psych 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the four lobes in the brain?

A

1) Frontal Lobe = Conscious movement (motor cortex), executive functions, language [1] (Broca’s area), reasoning, judgment, problem-solving, etc.
2) Parietal Lobe = Tactile sensation, spatial reasoning, some language [2]
3) Temporal Lobe = Hearing/language [2] (primary auditory cortex), memory (hippocampus)
4) Occipital Lobe = Vision (primary visual cortex)

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2
Q

what are the structures associated with the forebrain (prosencephalon)?

A

cerebral cortex, thalamus, hypothalamus, limbic system, basal ganglia,

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3
Q

what is the function of cerebral cortex?

A

executive functions, complex perception and cognition.

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4
Q

what is the function of thalamus?

A

consciousness (sleep/wake) relay between subcortical areas and cerebrum

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5
Q

what is the function of hypothalamus?

A

hunger thirst emotion (2*); major endocrine f(x) via releasing hormones to th pituitary gland.

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6
Q

what is the function of limbic system?

A

emotions (1) memory

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7
Q

what is the function of basal ganglia?

A

voluntary motor control, procedural memory.

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8
Q

what are the structures associated with the midbrain (mesencephalon)?

A

superior colliculi and inferior colliculi

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9
Q

what is the function of superior colliculi?

A

visual motor reflexes

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10
Q

what is the function of inferior colliculi?

A

auditory center hearing reflexes

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11
Q

what are the structures associated with the hindbrain (rhombencephalon)?

A

medulla oblongata, pons, cerebellum, reticular formation

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12
Q

what is the function of medulla oblongata?

A

breathing, heart rate, digestion

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13
Q

what is the function of pons?

A

sensory and motor tracts between medulla and cortex

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14
Q

what is the function of cerebellum?

A

balance regained motor movement

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15
Q

what is the function of reticular formation?

A

states of consciousness (sleep–> wake)

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16
Q

what is the function spinal cord?

A

reflexes bundled tracts to and from peripheral nervous system

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17
Q

What is the function of the pineal gland in the forebrain?

A

secretes melatonin, regulates sleep receives input from retina regarding circadian rhythms.

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18
Q

What is the function of the amygdala (forebrain, limbic system)?

A

emotion, motivation, implicit emotional memory

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19
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus (forebrain limbic system)?

A

memory consolidation from short term to long term.

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20
Q

What is the function of the posterior pituitary (forebrain) ?

A

secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH: vasopressin) and oxytocin

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21
Q

What is the function of the anterior pituitary?

A

secretes FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin and GH (FLAT PEG)

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22
Q
1) Herpes Simplex Encephalitis (HSE) is viral infection of the central nervous system caused by the same virus responsible for cold sores. Symptoms include memory loss, confusion, and personality change. Which portion of the brain is most directly impacted by HSE?
A) inferior colliculi
B) limbic system
C) medulla oblongata
D) cerebellum
A

B- The symptoms given may or may not be precise enough to identify an exact brain region. Memory loss could result from a loss of function of many different regions, as could the rather general term “confusion.” Personality change might infer emotional or motivational changes, which would lead one toward the limbic system, but the hypothalamus and the cerebral cortex also play important roles. This question is still fair, however, because all of the distractors are easily ruled out. Answer A, inferior colliculi, is very specific to auditory function. Answer C, medulla oblongata controls vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. Answer D is most commonly associated with balance and refined motor functions. Thus Answer B is the only possible answer. One may not feel confident it is the source, but it cannot be ruled out, and Answers A, C and D can be ruled out.

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23
Q

what are non invasive methods to study the brain?

A

Electroencephalography (EEG), Transcranial Direct Current Stimulation
(TDCS), Regional Cerebral Blood Flow (rCBF)

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24
Q

what are invasive methods to study the brain?

A

Direct Electrode Stimulation (open cranium, during brain surgery), Human Brain Injury Case Studies, Extirpation of brain regions in lab animals.

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25
Q

acetylcholine: a) where the neurotransmitter is most likely to be found and/or act, b) its primary regulatory function(s),

A

Acetylcholine is found in both the CNS and the PNS. In the CNS, acetylcholine is involved in arousal and attention. Depletion of acetylcholine centrally is associated with the memory deficits that characterize Alzheimer’s disease. In the PNS, acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter of the neuromuscular junction and is also found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system.

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26
Q

epinephrine: a) where the neurotransmitter is most likely to be found and/or act, b) its primary regulatory function(s),

A

Epinephrine (aka adrenaline) is found primarily in the PNS and is associated with the stress response elicited by activation of the sympathetic nervous system.

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27
Q

norepinephrine: a) where the neurotransmitter is most likely to be found and/or act, b) its primary regulatory function(s),

A

(aka noradrenaline) is found in both the CNS and PNS. Centrally, norepinephrine is associated with attention and emotional processing. Anxiety disorders and depression are associated with decreased norepinephrine activity. Peripherally, norepinephrine contributes to the stress response associated with activity of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system.

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28
Q

dopamine: a) where the neurotransmitter is most likely to be found and/or act, b) its primary regulatory function(s),

A

Dopamine is found in the CNS and is associated with sensorimotor integration and in reward processing. Parkinson’s disease, Tourette’s syndrome, Huntington’s chorea, and Schizophrenia are all associated with abnormal activity in the dopamine system.

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29
Q

serotonin: a) where the neurotransmitter is most likely to be found and/or act, b) its primary regulatory function(s),

A

Serotonin is found in the CNS and is associated with the homeostatic regulation of sleep and appetite. Serotonin is also involved in regulation of mood. Lowered serotonin levels are associated with depression.

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30
Q

y- aminobutyric acid (GABA): a) where the neurotransmitter is most likely to be found and/or act, b) its primary regulatory function(s),

A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS.

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31
Q

what are neuropeptides?

A

neuro acide peptides whose functions is similar to that of neurotransmitters. Endorphins are on example.

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32
Q

neurotransmitters have faster short lives effects but neuropeptides have..

A

slower longer lasting effects.

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33
Q

what’s temperament?

A

somewhat ambiguous term describing one’s general emotional disposition
it is established at birth and relatively persistent across the life span.

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34
Q

what is innate behavior?

A

Behavior thought to be predominantly genetic and present regardless of environmental influences.

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35
Q

what is learned behavior?

A

Behaviors thought to be predominantly environmental (i.e., learned via experience), and independent of heredity.

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36
Q

what are adaptive value/

A

degree to which behavior increases evolutionary fitness.

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37
Q

what is nature vs. nurture?

A

genetics v. learned behavior.
If environment is controlled AND genetic differences cause a result, NATURE wins. If genes are controlled AND environmental changes cause a result, NURTURE wins. If a clear effect is observed, it is going to be controlled variable that loses.

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38
Q

what are four examples of nature vs. nurture?

A

Example 1: Same Genes, Different
Environment, Environment  Gene
Expression.

Example 2: Different Genes, Same Environment, Genes  Environment.

Example 3: Same Genes, Different Environment, Environment  Disease OR No Disease.

Example 4: Same Genes, Different Environment, Environment  Covalent Modification of the DNA  Dramatically Different Physiology.

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39
Q

For the following twin study experimental design types, identify the dependent variable, independent variable, any obvious study limitations, and—if present—the control: a) Family Studies, b) Adoption Studies, c) Twin Study-[MZ vs. DZ, both raised together], and d) Twin Study-[MZ and MZ, raised together vs. apart].

A

A) Dependent variable= rates of neurodegenerative disease, independent variable= degree of relatedness (please not this is not a true independent variable because it cannot be actively manipulated, and therefore, this research is correlational in nature with all the inherent problems of correlational research. This is usually referred to as a quasi-independent variable). Family studies are limited because families in which the disease occurs will be selectively recruited which makes sample representativeness problematic. B) Dependent variable= IQ, quasi- independent variable=adopted vs. biological. These types of studies are difficult to do because of the relatively small population to select from and because of difficulty in attaining information about biological relatives of adopted individuals. C) Dependent variable= aggression level, quasi-independent variable= degree of relatedness (MZ vs. DZ twin). Potential limitations lie again in generalizability. D) Dependent variable= obesity, quasi-independent variable= reared together or apart. These studies are difficult because access to these populations is very limited.

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40
Q

what are regulatory genes?

A

Regulatory genes are genes that code for a substance that regulates the
transcription of another gene (up or down, promotion or inhibition).

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41
Q

what are three types of behavior variation in natural population?

A

1) species- specific behaviors: Behavior observed only among members of the same species.
2) animal breeding behavior: Animals can be bred to exhibit target behaviors, such as aggression being genetically-selected for in rodeo bulls, or hunting skills being genetically-selected for in certain dog breeds
3) familial concordance behavior: Behaviors shown to run in families or be more frequent among children of parents with that behavioral trait.

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42
Q

Do the following hypothetical findings, if true, most support a genetic influence on behavior (nature), or an environmental influence on behavior (nurture)?

a) Bipolar Disorder is more likely among individuals who have a sibling who has been diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder,
b) Adopted children who exhibit aggressive behavior are more likely to have a biological parent who also exhibits aggressive behaviors than they are to have an adoptive parent who exhibits aggressive behaviors,
c) The concordance rate for alcoholism among MZ twins raised together is higher than the concordance rate for MZ twins raised apart,
d) MZ twins raised together have more similar IQs than do DZ twins raised together,
e) Strain X of MZ twin rats had a hereditary disposition toward obesity, while Strain Y did not. Both strains were divided into groups and fed either a below-average amount of food, or an above-average amount of food; the amount of food fed to the rats was a more effective predictor of life span than was Strain X or Y.

A

a) genetic/ nature + nurture
b) nature
c) nurture
d) genetic/ nature
e) nurture

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43
Q

2) A researcher wishes to identify whether family social environment has an influence on the development of aggressive behavior toward animals, a common finding among adult sociopaths. Which experimental result most strengthens the hypothesis that family environment influences aggression toward animals?
A) A group of orphans exposed to violent video games tested higher on a scale of sociopathic character traits than a group of non-orphans exposed to non-violent video games.
B) A group of children whose fathers tested high on a violence and aggression scale tested higher on an animal aggression scale than a group of children with non-violent fathers.
C) An analysis of lab results taken from adult sociopaths revealed a correlation between hippocampal desensitization to dopamine and high scores on an animal aggression scale.
D) Children from homes where at least one domestic violence incident had been reported to police scored lower on a scale of sociopathic character traits than children from homes with no domestic violence reports

A

B

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44
Q

What is the biomedical approach to psychological disorders?

A

Psych disorders caused by biological or chemical dysfunction (e.g., genetic predisposition, abnormally low hormone or neurotransmitter levels); Treatments are primarily biochemical (e.g., surgery, drugs). Considered more narrow by psychologists; Focused more on relieving symptoms.

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45
Q

What is the biopsychosocial approach?

A

Psych disorders caused by a combination of biochemical (e.g., genetic defect, low hormone level), psychological (personality, unhealthy behaviors), and sociological factors (culture, peer pressure). Treatments should include interventions in all three of these areas to be most effective; Considered more broad and generally more “accepted” by psychologists; Focused more on solving underlying causes and problems.

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46
Q
  1. Describe in detail how the following problems would be addressed using primarily a biomedical approach, and alternatively how they would be addressed using primarily a biopsychosocial approach: a) Patient A is morbidly obese and has a history of failed dieting and weight loss attempts, b) Patient B suffers from severe depression after having multiple pregnancies end in miscarriage, c) Patient C recently survived a major cardiac arrest and underwent multiple bypass surgery. He has a very high blood cholesterol level.
A

A biomedical approach assumes that all health-related problems arise from some physiological dysfunction or pathology. The biopsychosocial approach on the other hand suggests that health- related problems are influenced by both physiological dysfunction as well as a host of psychological and social factors.

A) A morbidly obese individual would probably be referred for gastric bypass surgery from someone coming from a biomedical perspective. While a healthcare provider taking a biopsychosocial approach might also recommend gastric bypass surgery, this would be done in conjunction with some sort of psychological evaluation and counseling to help the patient overcome unhealthy patterns of behavior that contributed to and maintained the morbid obesity.

B) The patient might be treated with antidepressant medications and/or medications that would stabilize future pregnancies by someone coming from the biomedical perspective. Again, these things would be done in conjunction with counseling on the grief and loss felt by the woman in the biopsychosocial approach.

C) Biomedically speaking, the patient would be treated with medications to help lower cholesterol. From a biopsychosocial perspective, this drug therapy would be combined with an attempt to help the patient understand and process the fear that they might feel as a result of these experiences. In addition, they might receive counseling on how to reduce stress and live a healthier lifestyle in the future.

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47
Q

What does the symptom of the disorder must cause in order to be diagnosed as a psychological disorder?

A

must cause clinically significant distress or impairment in normal functioning

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48
Q

what is major depressive disorder (MDD)?

A

Mood disorder with a least on e major depressive episode.

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49
Q

what is a major depressive episode (MDE)?

A

Depressed mood or loss of interest in normally- enjoyable daily activities, that interferes with normal functioning, and lasts for at least two weeks. The MDE criteria are also an important part of diagnosing Bipolar Disorder.

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50
Q

What is Seasonal Affect Disorder?

A

MDD that occurs only at specific time of year (season).

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51
Q

What is persistent depressive disorder (PDD)?

A

Characterized by Dysthymia, which is depressive symptoms that are not severe enough to qualify as a MDE, but persist most of the time for at least two years.

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52
Q

What is the DM5 description of Bipolar disorder?

A

According to DSM-5, the following criteria would be used in diagnosing an individual with bipolar disorder. 1) At least 1 week of abnormally elevated or irritated mood during which the individual also experiences at least three (four if mood is only irritable) of the following characteristics: inflated sense of self, decreased need for sleep, increased talkativeness, racing thoughts, increased distractibility, increased psychomotor activation, excessive involvement in pleasurable, yet risky, activities. 2) This change in mood significantly impairs work or family functioning or leads to hospitalization to prevent harm to self or others. 3) These changes are not better explained by the use of some drug or some other medical condition.

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53
Q

Provide a conceptual definition for the following terms as they relate to Bipolar Disorder: manic episode, Bipolar I, hypomania, and Bipolar II.

A

Manic episodes are disturbances of mood described that are used to diagnose bipolar disorder. Many individuals who are diagnosed with some sort of bipolar disorder often experience alternations between manic episodes and depressed episodes; however, depressed episodes are not part of the diagnostic criteria. The severity of the manic episode will often dictate the specific diagnosis that is made. For instance, individuals with full blown manic episodes are diagnosed as Bipolar I. However, if the individual experiences less intense mania, or hypomania, then they are more likely to be diagnosed as Bipolar II.

54
Q

what are the symptoms associated with schizophrenia?

A

A) The individual must exhibit for at least one month, two (or more) characteristic symptoms which include: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly abnormal psychomotor behavior, and negative symptoms, and at least one of those symptoms has to be an active symptom (i.e. delusions, hallucinations, and/or disorganized speech). B) The individual has experienced significant impairments in their ability to engage in day-to-day activities and in interpersonal relationships as a function of the onset of symptoms. C) Signs of the disturbance are present for at least 6 months (including the 1 month of symptoms in part A) and may include periods of less pronounced symptoms that may be dominated by negative symptoms or by less severe symptoms described in part A. D) Alternative diagnoses (i.e. Schizoaffective and Mood Disorders) have been ruled out. E) Symptoms are not better explained by substance use and/or some other medical condition. F) Individuals with Autistic disorder or another pervasive developmental disorder or problem with communication must present prominent delusions or hallucinations for at least one month in order to be diagnosed with schizophrenia.

55
Q

Provide a conceptual definition for the following terms related to Schizophrenia: prodromal phase, disturbance of affect, flat affect, inappropriate affect, blunting, hallucinations, delusions, delusions of grandeur, delusions of persecution, delusions of reference, thought insertion, thought broadcasting, disorganized behavior, catatonia, echolalia, and echopraxia.

A

The prodromal phase of schizophrenia is essentially early onset of schizophrenia. At this stage, mild, nonpsychotic symptoms begin to surface. As a result, the individual in the PRODOMAL phase may begin to exhibit behavioral differences (e.g. may lose interest in things that once brought pleasure or may begin to isolate themselves from others) that are a signal that something is wrong. DISTURBANCE of affect refers to the emotional irregularities that can occur in individuals who suffer from schizophrenia. Such disturbances can manifest themselves as inappropriate emotionality (INAPPROPRIATE affect), as significant reductions in emotional response (BLUNTED affect), or as a complete lack of emotional responsiveness (FLAT affect). Schizophrenia is often marked by the presence of hallucinations (often auditory in nature) and delusional thinking. In both instances, the schizophrenic is not in touch with reality. Delusional thinking often involves an inflated sense of self-importance or power (DELUSIONS OF GRNADEUR), a belief that others are plotting to hurt or control them (DELUSIONS OF PERSECUTION), seeing personal meaning in any variety of mundane events that occur around them (DELUSIONS OF REFERENCE), believing that others are placing thoughts in their minds (THOUGHT INSERTION), or that others have access or can hear their thoughts (THOUGHT BROADCASTING). Aside from disordered patterns of thought, individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia often exhibit disorganized behavior in which they engage in bizarre, pointless behaviors. Others may exhibit catatonia in which they remain abnormally still for extended periods of time. In some instances, the individual may automatically repeat anything that is said by others (ECHOLALIA) or imitate any movements made by someone else (ECHOPRAXIA).

56
Q

Identify each of the following as an example of either a positive or a negative symptom of schizophrenia: a) thought broadcasting, b) flat affect, c) delusion of grandeur, d) disturbance of affect, e) thought insertion, f) disorganized behavior, g) avolition.

A

A) positive symptom B) negative symptom C)positive symptom D) positive symptom E) positive symptom F) positive symptom G) negative symptom.

57
Q

what is Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

A

A prolonged and exaggerated sense of worry that has few or no verifiable causes. May be accompanied by an exaggerated startle reflex, trouble sleeping, headaches, nausea, fatigue, excessive sweating, etc.

58
Q

What is Social anxiety disorder (SAD)?

A

An overwhelming feeling of anxiety and excessive self-consciousness in everyday social situations. It is characterized by a fear of being judged and feelings of inadequacy, inferiority, embarrassment, humiliation, and depression. May be accompanied by blushing, nausea, excessive sweating, trembling, difficulty speaking, etc.

59
Q

What is specific phobia?

A

An irrational and excessive fear of an object or situation. May be accompanied by dizziness, nausea, difficulty breathing, a sense of unreality, or a fear of dying. In extreme cases, it can induce a full-scale panick attack.

60
Q

What is agoraphobia?

A

A persistent fear of any place or circumstance from which escape might be difficult. Individuals are usually fearful of being outside of their homes, traveling in a car, in a crowd, or in public spaces. May be accompanied by depressed mood, anxiousness, fearful behaviors, or panic attacks.

61
Q

Describe the basic diagnostic symptoms of Dissociative Disorder and Dissociative Amnesia according to DSM-5.

A

The DSM-5 lists the following as diagnostic criteria for dissociative identity disorder: A) disruption of identity with 2 or more distinct personalities (as observed by others or as reported by the patient) B) recurrent periods of amnesia for both everyday events and important personal experiences C) these disturbances fall outside of cultural/religious practices and imaginary play of children D) the disturbances have caused significant impairment in the individual’s occupational or social functioning E) the disturbance is not due to substance use or other medical condition.

62
Q

Describe the basic diagnostic symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder according to
DSM-5. What is the difference between an obsession and a compulsion?

A

In order to be diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder, an individual must exhibit obsessions and/or compulsions. Obsessions involve repeated occurrence of unwanted thoughts which generate significant anxiety such that the individual experiencing them will try to make these thoughts stop. Compulsions are repeated patterns of behavior or thought that the individual engages in to make obsessions go away. The purpose of these ritualized patterns of behavior/thought is to reduce stress or avoid some feared situation. Aside from exhibiting obsessions and/or compulsions, these disturbances are time consuming (i.e. at least an hour of each day is devoted to them) or represent a significant impairment in the individual’s daily activities. These disturbances are not better explained by the use of some substance or some other medical condition. Finally, obsessions/compulsions cannot be only related to the symptoms of some other disorder.

63
Q

What are the three clusters of personality disorders?

A

Cluster A: very common general description
pertaining to either DISRUPTIVE or DISTORTED patterns of thought, behavior, and functioning; paranoid, schizotypal, schizoid

Cluster B : anti- borderline, histrionic, narci

Cluster c: avoidant, dependent, obsessive

64
Q

What three personality disorders are in cluster a?

A
  • Paranoid Personality Disorder = Characterized by DISRUPTIVE patterns of thought, behavior, and functioning. May be accompanied by pervasive distrust or suspicion, a feeling one is being lied to or exploited, a belief that friends and family are untrustworthy or unfaithful, attributing hidden meaning to everyday gestures or conversations, etc.
  • Schizotypal Personality Disorder = Characterized by DISTORTED patterns of thought, behavior, and functioning. May be accompanied by eccentric perceptions, thoughts or behaviors, “magical thinking,” reported ability to read minds or foretell the future, talking to oneself, difficulty forming relationships, severe social anxiety, etc.
  • Schizoid Personality Disorder = Characterized by DISRUPTIVE patterns of thought, behavior, and functioning. May be accompanied by severe detachment from others, little or no desire to form relationships, a sense of indifference to praise, affirmation, criticism, or rejection, etc. These individuals rarely participate in fun or pleasurable activities and are described by others as cold, uninterested, withdrawn, or aloof.
65
Q

What personality disorders ar apart of cluster B?

A

*Antisocial Personality Disorder = Persistent pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. May be accompanied by cruelty to animals, lack of concern for others, difficulty feeling empathy for others, impulsivity, aggressiveness or irritability, failure to conform to social norms, etc. Symptoms usually begin in childhood and include such things as setting fires, legal trouble, and difficulty with authority.
- Never diagnosed before age 18.
- Must include some symptoms before the age of 15.
- Severe cases are further classified as a sociopath or a psychopath.
- Sociopath = severe deficit of conscience.  Psychopath = complete lack of conscience.

* Borderline Personality Disorder = Characterized by pervasive instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and behavior. This instability often disrupts the individual’s sense of self-identity and leads to extreme fears of abandonment. May be accompanied by self- destructive behavior, including self-harm or threats of suicide.

*Histrionic Personality Disorder = Characterized by attention-seeking, excessive but shallow emotions, inappropriately seductive behavior or flirtation, and excessive suggestibility. May be accompanied by fleeting moods, opinions, or beliefs. Individuals are often vivacious, dramatic, and have a desire for others to witness their emotional outbursts.

* Narcissistic Personality Disorder = Characterized by an excessive sense of self- importance, an extreme preoccupation with oneself, and a lack of empathy for others. May be accompanied by a constant need for attention, affirmation, or praise, a belief that one is “special” and should only associate with others of the same caliber, fantasies about success and power, a sense of entitlement, or expectations of special treatment.

66
Q

what are Cluster C personality disorder?

A

*Avoidant Personality Disorder = Characterized by extreme shyness, sensitivity to criticism and rejection, low self-esteem, and avoidance of social situations—including school or work. Individuals may desire closeness with others but have difficulty forming relationships outside of their immediate family.

* Dependent Personality Disorder = Characterized by a chronic, pervasive pattern of dependent, submissive, and needy behavior. Individuals may seek excessive approval, advice, or encouragement. May include sensitivity to criticism or rejection, low self-esteem, low self-confidence, an inability to make decision without others, feelings of helplessness, and extreme devastation when close relationships end—with the need to immediately begin a new relationship

*Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) = Characterized by a chronic and significant preoccupation with perfection, control and order. May include rigid behaviors, resistance to change, inflexibility, stubbornness, and a sense of helplessness in uncontrollable circumstances.

67
Q

what is the difference between OCD and OCPD?

A

Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and obsessive compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) are two distinct diagnoses. As described above, OCD involves obsessions that generate anxiety and compulsive behaviors that are engaged in an attempt to alleviate anxiety. These thoughts and behaviors are generally unwelcome. The experience of an individual with OCPD is quite different in that they tend to be preoccupied with rules, regulation, and organization. They tend to demand perfection in all of their endeavors and are quite inflexible in their patterns of thoughts and in the way that they approach new problems. Unlike someone diagnosed with OCD, the OCPD individual views their perspective as an efficient way to deal with the challenges of life and are much less likely to seek professional help to address these issues.

68
Q

What is PTSD?

A

trauma related disorder, ; stressor induced disorder developed after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event such as a natural disaster, violent crime, or war. Hyperviligant, reliving event , anxiety and avoidance.

69
Q

what is somatic symptom disorder SSD?

A

Characterized by physical symptoms of illness or injury that cannot be explained by a general medical condition or another mental disorder. Individuals often feel severe anxiety or distress about their undiagnosed condition and are preoccupied with its symptoms. The problem is not being fabricated by the patient, but is perceived by them as real.

Has pattern of verifiable physical symptom

70
Q

what is illness anxiety disorder? IAD?

A

Characterized by heightened bodily sensations and intense anxiousness about the possibility of an undiagnosed illness. Individuals may devote excessive time and energy to health concerns, often obsessively researching them.

71
Q

what is conversion disorder?

A

characterized by the conversion of psychological stress into actual neurological deficits; usually numbness, paralysis r blindness.

72
Q

Identify the psychological disorder that is most likely to be diagnosed given the following symptoms: a) alternating periods of high energy/impulsive behavior and depression, b) hearing voices that urge the individual to hurt himself, c) significant periods of memory loss for events that others claim the individual was present for but they also indicate that he was behaving oddly, d) persistent thoughts that harm would befall his parents if he failed to take a flight of stairs two stairs at a time, e) avoiding situations in which social interaction would occur because of an intense feeling of social inferiority, f) an intense need to be the center of attention at all times, g) significant issues with maintaining balance and pronounced tremors.

A

A) Bipolar disorder B)Schizophrenia C) Dissociative identity disorder D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder E) Avoidant personality disorder F)Histrionic personality disorder G) Parkinson’s disease.

73
Q

What NT is associated with Schizophrenia? what drugs would be effective ?

A

Strongly associated with increased dopamine levels in the brain. Most anti-schizophrenic drugs are competitive antagonists that bind dopamine receptors. Having a family member with schizophrenia is a risk factor.

74
Q

What NT are associated with Depression? what drugs would be effective ?

A

Decreased monoamine levels in the brain (i.e., the neurotransmitters: serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine). Increased cortisol level and glucose metabolism in the amygdala. The hippocampus of chronically-depressed patients atrophies (shrinks) compared to healthy individuals. Having a family member with depression is a risk factor.

75
Q

What NT is associated with Bipolar disorder?

A

Increased monoamine levels in the brain. Increased risk for persons with multiple sclerosis or
who have a family member with bipolar disorder.

76
Q

What biological marker is associated with Alzheimer’s?

A

Women are at higher risk than men. A family history of Alzheimer’s is a major risk factor.

Low levels of Beta amyloid and high levels of Tau proteins

77
Q

What NT is associated with Parkinson’s?

A

Parkinson’s is a neurodegenerative disease characterized by slow, halting movements, tremors, muscle rigidity, and a shuffling gait. Dementia and language difficulties are common, but not always present.
 Decreased stimulation of the motor cortex by the basal ganglia due to a decrease in dopamine production by the substantia nigra. The basal ganglia is responsible for producing smooth motor movements. Parkinson’s is often treated with L-Dopa, a direct precursor to dopamine. Direct treatment with dopamine is not possible because it cannot pass the blood-brain barrier. The L- Dopa crosses this barrier and is then converted to dopamine inside the brain.

78
Q

3) Which pair represents two psychological disorders that have opposite effects on neurotransmitter levels in the CNS?
A) agoraphobia and obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) major depressive disorder and Parkinson’s disease
C) schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
D) schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease

A

D- Which pair represents two psychological disorders that have opposite effects on neurotransmitter levels in the CNS?
A) agoraphobia and obsessive-compulsive disorder
B) major depressive disorder and Parkinson’s disease
C) schizophrenia and bipolar disorder
D) schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease

79
Q

What is the psychoanalytic personality theory?

A

Personality is mostly a function of underlying, internal,

unconscious influences. The theories of Freud and Jung.

80
Q

What is Freu’d Id, Ego and Superego?

A

Id:
100% unconscious,
present form birth, responsible for instinct and primitive behavior
libido= psychic energy created by survival and sexual instincts.

Ego:
operates in conscious, pre conscious and unconscious realms, helps balance Id in real life scenarios

Superego:
operates in conscious, pre conscious and unconscious realms, responsible for judging actions base don internalized moral standards obtained from parents and society- perfectionist
develops around 5 years old.

81
Q

what is primary process vs. wish fulfillment?

A

Id-
The primary process would be a way that the id deals with the frustration of delayed gratification because it serves as a memory of the object needed for gratification until the gratification could actually be realized. As the ego and superego come online and actively suppress some of the id’s demands, a person might experience dreams that serve as wish-fulfillment. Denied its demands, the id seeks to satisfy them through unconscious thought processes.

82
Q

What is Secondary process vs. reality principle?

A

The secondary process is the ego’s attempt to satisfy the demands that are represented by the primary process. Because the id’s demands would often be inappropriate, the ego operates on the reality principle to delay the id’s gratification until a more appropriate time.

83
Q

what is conscience vs. ego ideal?

A

According to Freud, the superego is comprised of both conscience and the ego ideal. The ego ideal sets lofty standards for the ego to conform with. In other words, the ego ideal serves as a model for what a person should and wants to be. The conscience on the other hands serves as a system of rules and admonishments for “bad behavior.”

84
Q

Freud theorized that as the Ego attempts to resolve anxiety between the Ego (instinctual) and the Superego (Idealistic), it resorts to unconscious falsifications or distortions called defense mechanisms..
What are they?

A
  • repression
  • regression
  • reaction formation
  • denial
  • projection
  • displacement
  • rationalization
  • sublimation
85
Q

What is the Rorschach Inkblot test?

A

The Rorschach inkblot test involves presenting a series of inkblots to a test taker who is asked to describe what they see. The idea is that, in interpreting an ambiguous image, the clinician will gain invaluable insight into the test taker’s unconscious motives and desires.

86
Q

What is the sentence completion test?

A

In the sentence completion test, respondents are provided with beginnings of sentences and are asked to complete the sentence in some personally meaningful way.

87
Q

what is the thematic perception test?

A

In the Thematic Apperception Test, respondents are provided a series of ambiguous pictures and are asked to come up with a dramatic story about the picture.

88
Q

what is the word association test?

A

In the word association test, participants are provided a word and asked to provide a word that they associate with it. All of these tests are considered projective tests.

89
Q

Which defense mechanism is most closely associated with these types of tests?Rorschach Inkblot Test, Sentence Completion Test, Thematic Apperception Test, and Word Association Test.

A

In each situation, it is assumed that the task at hand (e.g. interpreting an ambiguous picture) would allow a clinician to gain invaluable insight into the test taker’s unconscious motives and desires. Although any number of ego defense mechanisms might be associated, repression is probably the one that people using these approaches are trying to overcome.

90
Q

Wh is Carl Jung and how does he differ from Freud?

A

A contemporary and supporter of Freud who later developed his own psychoanalytic perspective. Jung differed significantly from Freud in his interpretation of the following:

* Libido
 Freud = Driving psychic energy of the Id that is primarily sexual.
 Jung = Generalized psychic energy, not exclusively sexual.

* Ego:
 Freud = Conscious, preconscious, AND unconscious.
 Jung = Conscious mind ONLY

*Unconscious:
 Freud = Storage place of unacceptable, repressed desires. Parts of the ego and superego are unconscious, as is all of the Id.
 Jung = Storage place of repressed memories, both good and bad. Ego is not part of the unconscious mind; it is 100% conscious. Two Subdivisions of the unconscious: personal unconscious and collective unconscious.

91
Q

Provide a conceptual definition for the personal unconscious and the collective unconscious as they relate to Jung’s theory of personality. Include comparisons and contrasts

A

Jung viewed the personal unconscious as those parts of our minds that we are not consciously aware of but that affect our behavior and can be revealed to us in our dreams. In this way, Jung’s view of the personal unconscious was very similar to Freud’s ideas about the unconscious mind. The collective unconscious is the portion of the unconscious mind that is inherited and contains universal themes through all of our lives. The personal unconscious is what allows us to be creative and original in our thoughts. The collective unconscious, on the other hand, represents a virtual repository of all of human history and experience inside each of us.

92
Q

How does Jung and Freud explain behavior differently?

A
  • Freud = Caused by repressed desires from childhood
  • Jung = Caused by past experiences (from childhood or adulthood) and future
    aspirations.
93
Q

What are Jung’s archetypes?

A

Jung’s Archetypes: Unique to Jung, nothing comparable from Freud. Images and thoughts
that have universal meaning across cultures. Perhaps arising from our shared ancestral past.
 Persona
 Anima
 Animus
 Shadow (similar to Freud’s Id)

94
Q

What are Freud’s dichotomies?

A

Extroverted vs introverted

Sensing vs. intuiting

thinking vs. feeling

95
Q

What are Jung’s eight cognitive processes the basis of?

A

Myers-Briggs Type Inventory.

based on:
Extroverted-Sensing, Introverted-Sensing
 Extroverted-Intuiting, Introverted-Intuiting
 Extroverted-Thinking, Introverted-Thinking
 Extroverted-Feeling, Introverted-Feeling

96
Q

What did Alfred Adler believed in short?

A

Adler believed that all human behavior was guided through a process of self- improvement and success and that each individual’s personality was forged through his/her choices and was often motivated by feelings of inferiority that each of us experiences in some aspect of our lives.

97
Q

What did Karen Horney believed in short?

A

Horney refused to accept that sexual and aggressive urges were the key factors in determining someone’s personality, and she rejected the emphasis that Freud and his follower’s placed on the male sex organ. As such, she took a much more humanistic view of personality. One of Horney’s major contributions to psychology involved her theory of neurosis. According to Horney, neurosis results from basic anxiety which results from troubles in personal relationships that stem from childhood.

98
Q

4) One of Freud’s students proposed a psychoanalytic theory after his death. He suggested that the ego was a combined conscious and unconscious force that regulates behavior. The libido was seen as a nonsexual psychic energy that motivates behaviors pleasing to the superego. This new theory is:
A) more similar to Carl Jung’s perspective than it is to Freud’s perspective.
B) more similar to Freud’s perspective than it is to Carl Jung’s perspective.
C) a combination of the ideas of both Freud and Jung.
D) a combination of the ideas of both Freud and Horney.

A

C- Freud suggested that the ego was part of the conscious, preconscious, and subconscious realms, while Jung said the ego was 100% conscious. This aspect of the new theory is more like Freud. Freud characterized the libido as a sexual and primitive force, while Jung said it was more general, and not primarily sexual. This part of the new theory is more like Jung. Therefore, the new theory is about a 50/50 split, as it is described in the stem. This makes Answer C the best answer and makes Answers A and B incorrect. Answer D is false because Karen Horney’s psychoanalytic theory is not directly applicable to the stem.

99
Q

What is Type A vs. Type B personality? who proposed it?

A

Proposed by: Friedman and Rosenman as a way to predict one’s likelihood to develop coronary artery disease.

TypeA Personality (later changed to Type A Behavior Pattern)=Competitiveness, time urgency, hostility.

Type B Personality (later changed to Type B Behavior Pattern) = More relaxed and reflective; lower anxiety levels and higher imagination/creativity.

100
Q

What is the difference between humanistic and psychoanalytic perspectives ?

A

Psychoanalytic = Patients are “sick”, repressed, or have
other troubles in need of treatment. A person is DEFINED by their neuroses.

Humanistic = How healthy individuals strive toward self- realization; HOLISTIC view of the person, as more than the sum of their neuroses.

101
Q

what is Max Wertheimer’s Gestalt therapy?

A

A humanist approach to therapy emphasizing the treatment of the individual as a whole, rather than reducing the person to a sum of their individual behaviors, drives, or neuroses.

102
Q

What is Kurt Lewin’s field therapy?

A

Focuses on the state-of-mind of the patient as the sum of interactions between their individual personality and the “total field” (environment).

103
Q

What is George Kelly’s Personal construct theory?

A

Personality is composed of the various mental constructs through which each person views reality.

104
Q

What is Carl Roger’s Client centered therapy (CCT) ?

A

In CCT, therapists should not direct the therapy or offer solutions. This is a MAJOR DEPARTURE from psychoanalysis, in which the therapist actively drives the interpretation of patient behaviors, dreams, etc. In CCT, the client directs the discussion. Further, the therapist must always be empathetic, genuine and show unconditional positive regard for the client, regardless of circumstance. Finally, Rogers emphasized calling the recipient a “client” rather than a “patient” to avoid the concept that they are “sick” and need help; which he viewed as judgmental.

105
Q

What is Maslow’s hierarchy of needs from base to top?

A

physiological > safety > love belonging > esteem > self actualization

106
Q

What is the type theorist view?

A

Personality characteristics exist as discrete, fixed categories. Most people will fit into one category or another. (e.g., Introverts and extroverts are two types of people). A single, or small set of traits defines personality type.

107
Q

What is the Trait theorist view?

A

ersonality characteristics are part of a larger continuum of personality (e.g., Introversion and extroversion are traits describing one’s position along a continuum. Individuals can be at either end, or anywhere in the middle). Personality is a combination of this and many other traits along many other continuums.

108
Q

What is Gordon Allport’s view on the three basic trains or dispositions?

A

Cardinal central and secondary.

109
Q

Identify the following descriptions as examples of cardinal, central, or secondary traits according to Allport’s Trait Theory of Personality:

a) At his funeral, Daniel is described by multiple speakers as a true “Renaissance Man,” known for his many talents as an artist,
b) Michelle is not generally an anxious person, but feels anxiety when she gets locked outside of her apartment,
c) Mahatma Gandhi is known world-wide as a peacemaker. He is known in particular for his peaceful, non-violent protests against British rule in India and is called by many “The Father of Peace,”
d) Sharon notices that her friend Becky is often anxious and in a hurry. She cannot stand to wait in traffic and gets very impatient when waiting in any line,
e) Jeffrey strives to be honest in all of his dealings and his friends and coworkers generally think of him as being honest.

A

A) cardinal trait, B) secondary trait, C) cardinal, D) central, E) central

110
Q

What is Hans and Sybil Eysenck PEN Model?

A

-Psychoticism
- Extraversion
- Neuroticism

111
Q

What is social cognitive theories?

A

Personality is the result of observational learning, self-

efficacy, situational influences and cognitive processes.

112
Q

What are unique aspects?

A
  • People learn from observing and modeling others: NOT only personal experiences or
    conditioning (See Bobo Doll Experiment, below).
  • People do NOT always apply what they have learned; perceived and actual consequences influence individual choices.
  • People are most likely to model the behavior of someone with whom they identify closely.
  • Self-Efficacy directly impacts learning. A person’s belief in their ability to learn and implement new behaviors is closely associated with their ability to do so.
113
Q

What does Albert Bandura’s emphasized:

A

*Reciprocal Determinism = An individual, their behavior, AND their environment interact, rather than the environment exclusively influencing behavior. This suggests that individuals can mold the environment that influences their development.

* Locus of Control = One’s personal belief regarding the degree to which one can or cannot control life events or outcomes.

114
Q

What is Bandura’s famous experiment?

A

Bobo doll experiment where kids were exposed to modelsand mimicked it

115
Q

Albert Bandura’s famous Bobo Doll Experiment either illustrates or provides support for which concepts or theories? a) the spacing effect, b) classical conditioning, c) social-cognitive theory, d) learning, e) modeling, f) behaviorism, g) gender-based differences in aggression, h) social learning theory, i) influence of genes on behavior.

A

Albert Bandura’s Bobo Doll experiment provides support for social cognitive theory, learning, modeling, gender-based differences in aggression, and social learning theory.

116
Q

what is the difference between external and internal locus of control?

A

* INTERNAL Locus of Control = I believe I primarily control and determine outcomes.

* EXTERNAL Locus of Control = I believe external events or influences beyond my control determine outcomes.

117
Q

What is the biological personality theory?

A

Personality is predominantly the result of the expression of genes. Personality traits are the result of heritable biological characteristics.

118
Q

What is the behavioral personality theory?

A

Personality is the sum of those behaviors that have been reinforced over time.

119
Q

What is BF Skinner best known for?

A

Operant conditioning:
Therapy for negative aspects of personality or any other neuroses should focus on operant conditioning to reinforce more desirable behaviors rather than focusing on some underlying cause as would be suggested by the humanists or psychoanalysts.

120
Q

What is token economy?

A

Positive behavior is reinforced with tokens that can be exchanged later for prizes, treats, or other reinforcers.

121
Q

what is the situational personality theory?

A

Personality (and behavior generally) is the result of external,
situational factors rather than internal traits or unconscious motivations.

122
Q

Which of these theorist would have agreed to the situational personality theory? a) Sigmund Freud, b) Carl Jung, c) Gordon Allport, d) Social-Cognitive Theorists, e) B.F. Skinner, f) Albert Bandura.

A

c, d,e,f

123
Q

5) Which statement supports the Trait Perspective of personality theory over the Type Perspective?
A) Most people have a personality that fits within one of several categories.
B) Many people have persistent personality features.
C) All people have either a Type A or a Type B personality
D) Some people share personality features, but exhibit them to varying degrees.

A

D- The Trait Perspective favors a view of personality as a combination of many traits, each of which can be represented along a continuum of varying degrees. The Type Perspective favors a more universally limited set of traits that constitute fixed “types” or categories into which all or most persons will fit. Based on the stem, we should be looking for a statement that favors a continuum over a limited number of categories. Answer A is false because it favors Type over Trait. Answer B is false because it really favors neither perspective. The persistence of personality can be explained either as persistence within a category or as persistence at a certain point along a continuum. Answer C is false because it strongly favors the Type perspective. Answer D is the correct answer, and the only option that favors the Trait perspective.

124
Q

A person with an internal locus of control may face increased levels of anxiety and stress in which scenario?

a) commission - based job
b) a job with a performance based end of year bonus
c) a job requiring a skillset in which the person has little competence or efficacy
d) a university txt assigns grades based on a curve

A

d

125
Q

a student who responds to having failed their first accounting course by saying “ I never wanted to be an accountant anyway” is displacing which defense mechanism?

a) displacement
b) projection
c) rationalization
d) denial

A

c

126
Q

survivors of a tragedy often start charitable organizations benefiting fellow survivors and victims. This behavior is an example of:

a) regression
b) sublimation
c) denial
d) reaction formation

A

b

127
Q

decreased levels of norepinephrine are most likely to be associated with

a) parkinson’s disease
b) decreased anxiety
c) schizophrenia
d) decreased depression

A

b
parkinson’s –> little dopamine
schizophrenia –> excess dopa
depression –> too little monoamine

128
Q

a football player who claims a psychic ability to foretell the exact score of tomorrow’s game and then attempts to cast a spell on the opposing team mass be diagnosed with:

a) antisocial personality disorder
b) borderline personality disorder
c) schizoid personality disorder
d) schizotypal personality disorder

A

d

129
Q

a GABA agonist is expected to have which effect?

a) decreased anxiety
b) decreased depression
c) increased anxiety
d) increased fight or flight response

A

a

130
Q

researchers need to simulate unregulated reticular formation activity would treat lab mice with which drug?

a) oxycodone
b) heroin
c) barbiturates
d) amphetamines

A

d