention refers to the process by which we focus on one aspect in our environment while ignoring others.
Divided attention is multitasking.
2
Q
What is cocktail party effect?
A
The cocktail party effect is a specific instance in which we may suddenly shift our attention to something that was previously ignored because of some cue that draws our attention
3
Q
What is controlled versus. automatic processing?
A
Controlled processing requires attention (studying), while automatic processing does not (brushing teeth).
4
Q
What does Information processing theory include?
A
1) thinking- includes perception of stimuli, encoding stimuli and storage of info.
2) analysis of stimuli - part of decision making, stimuli are altered and analyzed by brain.
3) Situational modification: stored decision making and problem solving experiences from past can be extrapolated t solve new problems.
4) Obstacle evaluation: individual’s skill level in problem solving does not depend solely on cognitive development level but largely on nature and context of problem/ obstacle.
5
Q
Who is Jean Piaget ?
A
Father of developmental psychology and major contributor to cognitive theory.
6
Q
What are schemas? what did JP believe about them?
A
Piaget believes schemas were an important part of how we learn. Schemas are patterns of thought that we use to create categories of information or behavior and to understand the relationship that exists among those categories.
7
Q
What are real life examples of schemas?
A
1) outline plan to do well at school.
2) Schema of what fits in description of dog.
8
Q
What are Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
A
1) sensorimotor (0-2 years old)- coordination of senses with motor response.
2) pre operational (2-7)- symbolic thinking + use of proper syntax and grammar. Strong intuition and imagination.
3) concrete operational (7-11years old) - concepts attached ton concrete situations. Understand time, space an quantity.
4) formal operational (+11) theoretical, counterfactual and hypothetical thinking. Strategy and planning become possible.
9
Q
What are age related physical changes in the brain?
A
Brain shrinks in size and neural plasticity decreases.
10
Q
What is neural plasticity?
A
Brain’s ability to change structure and function to accommodate new memories, make new connections and create new motor skills.
11
Q
What kind of memory do you lose as you age?
A
working memory, rote memory but not semantic memory.
12
Q
What structure of the brain loses neurons t the fastest rate?
A
Frontal lobe and corpus callossum lose neurons at the fastest rate. Cerebellum loses 25% of neurons.
13
Q
What are barriers to effective Problem solving?
A
1) mental set= predetermined mental framework for approaching a problem’ relying on approaches and solutions that have worked in the past.
2) Functional Fixedness: example of a mental set in which, when solving a problem, we can only visualize using an object or tool in the ways we have seen it used previously.
14
Q
Explain Duncker’s candle problem and provide a conceptual definition for functional fixedness. Provide two additional real-life examples of functional fixedness.
A
Duncker’s candle problem is a task that is used to determine how certain types of cognitive bias might influence one’s ability to solve a problem. During this task, individuals are asked to fix a burning candle to a corkboard without dripping wax onto a table.
he individuals are provided (or are shown a picture of) a book of matches, a box of thumbtacks, and a candle. The correct solution is to empty the box of thumbtacks, secure the box to the wall using the thumbtacks, place the candle in the box, and to light the candle. Many people struggle in solving this task because they cannot conceive of using the box of thumbtacks for anything other than pinning something to a cork board.
15
Q
What’s cognitive bias?(3)
A
An error in thinking that leads to inaccuracy, illogical thought, a lack of objectivity, a failure to consider all available options or consequences, a prejudice toward one approach or outcome.
16
Q
What are approaches to PS? (3)
A
1) Trial and Error: try, test, multiple and discover what works and what doesn’t- this is only effective when there are relatively few available options.
2) Algorithms: Mathematical formulat or step by step, flowchart like approach.
3) Heuristics: “Rules of Thumb”- heuristics can be helpful in problem solving, but can also cause functional fixedness and a lack of cognitive flexibility.
4) intuition: one’s gut feeling - unconsciously applying heuristic or mental set.
5) deductive reasoning: conclusions ar gebased on assumed premises aka TOP DOWN processing.
6) inductive reasoning: BOTTOM UP processing.
17
Q
In approaches to PS; there’s three types of heuristics, what are they?
A
1) representative heuristics: reliance on prototypes or stereotypes as a shortcut to making a decision or judgment.
2) availability heuristic: favoring the most easily recalled or imagined solution as a shortcut to making a decision or judgment.
3) Anchoring and adjustment heuristic: giving higher priority o the very first piece of information received and/or framing subsequent information around it.
18
Q
Label the following as examples of inductive or deductive reasoning. Justify your answers. a) Some people believe dogs are more intelligent than cats. My dog can play fetch, but my cat cannot. Therefore, dogs are smarter than cats.
b) The veterinarian visited all of the horses in the county last week. All of the horses the veterinarian visited were brown. Therefore, all of the horses in the county are brown.
A
a) inductive
b) deductive
19
Q
what’s confirmation bias?
A
the tendency to interpret new evidence as confirmation of one’s existing beliefs or theories.
20
Q
what’s overconfidence?
A
the quality of being too confident; excessive confidence.
21
Q
what’s belief perseverance?
A
People tend to hold on to their beliefs even when it appears that they shouldn’t. Belief perseverance is the tendency to cling to one’s initial belief even after receiving new information that contradicts or dis- confirms the basis of that belief.
22
Q
wha’t base rate fallacy?
A
also called base rate neglect or base rate bias, is a formal fallacy. If presented with related base rate information (i.e. generic, general information) and specific information (information only pertaining to a certain case), the mind tends to ignore the former and focus on the latter.
23
Q
1) Suppose it is discovered that the kidney has a hormone function that was previously unknown and is currently the subject of further investigation. A researcher exhibiting functional fixedness is likely to favor which new kidney function? A) Secretion of gonadotropins B) Secretion of oxytocin C) Regulation of aldosterone levels D) Regulation of triiodothyronine levels
A
C- The functional fixedness bias suggests that a person has a hard time visualizing a tool or object as having a use or application different from the one with which they are accustomed. Applied to kidney function, researchers would be biased toward a new kidney function that is closely related to what they normally expect the kidney to do.
24
Q
what is spreading activation?
A
remembering words that are associated to a lit of words previously seen but not there. method for searching associative networks neural networks or semantic networks.
25
what's proactive interference?
previously stored memories
26
What is Gardner's theory of intelligence? what are the attributes?
Argues there's 8 types of intelligence + Against the Western idea that there's two intelligence (the last two).
1) Visual-Spatial
2) Bodily-Kinesthetic
3) Musical
4) Interpersonal
5) Intrapersonal
6) Naturalistic (added by Gardner later, some texts report only seven intelligences)
7) Linguistic
8) Logical-Mathematical
27
What is Galton's argument on intelligence?
argues that individual heritage characteristics contributed to intelligence as much s any gene contributed to physical traits.
Nature NOT Nurture
28
What is eugenics?
any belief or meths or practice designed to improve the genetic makeup of the human race, usually by preventing the birth, reproduction rate or survival of individuals deemed to have less desirable genes" (aka black). UNETHICAL
29
What is Separman's general intelligence concept?
g factor- argus that general intelligence was the bedrock intellect from which all other forms of intelligence are developed.
30
What is the Binet Simon intelligence scale? what is the equivalent today?
Binet and Simon were the first to develop an intelligence scale and the concept of mental age vs. chronological age.
His purpose was to identify children who needed extra educational help or attention in school.
Today: use the Stanford-Binet IQ test
31
What trend does intelligence follow?
Normal distribution/ Gaussian distribution.
32
How is IQ measured?
IQ= (mental age/ chronological age) 100
33
What are IQ correlations?
```
Intelligence is influenced by both genetic and environmental factors.
IQ is positively correlated with:
- high level of parental expectations
-higher socioeconomic status
-early educational intervention
-adequate nutrition
```
34
What brain region is alertness with?
reticular formation of brain stimulates prefrontal cortex to maintain alertness.
35
What are the four difference waves and what is each associated with? What is the order of decreasing wave frequency ?
Alpha= very relaxed, meditating.
Beta= awake and alert
Theta= Light sleep
Delta= Deep sleep
Beta > alpha> theta> delta
36
what is important about delta waves?
On EEG it looks like alpha waves because of REM sleep.
37
What happens when you lose function of reticule formation?
Coma
38
What is a regular state of rest and reduced consciousness called?
circadian rhythm
39
Are cortisol levels higher when a person is awake or asleep?
awake and alert
40
What are the four stages of sleep?
1) Stage one= Falling asleep, EEG is mix of alpha and theta waves.
2) Stage two= Deeper sleep, EEG is theta waves mixed with sleep spindles and K complexes.
3) Transitional, EEG is mostly theta waves but delta waves beginto appear.
4) Deep sleep, often called "delta sleep" because the EEG contains slow delta waves.
41
How is Rapid Eye movement (REM) characterized?
Most vivid dreams are thought to occur during REM sleep.
42
What is paradoxical sleep?
phrase used to describe ironic fact that during REM sleep, alertness, heart rate, breathing and EEG patterns are nearly that of wakefulness and yet one's muscles are paralyzed.
43
What are physiological effects of chronic sleep deprivation?
Positively correlated with decreased cognitive functioning, depression and multiple chronic diseases, such as heart disease, high blood pressure, obesity and diabetes.
44
What are dyssomnias?
Difficulty falling asleep (insomnia), staying asleep (sleep apnea) or avoiding sleep (narcolepsy).
45
What is Narcolepsy?
Chronic neurological disorder caused by autoimmune attack of the neurons that release hypocretin - a hormone that normally regulates sleep- wake cycles.
46
What is cataplexy?
Sudden, transient periods of muscle weakness or paralysis during which the patient remains fully conscious and aware..
47
What are parasomnias?
abnormal movements, behavior, perceptions, or emotions during sleep.
48
Suppose a patient is taking an experimental steroid-derived drug suspected to be a steroid antagonist. The patient complains of difficulty sleeping at night and difficulty staying awake during the day. A medical student suggests the drug may be interfering with the normal action of melatonin. Is the student’s suggestion a plausible explanation for these observations? Why or why not?
Plausible: the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus is involved in the regulation of cortisol secretion from the adrenal glands and melatonin secretion from the pineal gland. Drugs with steroidal activity might affect the timing of the release of each of these hormones that could interfere with sleep.
49
2) A recent study reported that compared to the children of upper class families, children from families of government-defined low socioeconomic status are twice as likely to report night terrors. This suggests that the children of:
A) wealthy parents are more likely to experience nighttime elevations in blood pressure.
B) wealthy parents are less likely to experience nighttime elevations in blood pressure.
C) poor parents are more likely to have constricted pupils when they awake from a night terror.
D) poor parents are less likely to have dilated pupils when they awake from a night terror.
Night terrors are associated with elevated blood pressure, dilated pupils- B
50
What is Freud's psychoanalytic theory on dreams?
Dreams are expressions of unconscious desires, thoughts and motivations. Dreams can serve as a virtual for of wish fulfillment.
51
What is Hall's cognitive theory's on dreams?
Dreams are a conceptualizations of our experiences; they are visualizations of our thoughts and perceptions about five concepts: our self, others, the world around us, morals, conflict.
52
How is Information processing theory related to dreams?
Memories and information accumulated during the dare as consolidated during sleep. Dreaming is the cerebral cortex is associating images or meaning with this consolidations process.
53
How is process solving theory related to dreams?
Dreams are a way for the mind to solve problems encountered while awake. Some proponents suggest the unconscious dreaming mind is better suited or more capable of solving problems than the awake mind- unrestricted by reality or more sensitive to subtle clues.
54
How is activation synthesis theory related to dreams?
The limbic system is randomly active during sleep, mimicking incoming stimuli. Dreams are an attempt by the cerebral cortex to synthesize and interpret this activity in a logical way.
55
What is hypnosis?
A trance like state under which a person becomes highly suggestible. It is induced by a therapist and can serve to recall repressed memories, control pain or stop undesirable behavior (weight loss, addictions).
56
What is meditation?
An intentionally altered state of consciousness intended to improve focus or overall well being. Meditation has beens showed to be associated with a relaxed, slower wave state of arousal reproducible on an EEG.
57
What are the five drug types?
1) Depressants: alcohol, barbiturates, benzodiazepines --> agonize GABA neurotransmission
2) stimulants: amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy --> agonists of the monoamine neurotransmitters (like dopamine)
3) hallucinogens: LSD, peyote, mushrooms, ... --> euphoria, high levels of dopamine ?
4) Pain Killers: opiates, opioids --> pronounced analgesic properties and act on the opioid system in the brain.
5) MJ: various effects.
58
Alcohol is known to increase the activity of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA in the brain. If GABA binds a membrane receptor that allows Cl- ions to flow through the axon membrane into the nerve cell, what is the likely effect of alcohol on: a) the voltage difference across the axon membrane? Will it be more negative compared to resting potential or more positive? and b) the magnitude of the stimulus required to initiate an action potential? Will the neuron require a stronger stimulus to reach threshold potential, or will it reach threshold under a weaker stimulus?
As Cl- ions moved into the cell, one would expect the axonal membrane to become hyperpolarized (or more negative relative to resting potential). This would create a situation in which a depolarizing stimulus would have to be larger in magnitude to move the cell membrane towards the threshold potential.
59
How dies drug addition stimulate reward pathway?
drug addition stimulates dopamine based reward pathway in limbic system of brain.
60
3) The LD50 value is the amount of a drug in milligrams that results in the death of 50% of lab animals administered that dosage. Large doses of a benzodiazepine, a barbiturate, and gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (GHB), a drug used to treat narcolepsy, were administered to rats. If GHB has the lowest LD50 of the three drugs, and the benzodiazepine used has the highest LD50:
A) GHB is safer than the barbiturate or the benzodiazepine at supra-therapeutic doses.
B) GHB is more dangerous than the barbiturate or the benzodiazepine at supra-therapeutic doses.
C) Benzodiazepine is more dangerous than the barbiturate or GHB at supra-therapeutic doses.
D) Benzodiazepine is more dangerous than GHB at supra-therapeutic doses, but more information is
necessary to rank the relative safety of the barbiturate.
B
61
What are three theories of language development?
1) learning: asserts that we are born without any knowledge of language and that we learn language through classical learning mechanisms and through observational learning.
2) nativist: asserts that humans are prewired for language at birth
and that language will naturally emerge as we grow and interact with our environments.
3) interactionist: asserts that language acquisition occurs in predictable, fixed stages of development.
62
What is difference between semantic and pragmatic?
Semantics deal with the meaning of language and involve issues about how meaning is changed as a function of the relationship among the words that are used.
Pragmatics refers to the ability to competently use language appropriately in any given social context.
63
What is broca' area identified with?
motor aspects of speech (moving lips,...)
64
What is Wernicke's area?
Language comprehension
65
How do Broca and Wernicke's area communicate?
Arcuate fascicles - allows integration
66
What are the three primary components of emotions?
1) subjective experience: subjective interpretation of the mood or feeling experienced by individual.
2) physiological response: physiological changes in heart rate, blood pressure, breathing and skin temperature observed in the individual experiencing the emotion.
3) Behavioral Response: Facial expressions or body language that accompany the expression of emotion.
67
What are Edman's seven universal emotions?
- fear
- anger
- happiness
- surprise
- joy
- disgust
- sadness
68
what is James Lange's theory of emotion?
states that emotions arise from physiological arousal. In other words, we only experience fear because of the activation of the sympathetic nervous system upon encountering a threatening stimulus.
69
what is cannon- bard theory of emotion?
asserted that the physiological arousal and emotional experience occur at the same time. In other words, fear is felt at the exact same time that sympathetic nervous system activation occurs.
70
What is Schachter Singer theory?
posits that emotions are composed of 2 factors: a physiological component and a cognitive component.
71
What is limbic system associated with?
region of brain most directly tied to the emotion/ motivation
72
What are the 8 components of limbic system?
- amygdala
- thalamus
- hypothalamus
- hippocampus
- corpus callous
- fornix
- septal nuclei
- cingulate gyrus
73
What are physiological markers of emotion?
1) skin temperature
2) skin conductivity
3) heart rate
4) blood pressure
74
What is appraisal?
How an individual cognitively appraises a potentially stressful situation.
75
What is primary appraisal?
Initial evaluation of potential threat. It is suggested that we judge the potential threat to be either; irrelevant (unimportant), benign-positive, stressful.
76
what are secondary appraisal?
If the threat is determined to be stressful, the individual next judges whether he or she has the resources to cope with the stress.
77
what are childhood stressors?
abuse, neglect, exposure to violence.
78
what are adult stressors?
major stressful life event --> frequently precedes first episode of depression.
79
What are physiological response to stressors?
initial response= stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.
80
What are 3 general adaptation syndrome?
1) Alarm stage
2) Resistance stage
3) exhaustion stage
81
what type of emotions result from emotional stress?
negative moods and emotions such as fear, anger, moodiness, irritability, etc...
82
What type of behavior result from emotional stress?
negative behavior such as increased substance abuse, social withdrawal, aggression, mental health problems.
83
What are the two ways to manage stress?
1) Problem solving approach: find solutions, obtain help, stress prevention plan...
2) emotional approach: change how you feel about the stressor through positive thinking, taking personal responsibility, internal locus of control.
84
What are proven tools for stress management?
exercise, relaxation spirituality.
85
What is the instinct theory of motivation?
behavior is motivated by evolutionary instincts.
86
what is the arousal theory of motivation?
behavior is motivated by desire to maintain an optimum level of physiological arousal. That optimum level varies among individuals.
87
which part of the brain is associated with arousal?
reticular activating system
88
What are drive reduction theories (primary and secondary)
Behavior is motivated by the desire to reduce or eliminate an uncomfortable or undesirable internal state.
Primary drives involve physiological needs for survival (e.g. food, water, and sex). Secondary drives take on their motivating force because they have been associated with and/or provide access to the basic needs listed above (e.g. money, social status, and fame).
89
What is Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
It's a triangle, form bottom to top:
1) physiological needs:: breathing, food, water, sex,..
2) security: of body, employment, health, property,...
3) Love/ belonging to friends, family, community, ...
4) self esteem: confidence, achievement, respect for and by others,...
5) Self actualization: morality, creativity, ..
90
Explain the ERG Theory and how it relates to Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs. What do the two approaches share in common and how do they differ?
The ERG theory essentially distills Maslow’s needs into three different categories: existence needs, relatedness needs, and growth needs. The existence needs combine Maslow’s physiological and safety needs into one category. Relatedness needs combine portions of Maslow’s love/belonging needs and esteem needs. Growth needs combine portions of Maslow’s esteem needs and self-actualization needs. While these two approaches are very similar, one striking difference is that ERG theory presents these needs in an ordinal fashion. While Maslow
thought an individual would need to satisfy lower level needs before moving on to higher needs, this is not the case in ERG theory because an individual can be motivated by needs from each category simultaneously.
91
What is self determination theory?
A third need based theory emphasizing the motivational importance of three basic need:
- autonomy
- competence
- relatedness
92
what is incentive theory?
Behavior is motivated by a desire to obtain rewards or to avoid punishments.
93
what is cognitive theory?
behavior is motivated by thinking; including plans, goals, expectations, perceptions and attributions.
94
what is intrinsic versus extrinsic motivation?
intrinsic motivation is the drive to act based upon personal, internal unseen motives.
extrinsic motivation is the drive to act based upon external rewards or stimuli.
95
Label the following as examples of extrinsic or intrinsic motivation: a) a person works hard at their job to avoid being fired, b) a student studies diligently for the MCAT to earn a good score, c) a student works hard as a volunteer because they enjoy the work and hope to earn a permanent position, d) a person reads a book to relax at the end of a long day at work, e) a professor increases a student’s grade from an A- to an A because of the hard work he has seen the student invest throughout the semester.
a) extrinsic
b) intrinsic
c) intrinsic/ extrinsic
d) intrinsic
e) intrinsic
96
What is expectancy value theory?
Aspect of cognitive motivational theory; the magnitude of one's motivation to engage in a behavior is a function of an interplay between an individual's 1) expectation of success and 2) perception of the relative value of the rewards associated wit success.
97
Use Expectancy-Value Theory to rank the following behaviors according to increasing level of motivation: a) purchasing a lottery ticket to win $10,000,000, b) winning a cereal- box sweepstakes among millions of entrants to claim the grand prize of a Secret Decoder Ring c) winning a golf tournament playoff against one opponent for the grand prize of $1,000,000, d) beating your co-worker one-on-one in basketball, having agreed that the loser will buy lunch.
29. The expectancy value theory of motivation asserts that individuals are more likely to exert effort to accomplish the task if they believe that they have a chance for success and if the task is viewed as valuable. Given this understanding, any task for which an individual believes that there would be a low probability of success would not engender much in the way of motivation.
c >d> b>a
98
```
4) Which perspective is most relevant for illustrating the relationship between a lack of adequate financial resources and an urgent and primary motivation to obtain employment?
A) Arousal theory
B) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
C) Instinct theory
D) Drive-reduction theory
```
d- problem/drive is no money
| reduction: seeking job
99
What are the biological and sociocultural motivators
- hunger
- sex drive
- substance addiction
100
What is opponent process theory?
Opponent-process theory is centered on homeostatic principles. Whenever we take some substance this creates a physiological and psychological state that pushes us away from the norm.
101
What is attitude? What are the three primary components of attitude?
A learned tendency to evaluate things in a certain way.
1) Cognitive= how you THINK about something or somebody.
2) Affective (emotional)= how you FEEL about something or somebody
3) Behavioral= How you BEHAVE toward or with respect to, somebody, or something.
102
What is the functional attitude theory?
theory asserting that attitudes serve three positive functions:
- knowledge: attitudes give us valuable information about other people.
- ego- expressive: attitudes are one route through which we express our self-identity.
- Adaptive: socially acceptable attitudes provide an adaptive advantage in society much like certain random mutations provide an evolutionary advantage.
103
How are attitude and behavior related?
Absent any strong external influences, attitude generally guides behavior. The more strongly held the attitude, the more directly and quickly it will determine behavior.
104
How does behavior influences attitude?
People tend to have a positive attitude toward behaviors they exhibit themselves, or toward things in which they personally participate. Clearly, the behavior of others impacts our attitudes about them.
105
What is self-perception theory?
Suggests that actions influence attitudes because people infer their attitudes by observing their own behavior.
106
What is Foot in door phenomenon?
People are more likely to agree to a larger or more difficult request if they first agree to a smaller request. In this case, the behavior of the person making the request changes the attitude of the person being asked to do something.
107
What is role playing effects?
A person acting out a role is likely to internalize the attitudes associated with that role. In this case, one’s own behavior (acting a part) directly impacts, almost determines, the attitudes they will hold.
108
what is zimbardo's prison study?
A psychologist staged interactions between two groups of college students, one group playing the role of prison guards, and the other the role of prisoners. Within only six days, the attitudes of the “guards” had become so harsh and domineering, and the attitudes of the “prisoners” had become so despondent, defiant, or depressed, that Zimbardo ended the study prematurely on ethical grounds.
109
What are cognitive dissonance theory?
A state of unpleasant psychological tension experienced when one holds two attitudes or beliefs that are in conflict with one another. A person is likely to ease the tension by changing their attitude or belief to remove the conflict. This case illustrates that our behaviors are often in conflict with our attitudes.
110
When is a person more likely to behave in a way that matches their attitudes?
- holds attitude as result of personal experience
- is an expert in the subject
- frequently expresses the attitude
- has a risk of gaining or losing something based on the outcome.
111
What is learning theory of attitude change?
attitudes can be changed by learning. Includes classical conditioning, operant conditioning, observational learning.
112
what is dissonance theory of attitude change?
People change their attitudes because they feel cognitive dissonance, as a method to reduce that discomfort.
113
What is elaboration-likelihood model of attitude change?
theory to explain how attitudes are formed and changed and is often discussed in the context of persuading someone to change their attitudes about a given situation.
114
What is social cognitive theory of attitude change?
predicts that attitudes will change because of observational learning experienced by the person doing the changing. It is important to note, however, that social-cognitive theory is not ONLY about modeling.
115
What is Carl Hovland's proposed characteristic model?
attitude change is best accomplished when we consider the characteristics of the target, the source, the message as well as cognitive routes.
116
In Hovland's what is characteristic model of target?
Target is the person receiving/ processing the message. Higher intelligence= less likely to be persuaded by shallow or one side messages, more likely to response to reasoning logic.
117
In Hovland's what is characteristic model of source?
person or source delivering the message. Attractiveness, expertise, trustworthiness= increased likelihood of persuading target.
Credibility= strong positive correlation with successful target persuasion.
118
In Hovland's characteristic model of message?
The actual words, images, or other information presented to the target. Balance (presentation of both sides of an issue) = Increased likelihood of persuasion.
119
In Hovland's characteristic model of cognitive routes?
The nature of the approach to persuasion. Main Route = Presentation of data/information to target and asking them to change their mind after evaluating the information. Peripheral Route = Suggesting the target ignore data/information and decide based upon the reliability of the source. Ex: celebrity endorsements utilize this approach.
120
What is self esteem?
A person’s overall sense of self-worth or personal value. Relatively stable and enduring.
121
How is self esteem different from other self terms?
It is a valuation judgment of one's.
| --> My value
122
Provide a conceptual definition of the following terms: actual self, ought self, ideal self. How do these three terms relate to the concept of self-esteem?
* The actual self is our self-concept. It’s who we (or others) think we are and which attributes we (or others) think that we possess.
* The ideal/ ought self serves as internal “guides” for the self-concept to be measured against. The ought self is a representation of characteristics that we (or others) think we ought to possess.
* The ideal self is a representation of characteristics that we (or others) would ideally like to possess.
* Again, when there are discrepancies between the actual self and the ought or ideal self, we experience emotional discomfort that can contribute to lowered self-esteem. However, these discrepancies might also serve as motivation to move the actual self towards the ought or ideal self and ultimately a higher level of emotional satisfaction and self-esteem.
123
What is self image?
A persistent mental picture of one's appearance and personality, including observable traits (height, weight, hair color, gender, ...) and self-knowledge derived from experience or internalization
124
How is self image different from other self terms?
mental picture of my own personal
| --> think My appearance
125
what is self identity?
this descriptive characteristics, qualities, abilities that people use to define themselves.
126
how is self identity different from other self terms?
how i define myself
| think: my idea of who i am
127
How is identity described?
Those descriptive characteristics, qualities, and abilities that make a person unique or different relative to others, especially in relation to, or within, social contexts.
self identity + group identities
128
how is identity different from other self term?
how i am defined by myself, others and in various situations
--> think Who I am
129
What are self schemas?
A pre-existing organized pattern of thought (cognitive framework) about oneself that is used to categorize or process information. Self, schemas, like schemas generally, can be helpful, but can also result in bias or omission of information.
130
how is self schemas different from other self terms?
my cognitive framework about myself
| think how my ideas of who i am sed to categorize new information.
131
What is self efficacy?
the strength of a person's belief in their own abilities.
132
How is self efficacy different from other self terms?
what am I capable of doing?
| think my abilities
133
What is self concept?
A collection of beliefs and self perceptions about one's own nature, unique qualities, and typical behavior
134
how is self concept different from other self terms?
collective mental picture of oneself
| think: my total conception of myself.
135
What is Carl Rogers' proposed ways to think about self concept?
1) self image
2) self esteem
3) the ideal self- who I wish I could be.
136
What are characteristics of external locus of control?
tend to be more prone to low self esteem and even depression.
137
What are characteristics of people with internal locus of control?
happier, higher self esteem.
138
Are the following individuals evaluating their behavior using an internal or n external locus of control? a) A premedical student received a subpar score on the MCAT. He is quick to point out that he was asked to work extra hours at work the week before his exam and the exam room was too cold; b) Another premedical student, who took the Altius MCAT Course, earns a subpar score. She remembers being shown the correlation graph between program adherence and MCAT score. She opines, “I should have studied harder and done more of the program requirements”; c) After losing a basketball game the coach is interviewed and states the following; “I should have had our players ready and I did not. We need to practice harder this week and improve our free-throw percentage”; d) Another coach is interviewed following a loss and complains that poor refereeing gave their opponent an unfair disadvantage.
a) external
b) internal
c) internal
d) external
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What is Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
1) pre conventional morality
2) conventional morality
3) post conventional morality
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Q35. According to Kohlberg’s theory, assign a stage of moral development to the following reasons for paying one’s taxes: a) If no one paid their taxes, society would not be able to provide necessities such as roads, military protection, and emergency services, b) Not paying my taxes would be wrong, c) I pay my taxes so that I will qualify for tax rebates and refunds, d) It is immoral for one citizen to benefit from the contributions of his neighbors without contributing his fair share, e) If I do not pay my taxes, I will go to jail, f) All Americans have a right to live in a free society. I pay my taxes so that the federal government can afford to protect and secure individual rights.
A) Conventional moral reasoning B) Conventional moral reasoning C) Pre-conventional moral reasoning D) Post-conventional moral reasoning E) Pre-conventional moral reasoning F) Post- conventional moral reasoning
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What is Ericsson's theory of psychosocial development? what are different stages?
Each stage presents a different conflict between personal needs and social demands.
1) Trust vs. Mistrust (0-1.5yrs old)
2) Autonomy vs. Shame & Doubt (1.5 - 3yrs old)
3) Initiative vs. Guilt (3-5 yrs old)
4) Industry vs. Inferiority (5-12yrs old)
5) Identity vs. Role Confusion (12-18 yrs old)
6) Intimacy vs. Isolation (18-40 yrs old)
7) Generativity vs. Stagnation (40-65 yrs old)
8) Integrity vs. Despair (65+ yrs old)
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What are Freud's theory of psychosexual development?
1) Oral
2) Anal
3) Phallic
4) Latency
5) Genital
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what are freud's three structure of mind?
ID-" I want to do that now" instant gratification.
EGO- "Maybe we can compromise" rational pragmatic part
SUPERGO- "It's not right to do that" social rules and morals.
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Freud’s theories have many critics. The following individuals would disagree most strongly with which stage of Freud’s Theory of Psychosexual Development? Explain your answer. a) A woman who rejects the notion of penis envy, b) a gay rights activist, c) a psychologist who argues that an unusual focus on maintaining order is a positive trait rather than a neurosis.
A) This woman would disagree most strongly with Freud’s phallic stage because, according to Freud, this entire stage was driven in girls by the anxiety that they experience upon realizing that they do not have a penis. B) A gay rights activist would disagree most strongly with the genital stage because Freud viewed heterosexuality as the natural, healthy culmination of moving through the psychosexual stages of development. C) The psychologist would disagree most strongly with the anal stage because Freud believed that fixations at this stage would lead to neuroses characterized by an unhealthy concern with neatness and order.
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What is social identity?
A theory suggesting that individuals derive significant pride and self esteem from their group memberships. As a result
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What's imitation?
modeling and imitating others has an influence on identity formation.
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What is role taking?
adopting and acting out a particular social role, such as children playing cops and robbers or putting yourself in someone else's shoes.
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What is looking glass self?
Person's self concept is larger determined by how they believe others see them. The self is not a function of what we are, but what others think we are.
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What is group membership influence on identity formation??
One's identity is tightly associated with the groups to which one belongs; such as religion, nationalism, ethnicity,...
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What is culture and socialization influence on identity formation?
The expectations and norms of one's culture along with the socialization processes to which one is subject, provide a strong driving force during identity formation.
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what's a reference group?
any group to which a person usually compares him or herself.
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5) A researcher examines the Looking-glass Self Theory by asking subjects what they think others believe about them, and comparing this to a self-concept inventory. This an example of which study design?
A) cause-effect B) correlational C) meta-analysis D) experimental
B because comparing self reports to inventory
